...
Question 11472 – APPSC-2012-DL CA
March 24, 2024
Question 11475 – APPSC-2012-DL CA
March 24, 2024
Question 11472 – APPSC-2012-DL CA
March 24, 2024
Question 11475 – APPSC-2012-DL CA
March 24, 2024

Question 11473 – APPSC-2012-DL CA

For a Binomial distribution mean is always

Correct Answer: D

Question 3 Explanation: 
Mean = np
Variance = npq, where q=(1-p)
Logically we are multiplying some number q =1-p to mean to get variance and q belongs to [ 0,1]. so if we multiply a value less than 1 to np to get npq then
np>=npq.
A
greater than variance
B
less than variance
C
equal to variance
D
greater than or equal to variance
0 0 votes
Article Rating
Subscribe
Notify of
0 Comments
Inline Feedbacks
View all comments
0
Would love your thoughts, please comment.x
()
x
error: Alert: Content selection is disabled!!