KVS 22-12-2018 Part-A

Question 1
Complete the following sentence by using the correct form of the verb. Use the options given below: I didn’t bring my wallet, since you invited me to lunch I guessed you ____________.
A
had given some money
B
will have some money on you
C
might have had some money on you
D
might given some money
Question 2
Choose the description that best captures the meaning of the word INCORRIGIBLE:
A
showing extreme resistance to certain types of food
B
having resilience and tenacity not usually found in others.
C
displaying signs of fatigue and infection in the body
D
having had habits that cannot be changes or improved
Question 3
Choose the word/phrase that gives the best meaning of the word underlined in this sentence: Your findings are original but you haven’t familiarized yourself with the nomenclature of the specimens.
A
System of classifying things
B
uses of
C
value of
D
system of naming things
Question 4
Improve the underlined phrase in the following sentence with the help of given options: Applications for this position should be filed by next Saturday latest.
A
latest next Saturday
B
latest by Saturday next
C
next Saturday at the latest
D
next Saturday latest
Question 5
Complete the following sentence by using the correct form of the verb. Use the options given below: She was too nervous to speak before such a large audience and ____________.
A
was prompted
B
will be prompted
C
has to be prompted
D
had to be prompted
Question 6
Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word: DILATE
A
abduct
B
contract
C
expand
D
shrink
Question 7
Choose the one meaning which best expressed the idiom, Hobson’s choice.
A
a situation on which you have no choice because of you don’t accept what is given, you get nothing at all
B
a situation in which you have all choice but if you accept the choice you forfeit the right to choice again.
C
a choice where your fortunes have already been decided before you exercise the choice
D
a choice which is a win-win situation for parties involved in unlike business
Question 8
Choose the right description that best captures the meaning of the word, MARGINALIA:
A
members of a group who do not actually fight but observe combat from outside
B
notes written in the margins of a book or documents you have read
C
people who have had an experience of border countries and territories
D
marked with pencil and drawn on the roofs of public buildings
Question 9
Identify the part of the following sentence that has/may have an error.
A
Roses grow
B
with abundance against this
C
old wall
D
in this season
Question 10
Improve the underlined phrase in the following sentences with the help of given options: Raju seemed to be living at some remove from reality.
A
from some remove
B
in a remove
C
at one remove
D
at certain remove
Question 11
'कबीर' का संबंध किस काव्यधारा से है ?
A
ज्ञानमार्गी निर्गुण भक्तिधारा
B
राम भक्तिधारा
C
प्रेममार्गी सूफी काव्यधारा
D
कृष्ण भक्तिधारा
Question 12
रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर' की प्रसिद्ध रचना का नाम हैं :
A
उर्वशी
B
यशोधरा
C
चिदंबरा
D
कामायनी
Question 13
अनेकार्थक शब्द के रूप में 'गुरु' का कौन-सा अर्थ अनुपयुक्त है?
A
शिक्षक
B
एक नक्षत्र
C
पचाने में कठिन
D
भारी
Question 14
".....................  हो क्या? किसी बात पर तो दृढ़ रहो।" रिक्त स्थान के लिए उपयुक्त मुहावरा होगा :
A
सोने पे सुहागा
B
बेपेंदी का लोटा
C
मोटी अक्ल का
D
पत्थर की लकीर
Question 15
"टॉस युवा भारतीय टीम ने जीता और बल्लेबाज़ी प्रारंभ की''। उपर्युक्त वाक्य के उद्देश्य' को किस विकल्प में सही प्रदर्शित किया गया है?
A
युवा भारतीय टीम ने
B
बल्लेबाज़ी
C
टॉस
D
भारतीय टीम ने
Question 16
जब अर्थ का ग्रहण अभिधा से न हो किंतु उससे संबद्ध हो तो अर्थग्रहण कराने वाली शब्द-शक्ति को कहेंगे :
A
ध्वनि
B
अभिधा मूला
C
व्यंजना
D
लक्षणा
Question 17
दूर से फेंककर चलाया जाने वाला हथियार कहलाता
A
आयुध
B
तलवार
C
अस्त्र
D
शस्त्र
Question 18
"........................ के कारण मैं रस्सी को साँप समझ बैठा।'' रिक्त स्थान के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द होगा :
A
भय
B
भ्रम
C
संदेह
D
जिज्ञासा
Question 19
अर्थ व्यक्त करने वाली सबसे छोटी इकाई है।
A
शब्द
B
वाक्य
C
ध्वनि
D
वर्ण
Question 20
'स्नेह' का शाब्दिक अर्थ नहीं है।
A
चिकनाई
B
गोद
C
प्रेम
D
तेल
Question 21
Where among the following has the world’s largest solar park recently been inaugurated?
A
Karnataka
B
Chennai
C
Delhi
D
Mumbai
Question 22
Who moved the Objectives Resolution which stated the aims of the Constituent Assembly?
A
B.R. Ambedkar
B
Rajendra Prasad
C
B.N. Rau
D
Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 23
One of the following is true about the Harappan script:
A
It is comparable to the Roman script.
B
It is written from left to right like the Devanagari.
C
It is an alphabetic script.
D
It is a pictographic script.
Question 24
Which one of the following settlement pattern is likely to develop in plain fertile agricultural regions?
A
Linear
B
Circular
C
Rectangular
D
Star-shaped
Question 25
Who among the following recently won the special Golden Man Booker Prize, which marks 50th anniversary of the prestigious award, Man Booker Prize?
A
Michael Ondaatje
B
Kiran Desai
C
V.S. Naipaul
D
Salman Rushdie
Question 26
Which of the following statements is not true, regarding the ‘Brown Agenda’?
A
The emphasis of Brown Agenda is on Inter-generational equity
B
Brown agenda deals with locals issues of the urban poor and the disadvantaged
C
Brown agenda deals with environmental issues, associated with urban and industrial areas
D
Brown agenda deals with issues such as pollution, waste disposal and the provision of safe drinking water and affordable housing.
Question 27
The introduction of economic and political reform policies of Perestroika is associated with which of the following political leader?
A
Nikita Khrushchev
B
Mikhail Gorbachev
C
Boris Yeltsin
D
Vladimir Putin
Question 28
When did sustainable development goals come into effect?
A
January 2016
B
July 2016
C
January 2015
D
July 2015
Question 29
Who won the silver medal in badminton in the Asian Games, 2018?
A
Saina Nehwal
B
Syed Modi
C
P.V. Sindhu
D
Taipeis Tai Tzuying
Question 30
In which Population interactions both the species benefit?
A
Amensalism
B
Mutualism
C
Competition
D
Commensalism
Question 31
Select the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the number series. 7,  14, 42, 168, ___?____
A
840
B
504
C
672
D
1008
Question 32
Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench in such a way that:
(a) C is sitting to immediate left of A.
(b) B is sitting to the right of A and D.
(c) E is sitting to the left of C and A.
Who is sitting in the middle?
A
C
B
D
C
A
D
B
Question 33
Select the correct option which is related to the third term in the same way as second term is related to the first. NQSW : MPRV : : CFHL : ?
A
BFJN
B
BEGK
C
DEGJ
D
EBGM
Question 34
If SUPREAME is coded as DLDSRTO, How would BROUGHT be coded?
A
SGFVAQN
B
SGFNVAQ
C
SGFNQNA
D
SGFVQAN
Question 35
In a row of children, Bhavana is ninth from the left and Ashu is thirteenth from the right. They exchange their positions and then Bhavana becomes seventeenth from the left. Find  the new position of Ashu from the right end of the row.
A
22nd
B
23rd
C
20th
D
21st
Question 36
A man stands facing West. He 135 Clockwise and then he turned 180 anti clockwise. Then, he turned 45 clockwise. What was his final direction?
A
South-West
B
South
C
North-West
D
West
Question 37
Complete the following figure matrix by selecting the right figure from the given options.
A
B
C
D
Question 38
In Family of six, there are three men X, Y and Z and three women A, B and C. The Family has an Architect, a Lawyer, a Professor, a Chartered Accountant, a Doctor and an Engineer. The description of family is given below:
- There are two married couples and two unmarried persons
- The doctor is married to Lawyer
- X is married to the CA
- A’s father is a professor
- The Lawyer is C’s daughter-in-law
- Z is not A’s husband
- Y is not X’s son, nor is he an Architect or Professor
Who is the Architect?
A
X
B
Z
C
A
D
B
Question 39
Choose out the odd one: Tricycle, Trident, Trifle, Tricolour
A
Tricycle
B
Tricolour
C
Trifle
D
Trident
Question 40
Count the number of rectangles of any size embedded in the given figure and select the right answer from the given options.
A
36
B
48
C
21
D
27
Question 41
Speed of internet connection is measured in ___________.
A
dpi
B
ppm
C
Gbps
D
GHz
Question 42
File with ___________________ extension stores _____________ and file with ____________ extension stores ______________.
A
bmp, image, mp3, sound
B
jpeg, image, sound, mp3
C
bmp, sound, mp3, song
D
bmp, sound, mp3, image
Question 43
FAQ stands for:
A
Favourite Asked Question
B
Favourite and Answered Questions
C
Frequently Answered Questions
D
Frequently Asked Questions
Question 44
The top most row of keys on the standard keyboard contains ____________ keys, and the longest key on the keyboard is __________.
A
number, enter key
B
function, enter key
C
function, space bar
D
alphabetic, space bar
Question 45
Computer which offer information are called _____________ , and those which seek information are called ___________.
A
clients, serves
B
Applications, complex software
C
System software, application software
D
Servers, clients
Question 46
Hitting ____________ key and ____________ will open a dialogue box for searching a word in pdf file.
A
Ctrl, F
B
Ctrl, S
C
Alt, F
D
Alt, S
Question 47
Which of the following is not a type of printer?
A
3-d
B
Landscape
C
Laserjet
D
Inkjet
Question 48
Email-addresses in ______________ field are visible to all recipients. Email addresses in ______________ field are visible to only the recipient.
A
To and Bcc. Cc
B
To and Cc, Bcc
C
Bcc, To
D
Cc and Bcc, To
Question 49
Choose the best Option: An antivirus program is designed to ______________ computer virus.
A
scan device and identify
B
scan device, identify and eliminate
C
scan device and eliminate
D
identify and eliminate
Question 50
Which of the following actions will not delete a file on windows desktop?
A
select file, hit delete key
B
double click on file, hit delete key
C
drag and drop in recycle bin
D
select file → right click → delete
Question 51
Which of the following are characteristics features of communication?
(a) It involves exchange of ideas, facts and questions
(b) It is a continuous process
(c) It is both verbal and non-verbal
(d) It is synchronous in nature
A
(a), (b) and (d)
B
(b), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b) and (c)
Question 52
Which of the following plans may be least learner centred?
A
Instructional Plan
B
Unit Plan
C
Lesson plan
D
Activity plan
Question 53
The concept of curriculum development excludes:
A
International considerations
B
Family aspirations
C
Societal goals
D
National goals
Question 54
For conducting physics experiments, a science laboratory should necessarily have:
A
Gas connection
B
Drainage system
C
Availability of natural light and ventilation
D
Demonstration Table
Question 55
What is meant by plus curriculum for special needs children?
A
Additional curriculum for special needs children
B
Curriculum on skill areas which are specific to special difficulties of CWSN
C
A modified curriculum for education of the children with special needs (CWSN)
D
Lessons or academic content meant for CWSN
Question 56
The idea behind supplementary learning material is to:
A
Provide material in less important areas
B
Increase learner’s text reading interests
C
Further enrich learner’s interest in various subjects
D
Provide material in the areas not covered by the teacher
Question 57
It is suggested that a teacher can improve her/his communication by following _________ C’s and _________ S’s which of the below given alternative holds true?
A
Six C’s and Three S’s
B
Eight C’s and Four S’s
C
Seven C’s and Four S’s
D
Seven C’s and three S’s
Question 58
A science teacher has joined a rural school at the beginning of the academic session. Which of the following tests he should use?
A
Situational test
B
Diagnostic test
C
Achievement test
D
In basket test
Question 59
One essential features of a good teaching aid is:
A
Low cost
B
Popular
C
Involving participation of maximum senses
D
Easy to handle
Question 60
The Classic format of the lesson plan is as per ____________.
A
Herbertian steps
B
Hila Taba steps
C
Hilgardian steps
D
Haber’s steps
Question 61
The term ‘Grapevine’ Communications’ refers to:
A
formal communication
B
informal communication
C
advertisement and publicity
D
selective perception
Question 62
The phenomenon in telecommunication and media industry to integrate services, content offering and means of communication under one core technology is termed as:
A
Multimedia
B
Online Communication
C
Convergence
D
Integrated media
Question 63
A Child who reads “dog” as “god” or “bat” as “tab” suffers from which type of disability?
A
dyspraxia
B
dyslexia
C
dysgraphia
D
dysphasia
Question 64
In curricular construction, the act of dividing content as per the class levels will come under:
A
Selection of content
B
Gradation of content
C
Organisation of content
D
Classification of content
Question 65
An itinerant teacher is one who is:
A
qualified to offer special services in different inclusive/integrated schools
B
expert in a number of curricular areas
C
a special teacher appointed for a particular inclusive school
D
a special teacher appointed temporarily on ad hoc basis
Question 66
Hearing impaired children exhibit:
A
barriers in communication by language
B
barriers in moving around
C
barriers in individuals self-care skills
D
barriers in tactile skills
Question 67
The purpose of achievement test is not to:
A
Know what students have learnt
B
Know the areas where the learners are weak
C
Grade learners as sharp, weak and average
D
Ascertain the fulfillment of scholastic goals
Question 68
Identify the statements that are consistent with the social model of disability:
(a) Impairments should be fixed by medical or other treatments.
(b) Disability is caused by the way society is organized.
(c) Impairment is the focus of attention.
(d) The children are valued in their own right.
A
(b) and (d)
B
(a) and (c)
C
(a) and (d)
D
(b), (c) and (d)
Question 69
Which of the following is not true about M.R. children?
A
They lack in ability to generalize
B
They feel difficulty in abstraction
C
They are poor in communication ability
D
They can understand cause-effect relationship
Question 70
A good test should not have:
A
Subjectivity
B
Objectivity
C
Reliability
D
Validity
There are 70 questions to complete.