KVS PGT 2017 Paper 1

Question 1
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/ phrase in each sentence.
He knows ​ which side his bread is buttered​ :
A
knows how to chatter
B
knows the art of cooking
C
knows where his advantage lies
D
knows how to butter a slice
Question 2
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/ phrase in each sentence.
You must ​ keep your head​ whatever happens :
A
be self respecting
B
be honest
C
remain calm
D
concentrate
Question 3
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/ phrase in each sentence.
He had ​ second thoughts​ :
A
decided to take somebody with him
B
changed his mind
C
planned very carefully
D
decided to do elsewhere
Question 4
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in each sentence.
The knowledge of nuclear power might lead to ​ annihilation​ :
A
total destruction
B
tremendous progress
C
immortality
D
full healthfulness
Question 5
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in each sentence.
The Minister ​ condescended​ to accept our invitation.
A
agreed
B
declined
C
felt happy
D
deigned
Question 6
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in each sentence.
I was stunned at the ​ unabashed​ display of wealth in the wedding.
A
shameless
B
impressive
C
candid
D
accurate
Question 7
In the following items a word is followed by four explanatory expressions. Choose the expression that explains the given word correctly.
Philistine :
A
one who does not like or understand art, literature or music
B
one who is a novice as far as art and literature are concerned
C
one who is a fine judge of literature or art
D
one who is devoted to music
Question 8
In the following items a word is followed by four explanatory expressions. Choose the expression that explains the given word correctly.
Iconoclast :
A
one who criticizes popular beliefs and established customs
B
one who is specially sent by God to preach a particular religion
C
one who encourages idol worship
D
one who is against all forms of government
Question 9
In the following items a word is followed by four explanatory expressions. Choose the expression that explains the given word correctly.
Wardrobe :
A
a place where horses are kept
B
a place where official records are kept
C
a place where planes are kept
D
a place where clothes are kept
Question 10
A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A
Indigenus
B
Indigenous
C
Indigenius
D
Indeginus
Question 11
A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A
Hypocrisy
B
Hipocrisy
C
Hypocresy
D
Hipocracy
Question 12
A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A
Parallel
B
Paralel
C
Parralel
D
Parralell
Question 13
In the following sentences one part of the sentence is italicised. Gour alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence are given. Choose the appropriate alternative.
Rohit has got many friends because he has got much money.
A
enough money
B
bags of money
C
a lot of money
D
tons of money
Question 14
In the following sentences one part of the sentence is italicised. Gour alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence are given. Choose the appropriate alternative.
The main business of the Parliament is to deal with matters pertained to the legislation.
A
pertaining with
B
pertaining to
C
pertained with
D
pertain to
Question 15
In the following sentences one part of the sentence is italicised. Gour alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence are given. Choose the appropriate alternative.
The secret information was held away from me :
A
off
B
out
C
back
D
up
Question 16
In the following sentences one part of the sentence is italicised. Gour alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence are given. Choose the appropriate alternative.
He spent much time and energy over it, and lost a lot of money in the bargain.
A
off the bargain
B
into the bargain
C
for the bargain
D
with the bargain
Question 17
Each of the sentences given below has been divided into four parts viz (1), (2), (3), (4). One of the parts contains an ehoose the part which has the error.
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 18
Each of the sentences given below has been divided into four parts viz (1), (2), (3), (4). One of the parts contains an ehoose the part which has the error.
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 19
Each of the sentences given below has been divided into four parts viz (1), (2), (3), (4). One of the parts contains an ehoose the part which has the error.
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 20
Each of the sentences given below has been divided into four parts viz (1), (2), (3), (4). One of the parts contains an ehoose the part which has the error.
A
1
B
2
C
3
Question 21
According to a recent announcement Kendriya Vidyalayas across the country, under the recently launched ‘Compassionate Citizen’ programme, will now teach their children to be kind to :
A
Birds
B
Human beings
C
Animals
D
Reptiles
Question 21 Explanation: 
● In order to inculcate compassion in children towards animals Kendriya Vidyalayas across the country will now be including "Compassionate Citizen" as part of their curriculum
● Compassionate Citizen is a humane education programme that has been designed specifically to teach children to be kind to animals.
● The course has been prepared by animal rights advocacy group People for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA).
Question 22
Who among the following has been named captain of Wisden’s India’s All Time Test XI ?
A
Virat Kohli
B
Ishant Sharma
C
M S Dhoni
D
Kapil Dev
Question 22 Explanation: 
Mahendra Singh Dhoni in the third week of September 2016 was named the captain of the all-time India Test XI chosen by cricket magazine Wisden.
Question 23
Which country does Ma Long, the gold medalist in Table Tennis at Rio Olympic 2016, belong to :
A
South Korea
B
China
C
Japan
D
Vietnam
Question 23 Explanation: 
China's world number one Ma Long beat countryman Zhang Jike 4-0 to win the men's singles and claim a table tennis Grand Slam
Question 24
Who among the following has been selected for the award of Eklavya Puraskar 2016 ?
A
Duli chand
B
Shravani Nanda
C
P V Sindhu
D
Sunil Kant
Question 24 Explanation: 
Sprinter Srabani Nanda has bagged the 24th Ekalavya Award for the year 2016.
Question 25
The Supreme Court appointed Justice Lodha Panel to look into the functioning of :
A
A I C C
B
I C C
C
B C C I
D
A C C
Question 25 Explanation: 
The Lodha Committee was appointed by the Supreme Court of India on 22 January 2015 to analyse and recommend implementable actions for improving the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), assess the quantum of punishment for Gurunath Meiyappan and Raj Kundra in the Indian Premier League (IPL) betting scandal, and analyse the role of Sundar Raman
Question 26
Recently the Hague based Permanent Court of Arbitration ruled that :
A
China has rightfully claimed its control over South China Sea.
B
China together with Philippines has violated the Sovereign rights of others.
C
China has no historic rights to resources of waters of the South China Sea.
D
China’s sovereign territory has never been defined.
Question 27
Who among the following received Padma Shri in 2015 for being first amputee to reach the summit of Mt. Everest ?
A
Arunima Sinha
B
Bachendri Pal
C
Ashwini Waskar
D
Laxmi Agarwal
Question 28
______ was declared Player of Series in recently held (2016) India-New Zealand ODI series.
A
R.Ashwin
B
Virat Kohli
C
Ravindra Jadeja
D
Amit Mishra
Question 29
Durand Cup Football tournament (2016) was won by :
A
Mohan Bagan Kolkata
B
Army Green
C
Aizwal Football Club
D
Neroca Football Club
Question 30
The programme called NIDHI aims at nurturing ideas and innovation of the youth of the country. It was launched by :
A
HRD Ministry
B
Department of Science and Technology
C
U.G.C.
D
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Question 31
What is Indian satellite GSAT - 18 about ?
A
Weather monitoring
B
Star-gazing
C
Telecommunication
D
Pollution monitoring
Question 32
The State whose Board of Secondary and Higher Education has deleted a chapter on Maria Sharapova from a textbook is ________.
A
Rajasthan
B
Goa
C
Gujarat
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 33
Months before the 2016 Summer Olympics the host Country Brazil had to face safety concerns surrounding ________.
A
Zika virus
B
Dengue
C
Chikungunya
D
Herpes simplex
Question 34
Deepa Malik was the first Indian woman to win a medal at Para Olympics (2016). Which event did she participate in ?
A
Javelin Throw
B
Shooting
C
Shot Put
D
Swimming
Question 35
After the department of Maldives (2016) how many nations are the members of commonwealth ?
A
50
B
52
C
51
D
53
Question 36
Who are the winners of under - 18 Asia Cup Hockey 2016 ?
A
Sri Lanka
B
Bangladesh
C
Pakistan
D
India
Question 37
According to a list released by fortune, India’s ________ is among the top ten most powerful women in business.
A
Arundhati Bhattacharya
B
Shikha Sharma
C
Chanda Kochhar
D
Indira Nooyi
Question 38
Who would be the first lady of the USA after the swearing in of Donald Trump ?
A
Melania Trump
B
Maria Trump
C
Melanie Trump
D
Melanija Trump
Question 39
Which of the following Airlines has posted a profit of ₹105 crore after a decade ?
A
Indian Airlines
B
Indigo
C
Air India
D
Vayudoot
Question 40
In Rio Olympics (2016) women’s football final match was won by _______.
A
France
B
Germany
C
England
D
U.S.A.
Question 41
In a row of buses if bus Number 108 is 8​ th​ from the front. Bus Number 201 is the 14​ th​ from the rear end. There are nine buses between them. How many buses are there in the row ?
A
23
B
29
C
26
D
31
Question 42
‘P’ is the only daughter of ‘R’. ‘R’ is a grandmother of ‘Q’.The name of ‘Q’s sister is ‘S’, then what is the relation of ‘S’ to ‘P’ ?
A
Daughter
B
Mother
C
Sister
D
Aunt
Question 43
In a software development company, 30% of workers are B.Tech degree holders, 25% are MBAs, and 20% hold both these degrees. If 325 workers are without any professional degree, how many workers are there in the company in all ?
A
390
B
500
C
425
D
625
Question 44
Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
v l _ k l v _ l k k l _ v _ k k l v _
A
k l v k k
B
l k v k l
C
k v v l v
D
v l l k v
Question 45
Which of the following number sets is different from other three ?
A
{11, 31, 13, 43}
B
{5, 13, 17, 29}
C
{7, 31, 21, 37}
D
{3, 7, 11, 23}
Question 46
In certain Code Language, the word RESPONSE is coded as ESNOPSER. Then the word SYMBOLIC will be coded as :
A
LYMBOCIS
B
BOSLYCIS
C
CILYMBOS
D
CILOBMYS
Question 47
A man moves 3 km North, then turns West and moves 2 km, again he turns North and walks 1 km, and 5 km towards East. How far is he now from his original place ?
A
11 km
B
8 km
C
10 km
D
5 km
Question 48
Write the next term in the following series :
15, 10, 45, 20, 135, 30 _______.
A
40
B
305
C
205
D
405
Question 49
From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed by using the letters of the given word.
INTELLIGENCE
A
CANCEL
B
ENTRANCE
C
ENGINE
D
TEENAGE
Question 50
Select the related letter-group from the given alternatives.
A D G J : ? : : M P S V : N K H E
A
Z X T S
B
Z W Q T
C
Z W T Q
D
S U V Y
Question 51
Write the next term of the following number series.
15, 29, 56, 108, 205, 400 ________.
A
756
B
768
C
758
D
770
Question 52
A survey of 50 cars was conducted for options of air conditioning, radio and power windows.
The following information was found :
(a) 30 cars with air conditioning
(b) 4 cars with air conditioning and power windows but no radio
(c) 21 cars with radio
(d) 12 cars with radio and air conditioning but no power window
(e) 20 cars with power window
(f) 1 car with radio and power windows
(g) 6 cars with all the three options

What is the number of cars that had none of the options ?
A
4
B
8
C
6
D
10
Question 53
If + means ×, − means ÷, × means − and ÷ means +, then find the value of 16 × 4 + 12 − 4 ÷ 18 :
A
18
B
22
C
20
D
24
Question 54
A man is 4 years older than his wife. The wife is three times as old as their daughter. The present age of daughter is 10 years. How old was the man when his daughter was born ?
A
21 years
B
24 years
C
27 years
D
26 years
Question 55
Three of the following forms a group based on an attribute. Find the one which has different attributes.
A
Brass
B
Silver
C
Copper
D
Aluminium
Question 56
If all the numbers from 1 to 61 which are divisible by 4, are arranged in ascending position, then which number will be at 8​ th​ position from the lowest ?
A
28
B
36
C
32
D
40
Question 57
A one rupee coin is placed on a piece of paper. How many more coins of the same size may be placed such that each touches the central coin and two adjacent coins ?
A
4
B
6
C
5
D
7
Question 58
A person riding a bicycle in North ward direction then turned left and rode 3 km, and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself exactly 3 km West of the Starting point. How far did he ride North ward initially ?
A
1 km
B
3 km
C
2 km
D
5 km
Question 59
If + means ×, ÷ means +, − means ÷ and × means −. Find the value of 56 − 8 × 5 ÷ 4 + 7 :
A
25
B
30
C
27
D
32
Question 60
Based on the given figure, following conclusions are drawn. Identify the true Conclusion.
Conclusion:
(I) All boys are sons.
(II) Some graduates are post graduates.
(III) Some boys are graduates.
(IV) Some post graduates are boys.
A
(I), (II) and (III) are true
B
(III) and (IV) are true
C
(II), (III) and (IV) are true
D
(I) and (III) are true
Question 61
Which of the following principles is not applicable to the use of audio visual aids ?
A
Principle of utility
B
Principle of selection
C
Principle of fulfilment of objectives
D
Principle of effectiveness
Question 62
Which of the following is a national agency related to training of secondary school teachers ?
A
NUEPA
B
NCERT
C
NCTE
D
INSA
Question 63
In which of the following aspects, standardized achievement tests and teacher made tests differ ?
A
Time for completion of the tests
B
Content covered by the tests
C
Reliability and Validity of the tests
D
Process of scoring of the tests
Question 64
What is the difference between curriculum and syllabus ?
A
Curriculum is part of the syllabus
B
Curriculum includes text books and syllabus
C
Syllabus is part of curriculum
D
Curriculum and syllabus are same
Question 65
As per the code of professional ethics for teachers, framed by NCTE. Which of the following is not included under the obligations towards students ?
A
Treats all students with love and affection
B
Informs parents the confidential matters related to students for their benefit
C
Adapts his/her teaching to the individual needs of students
D
Respects human dignity of the child in all aspects of school life.
Question 66
Daniel Goleman’s theory of emotional intelligence suggests that educators need to consider the emotional brain, which controls personal intelligence. From the following, identify which combination of dimensions of emotional intelligence he claimed ?
A
Self awareness, motivation, self regulation, empathy and social skill
B
Self concept, self respect, self regulation, motivation and empathy
C
Self regulation, motivation, sympathy, self respect and social skill
D
Social skills, self awareness, self respect, empathy and motivation
Question 67
While preparing test items, which of the following types of questions are considered as easy to score, but difficult to construct ?
A
Essay type
B
Short answer type
C
Alternative response type
D
Multiple choice type
Question 68
In a curriculum, if there is linking knowledge from one lesson to the next across a programme of study, it is :
A
Horizontal curriculum
B
Topical curriculum
C
Vertical curriculum
D
Spiral curriculum
Question 69
What is the most advisable way of organising the classroom furniture ?
A
Once, it has been fixed, it should not be disturbed
B
Classroom furniture has no relevance to teaching and learning. So a teacher should not worry about this
C
Its arrangement should change on a daily or weekly basis
D
Its arrangement should change from time to time as per the requirement
Question 70
Assertion (A) : Social constructivist approach contributes to learning theory by focussing on thinking processes when learning takes place.
Reason (R) : Knowledge is assumed to be constructed by learners themselves and learning is seen as an active process of construction and knowledge accumulation.
In the context of the above statements, select the correct one :
A
Both (A) and (B) are true but (R) not an explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) the explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
(A) is true but (R) is not necessarily be true
Question 71
Which of the following is an important indicator of best teaching ?
A
Meaningful questions asked by students
B
Complete silence in the classroom
C
Number of students passing the examination
D
Attendance of students in the classroom
Question 72
The teaching of biology has correlation with :
(a) Economics
(b) Hindi
(c) History
(d) Computer Science
(e) Physics
A
Only (e)
B
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (e)
Question 73
The correct arrangement of objectives under affective domain, from least to most complex is :
A
receiving, responding, organization, valuing and characterization
B
receiving, responding, valuing, organization and characterization
C
responding, receiving, valuing, organization and characterization
D
responding, valuing, organization, receiving and characterization
Question 74
At school level what should be the dress of a teacher ?
A
As simple as possible
B
Just like normal dress of that society to which the students belong
C
Modern and up to date
D
It should be the same for all teachers
Question 75
An unhappy incident happened in a class. The teacher should find the solution by :
A
Discussing the matter with his/her family
B
Discussing the matter with the Principal
C
Discussing the matter in the class only
D
Discussing the matter with his/her colleagues
Question 76
Which among the following is a common feature of E-learning ?
A
Learning in self-paced
B
Time and cost are very high
C
Always require physical presence in the class
Question 77
Which role of a teacher is crucial in present day context ?
A
Teacher as a good classroom teacher
B
Teacher as a good teacher and a manager of teaching process
C
Teacher as a facilitator of learning
D
Teacher as a strong motivator
Question 78
Which teaching strategy should be preferred for teaching about gram plant ?
A
Demonstration method
B
Film on the life of a gram plant
C
Field visit in the month of October
D
Use of charts and models
Question 79
At one time in a state a B.A. student had to appear in the examination at the end of three years only. There was no examination or any test before that. This is an example of :
A
Formative Evaluation
B
Criterion Evaluation
C
Summative Evaluation
D
Annual Evaluation
Question 80
“________ is a teaching method helpful to discover new ideas and responses very quickly. The focus is on generating as many ideas as possible without judging them; All ideas are given equal credence”. Select the correct one.
A
Buzz session
B
Discussion method
C
Role play
D
Brainstorming
Question 81
जब क्रिया का प्रधान विषय कर्ता होता है, तो कौन –सा वाच्य होता है ? नीचे दिए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प को चुनिए
A
कर्मवाच्य
B
भाव वाच्य
C
कर्तवाच्य
D
कोई नहीं
Question 82
बिना विरोध के उच्चारित होने वाले वर्ण वाक्य क्या कहलाते हैं ? निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से उपयुक्त विकल्प की पहचान कीजिए :
A
स्पर्श
B
घोष
C
स्वर
D
व्यंजन
Question 83
नीचे दिए गए वर्ण बिच्छेद के लिए सही शब्द निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से चुनिए :
A
आर्थीक
B
आर्थिक
C
आरथिक
D
आर्थिक
Question 84
निम्नलिखित शब्दों में संकर शब्द कौन है
A
लिफ़ाफ़ा
B
सरासर
C
कालीन
D
रेलगाड़ी
Question 85
उसने टेढ़ी चाल चली’ वाक्य में कौन –सा कारक है ? नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प की पहचान कीजिए :
A
कर्म कारक
B
सम्बन्ध कारक
C
कर्ता कारक
D
अधिकरण कारक
Question 86
यश का सही विलोम शब्द निम्न लिखित विकल्पों में से चुनिए :
A
अपयश
B
सुयश
C
कुयश
D
यशहीन
Question 87
‘आगमन’ शब्द में कौन –सा उपसर्ग है ? नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से चयन कीजिए :
A
B
अव
C
D
आग
Question 88
वह पढ़ता तो पास होता’ – इस वाक्य में कौन सा काल है ? निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए |
A
अपूर्णभूत
B
सामान्य भूत
C
हेतुहेतुमद भूत
D
पूर्णभूत
Question 89
‘शब्द +अर्थ’ संधि से कौन –सा शब्द बना :
A
.शब्दर्थ
B
शब्दअर्थ
C
शब्दार्थ
D
शब्दाअर्थ
Question 90
निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चुनाव कीजिए :
A
दरपण
B
द्रपण
C
दपर्ण
D
दर्पण
Question 91
भेंड़ चर रही है |’ इस वाक्य का सही बहुवचन रूप है :
A
भेंड़ चर रही है
B
भेंडें चर रही हैं |
C
भेड़ों चर रही हैं
D
भेड़एँ चर रही हैं
Question 92
निम्नलिखित वाक्यांश के लिए दिए गए विकल्पों में से सटीक शब्द का चयन कीजिए :
‘सब कुछ जानने वाला’
A
बुद्धिमान
B
सर्वज्ञ
C
ज्ञानवान
D
सर्वत्र
Question 93
‘एक अनार सौ बीमार’ –इस लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनिए :
A
एक वस्तु के कम चाहने वाले
B
मांग कम पूर्ति अधिक
C
वस्तु थोड़ी और चाहने वाले अधिक
D
अनार को चाहने वाले अधिक लोग
Question 94
वर्त्तमान हिंदी का ‘खड़ी बोली’ नाम किस कारण पड़ा है ?
A
इसे खड़े –खड़े सीखा जा सकता है
B
इसमें खड़ी मात्रा का प्रयोग अधिक होता है
C
इसमें खरी खोटी कहने की क्षमता है |
D
इसका ध्वनि -विन्यास कर्कस है
Question 95
निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से शुद्ध वाक्य चुनिए :
A
दादी का प्राणी निकल गया |
B
मैंने तीन कुर्सियां खरीदीं
C
चार आदमी के लिए खाना बना दो
D
मेरे भाई के शादी के लिए अनेको प्रस्ताव आये |
Question 96
‘यह’ कौन –सा सर्वनाम है ? नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :
A
निश्चयवाचक
B
निजवाचक
C
संबंधवाचक
D
पुरुषवाचक
Question 97
निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से ‘कवि’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग छाँटिए :
A
कविता
B
कवयित्री
C
गायिका
D
काव्य
Question 98
निम्नलिखित में से कौन -सा शब्द द्वन्द समस का उदहारण नहीं है ? सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए
A
धन –धान्य
B
हरिशंकर
C
घर –बाहर
D
दिन –दिन
Question 99
निम्नलिखित विक्लपों में से एक विकल्प शेष का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है, उसे छाँटिए :
A
अहि
B
भुजंग
C
मकर
D
विषधर
Question 100
‘आहट’ प्रत्यय से बने सही शब्द को नीचे दिए गए विभिन्न विकल्पों में से चुनिए :
A
कड़वाहट
B
रहट
C
गिरावट
D
थकावट
There are 100 questions to complete.