Question 1
In neural network, the network capacity is defined as
A
The traffic carry capacity of the network
B
The total number of nodes in the network
C
The number of patterns that can be stored and recalled in a network
D
None of the above
       ISRO-2018
Question 1 Explanation: 
In neural network, the network capacity is defined as the number of patterns that can be stored and recalled in a network
Question 2
Cloaking is a search engine optimization (SEO) technique. During cloaking
A
Content presented to search engine spider is different from that presented to the user’s browser
B
Content present to search engine spider and browser is the same
C
Contents of the user’s requested website are changed
D
None of the above
       ISRO-2018
Question 2 Explanation: 
→ Cloaking takes a user to other sites than he or she expects by disguising those sites' true content.
→ During cloaking, the search engine spider and the browser are presented with different content for the same Web page.
→ HTTP header information or IP addresses assist in sending the wrong Web pages.
→ Searchers will then access websites that contain information they simply were not seeking, including pornographic sites.
→ Website directories also offer up their share of cloaking techniques.
Question 3
A data driven machine is one that executes an instruction if the needed data is available. The physical ordering of the code listing does not dictate the course of execution. Consider the following pseudo-code: (A) Multiply E by 0.5 to get F (B) Add A and B to get E (C) Add B with 0.5 to get D (D) Add E and F to get G (E) Add A with 10.5 to get C Assume A, B, C are already assigned values and the desired output is G. Which of the following sequence of execution is valid?
A
B, C, D, A, E
B
C, B, E, A, D
C
A, B, C, D, E
D
E, D, C, B, A
       ISRO-2018
Question 3 Explanation: 
Given data,
A) F= E * 0.5
B) E=A+B
C) D=B+0.5
D) G=E+F
E) C=A+10.5
It is given A, B, C are already assigned values, so we can perform any of B or C or E first but not A. so option(c) is incorrect .
Option(a) is incorrect because we can't perform operation D before operation A.
Option(d) is incorrect because we can't perform operation D before operation A.
Hence option(b) is only correct.
Question 4
Perform window to viewport transformation for the point (20, 15). Assume that (Xwmin, Ywmin) is (0,0); (Xwmax, Ywmax) is (100,100); (Xvmin, Yvmin) is (5,5); (Xvmax, Yvmax) is (20,20). The value of x and y in the viewport is
A
x = 4 , y = 4
B
x = 3 , y = 3
C
x = 8 , y = 7.25
D
x = 3 , y = 4
       ISRO-2018
Question 4 Explanation: 

Question 5
Armstrong’s inference rule does not determine
A
Reflexivity
B
Augmentation
C
Transitivity
D
Mutual dependency
       ISRO-2007
Question 5 Explanation: 
Armstrong inference rules refers to a set of inference rules used to infer all the functional dependencies on a relational database. It consists of the following axioms:
Axiom of Reflexivity:
This axiom states: if Y is a subset of X, then X determines Y
Axiom of Augmentation:
The axiom of augmentation, also known as a partial dependency, states if X determines Y, then XZ determines YZ, for any Z
Axiom of Transitivity:
The axiom of transitivity says if X determines Y, and Y determines Z, then X must also determine Z.
Question 6
A rule in a limited entry decision table is a
A
row of the table consisting of condition entries
B
row of the table consisting of action entries
C
column of the table consisting of condition entries and corresponding action entries
D
columns of the table consisting of conditions of the stub
       ISRO-2007
Question 6 Explanation: 
A limited entry decision table is a structured way to formulate requirements and test cases when dealing with complex business rules. Using a decision table will make it easier to write requirements that cover all alternative conditions. In these tables, the upper half of the table lists the conditions being tested while the lower half lists the possible actions to be taken and each column represents a certain type of condition or rule.
Question 7
An email contains a textual birthday greeting, a picture of a cake and a song. The order is not important. What is the content-type?An email contains a textual birthday greeting, a picture of a cake and a song. The order is not important. What is the content-type?
A
Multipart/mixed
B
Multipart/parallel
C
Multipart/digest
D
Multipart/alternative
       ISRO-2007
Question 7 Explanation: 
The Multipart/parallel subtype
This document defines a "parallel" subtype of the multipart Content- Type. This type is syntactically identical to multipart/mixed, but the semantics are different. In particular, in a parallel entity, the order of body parts is not significant.
Question 8
Which product metric gives the measure of the average length of words and sentence in documents?
A
SCI number
B
Cyclomatic complexity
C
LOC
D
Fog index
       ISRO-2017 May
Question 8 Explanation: 
→ In linguistics, the Gunning fog index is a readability test for English writing. The index estimates the years of formal education a person needs to understand the text on the first reading
→ FOG index gives the average length of words and sentences in a document. The Fog Index is a readability test which predicts whether a document is easy to read or if it is difficult to read.
Question 9
Type 4 JDBC driver is a driver
A
which is written in C++
B
which requires an intermediate layer
C
which communicates through Java sockets
D
which translates JDBC function calls into API not native to DBMS
       ISRO-2017 December
Question 9 Explanation: 
The JDBC type 4 driver, also known as the Direct to Database Pure Java Driver, is a database driver implementation that converts JDBC calls directly into a vendor-specific database protocol.
Written completely in Java, type 4 drivers are thus platform independent. They install inside the Java Virtual Machine of the client. This provides better performance than the type 1 and type 2 drivers as it does not have the overhead of conversion of calls into ODBC or database API calls. Unlike the type 3 drivers, it does not need associated software to work.
As the database protocol is vendor specific, the JDBC client requires separate drivers, usually vendor supplied, to connect to different types of databases.

Advantages Completely implemented in Java to achieve platform independence.
These drivers don't translate the requests into an intermediary format (such as ODBC).
The client application connects directly to the database server. No translation or middleware layers are used, improving performance.
The JVM can manage all aspects of the application-to-database connection; this can facilitate debugging.

Disadvantages Drivers are database specific, as different database vendors use widely different (and usually proprietary) network protocols.

Type-1 driver (or) JDBC-ODBC bridge driver
Type-2 driver (or) Native-API driver
Type-3 driver (or) Network Protocol driver
Type-4 driver (or) Thin driver
Question 10
What does a pixel mask mean?
A
string containing only 1’s
B
string containing only 0’s
C
string containing two 0’s
D
string containing 1’s and 0’s
       ISRO CS 2014
Question 10 Explanation: 
Pixel mask: when a given image is intended to be placed over a background, the transparent areas can be specified through a binary mask.
→ This way, for each intended image there are actually two bitmaps:
1. Actual image, in which the unused areas are given a pixel value with all bits set to 0s.
2. Additional mask, in which the correspondent image areas are given a pixel value of all bits set to 0s and the surrounding areas a value of all bits set to 1s.
In the sample at right, black pixels have the all-zero bits and white pixels have the all-one bits.
Question 11
The number of logical CPUs in a computer having two physical quad-core chips with hyperthreading enabled is
A
1
B
2
C
8
D
16
       ISRO CS 2014
Question 11 Explanation: 
There is only one processor chip. That chip can have one, two, four, six, or eight cores.
Currently, an 18-core processor is the best you can get in consumer PCs.
Each “core” is the part of the chip that does the processing work. Essentially, each core is a central processing unit (CPU).
From the given information , there are two quad core chips are available
So, total number of physical CPUs = 2*4 = 8
Each CPU has two logical CPU in hyper threading
So, 8 physical CPU have 2*8 = 16 logical CPU.
Question 12
The output of a tristate buffer when the enable input in 0 is
A
Always 0
B
Always 1
C
Retains the last value when enable input was high
D
Disconnected state
       ISRO CS 2014
Question 13
A web client sends a request to a web server. The web server transmits a program to that client and is executed at the client. It creates a web document. What are such web documents called?
A
Active
B
Static
C
Dynamic
D
Passive
       ISRO CS 2014
Question 13 Explanation: 
→ Static
A static web document resides in a file that it is associated with a web server. The author of a static document determines the contents at the time the document is written. Because the contents do not change, each request for a static document results in exactly the same response.
→ Dynamic:
A dynamic web document does not exist in a predefined form. When a request arrives the web server runs an application program that creates the document. The server returns the output of the program as a response to the browser that requested the document. Because a fresh document is created for each request, the contents of a dynamic document can vary from one request to another.
→ Active:
An active web document consists of a computer program that the server sends to the browser and that the browser must run locally. When it runs, the active document program can interact with the user and change the display continuously.
Question 14
If the maximum output voltage of a DAC is V volts and if the resolution is R bits then the weight of the most significant bit is
A
V/ (2R -1)
B
(2R-1).V/(2R -1)
C
(2R-1).V
D
V/(2R-1)
       ISRO CS 2014
Question 14 Explanation: 
→ If the maximum output voltage of a Digital to Analogue Converter is V volts and if the resolution is R bits then the weight of the most significant bit is (2R-1).V/(2R-1)
Question 15

Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching ?

Indicate your answer by selecting from the code.

    (a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
    (b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
    (c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
    (d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
    (e) A teacher is a senior person.
    (f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code :
A
(a), (b) and (d)
B
(b), (c) and (e)
C
(a), (c) and (f)
D
(d), (e) and (f)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 15 Explanation: 
Nature and objectives of teaching:
1. Teaching and learning are integrally related.
2. Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
3. Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Question 16

Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching ?

A
Prior experience of the learner
B
Educational status of the parents of the learner
C
Peer groups of the learner
D
Family size from which the learner comes
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 16 Explanation: 
Following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching:
I. Prior experience of the learner
II. Habit of exercise
III. Slow beginning and gradual development
IV. Habit of readiness
Question 17

In the two sets given below Set-I indicates methods of teaching while Set-II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code :

       Set-I                                      Set-II
(Method of teaching)             (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)
(a) Lecturing                   (i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(b) Discussion in groups       (ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming             (iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional   (iv) Use of teaching-aids Procedure
                                (v) Theme based interaction among participants
Code :
   
A
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
B
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
C
(a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
D
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 17 Explanation: 
Lecturing:
Lecturing refers to giving an instructructional talk(which is easy to understand) on some subject usually in front of a class or a group of people.
Discussion in groups:
Discussion in groups refers to a discussion taking place in a group of people on a common topic.
Brainstorming:
Brainstorming refers to a method of generating ideas to solve a specific problem.
Programmed learning:
Programmed learning (or programmed instruction) is a research-based system which helps learners work successfully. The method is guided by research done by a variety of applied psychologists and educators.
Question 18

From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code :

    (a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
    (b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.
    (c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
    (d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.
    (e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months interval.
    (f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Code :
A
(a), (b) and (c)
B
(b), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (c) and (e)
D
(b), (d) and (f)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 18 Explanation: 
Formative Evaluation:
Formative evaluation is a evaluation for learning. The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Monitor student learning to provide ongoing feedbacks that can be used by instructor to improve their teaching and by students to improve their learning.
Help faculties recognize where students are struggling and address problem immediately.
Question 19
    Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.
    Reason (R) : All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code :

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 19 Explanation: 
TRUE: Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.
FALSE: Reason (R) : All learning results from teaching.
Question 20

There are two sets given below. Set-I specifies the types of research, while Set-II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

        Set-I                                Set-II
    (Research types)                    (Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research   (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention
(b) Applied research      (ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
(c) Action research      (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions
(d) Evaluative research   (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various Situations
                           (v) Enriching technological resources
Code :    
A
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
B
(a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
C
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
D
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 20 Explanation: 
Fundamental Research: Fundamental research can takes place in two different ways :
I. Discovery of new theory
II. Development of the existing theory
Applied research : Fundamental research sets principles and applied research utilizes those principles to know the problems with best possible manner.
Action research: In Action research an immediate action takes place to get a workable solution to a given problem.
It tries to improve an existing situation through use of interventions.
Evaluative Research: Evaluative Research is used to evaluate the performance of the actions that have been already implemented.
Question 21

Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy ?

A
Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
B
Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
C
Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
D
Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 21 Explanation: 
Action research strategy is carried out in the following order:
Plan:
Plan to improve what is already happening.
It involves forward looking.
Planning recognize real constraints of the situation.
Act:
The Act of implementing the Plan.
Guided but not controlled by plan.
Struggle towards improvement.
Observe:
To observe the effects of action in the context in which it occurs.
Reflect:
To reflect on these effects as a basis for further planning, subsequent action and so on, through a succession of cycles.
Question 22

Which of the following sequences of research steps is nearer to scientific method ?

A
Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.
B
Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.
C
Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
D
Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalizations and Conclusions.
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 22 Explanation: 
Following is the sequences of research steps:
I. Formulating the research problem
II. Extensive literature Survey
III. Developing the Hypothesis
IV. Preparing the research Design
V. Determining Sample Design
VI. Collecting the data
VII. Execution of project
VIII. Analysis of data
IX. Hypothesis testing
X. Generalisation and interpretation
XI. Preparation of the report for presentation of results
Question 23

The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities ?

A
Following the prescribed format of a thesis
B
Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques
C
Defining the population of research
D
Evidence based research reporting
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 23 Explanation: 
Research Ethic's is concerned with the following aspect of research activities :
I. Evidence based research reporting
Question 24

In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater ?

A
Preparing research summary
B
Presenting a seminar paper
C
Participation in research conference
D
Participation in a workshop
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 24 Explanation: 
Participation in research conference is relatively greater among all.
Because it needs to prove something and unique.
Question 25

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension ?

    (a) Aspirations of people
    (b) Modern day dynamism
    (c) Economy in the global context
    (d) Strategic interests
Code:
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (c) and (d) only
D
(a), (b) and (d) only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 26

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

More productive employment demands :

A
Pervasive use of technology
B
Limiting competitive market place
C
Geo-political considerations
D
Large industries
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 27

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

Absence of technology would lead to :

    (a) Less pollution
    (b) Wastage of precious natural resources
    (c) Low value addition
    (d) Hurting the poorest most
Code :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(a), (c) and (d) only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 28

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

The advantage of technological inputs would result in :

A
Unbridled technological growth
B
Importing plant machinery
C
Sidelining environmental issues
D
Lifting our people to a life of dignity
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 29

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

Envisioning a developed India requires :

A
Aspiration to become a major economic player
B
Dependence upon projects designed abroad
C
Focus on short-term projects
D
Development of core technological strengths
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 30

Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of :

A
selective expectation of performance
B
selective affiliation to peer groups
C
selective attention
D
selective morality
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 30 Explanation: 
Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of selective attention.
Question 31
    Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.
    Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.
Code :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 31 Explanation: 
FALSE: Assertion (A) :
The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.
TRUE: Reason (R) :
More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.
Question 32
    Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.
    Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.
Code :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 32 Explanation: 
FALSE: Assertion (A) :
To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.
TRUE: Reason (R) :
Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.
Question 33
    Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.
    Reason (R) : A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive.

Select the correct code for your answer :

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 33 Explanation: 
TRUE: Assertion (A) :
Classroom communication is a transactional process.
FALSE: Reason (R) :
A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive.
Question 34

Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process ?

    (a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
    (b) Communication is a learnt ability.
    (c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
    (d) Communication cannot break-down.
    (e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
    (f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Code :
A
(a), (c), (e) and (f)
B
(b), (d), (e) and (f)
C
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (d), (e) and (f)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 35
The next term in the series −1, 5, 15, 29, ? , … is :
A
36
B
47
C
59
D
63
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 35 Explanation: 

It can be observed that the difference between two consecutive terms is increasing by adding 4 in the previous difference.
So for next term, next difference will be 14 + 4 = 18
Next term = 29 + 18
Next term = 47
Question 36

The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? , ... is :

A
ZKU
B
ZCA
C
ZKW
D
KZU
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 36 Explanation: 
Question 37

If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be :

A
LOQOZEH
B
HLZEOOQ
C
ZELHOQO
D
LQOOFZH
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 37 Explanation: 
Question 38

Introducing Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as :

A
Aunt
B
Mother
C
Sister
D
Daughter
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 38 Explanation: 
Question 39

Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1 : 2. The numbers are :

A
16, 40
B
20, 50
C
28, 70
D
32, 80
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 39 Explanation: 
Question 40

Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

What type of reasoning is entailed in the above statement ?

A
Mathematical
B
Psychological
C
Analogical
D
Deductive
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 40 Explanation: 
→ Argument from analogy is a special type of inductive argument, whereby perceived similarities are used as a basis to infer some further similarity that has yet to be observed.
Analogical reasoning is one of the most common methods by which human beings attempt to understand the world and make decisions.
Question 41

Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).

    Premises :
    (A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.
    (B) Most of the singers are dancers.
    Conclusions :
    (a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
    (b) Most of the dancers are singers.
    (c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
    (d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Code :
A
(a) and (b)
B
(b) and (c)
C
(c) and (d)
D
(d) and (a)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 41 Explanation: 
Question 42

Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning ?

A
Law of identity
B
Unchangeability in nature
C
Harmony in nature
D
Uniformity of nature
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 43

If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct

code :
    Propositions :
    (a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
    (b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
    (c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
    (d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Code :
A
(a) and (b)
B
(a) only
C
(c) and (d)
D
(b) only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 44

Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method ?

A
It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
B
It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
C
It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.
D
It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 45

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.

Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) ÷ (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production − Exports.

The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year ?

A
2013
B
2014
C
2015
D
2016
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 45 Explanation: 
Question 46

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.

Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) ÷ (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production − Exports.

What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million) ?

A
2.64
B
2.72
C
2.79
D
2.85
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 46 Explanation: 
Population in million(in 2014) = (Consumption in million kg) ÷ (Per Capita Consumption)
Consumption(In 2014) = 108
Population in million = 108(in million kg)/38.7(in kg)
Population in million = 2.79 million
Question 47

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.

Where, Per Capita Consumption=(Consumption in million kg)÷(Population in million) and consumption (in million kg)=Production−Exports.

The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year :

 
A
2012
B
2013
C
2014
D
2015
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 47 Explanation: 
Ratio of exports to consumption(In 2012) = 114/72.5 = 1.57
Ratio of exports to consumption(In 2013) = 114/80 = 1.42
Ratio of exports to consumption(In 2014) = 130/108 = 1.20
Ratio of exports to consumption(In 2015) = 116/108 = 1.07
Question 48

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.

Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) ÷ (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg)=Production−Exports.

In which year, the population of the country was the highest ?

 
A
2013
B
2014
C
2015
D
2016
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 48 Explanation: 
population(In 2013) = 88 (in million kg)/35.2(in kg)
population(In 2013) = 2.5 million
population(In 2014) = 108 (in million kg)/38.7(in kg)
population(In 2014) = 2.7 million
population(In 2015) = 105 (in million kg)/40.5(in kg)
population(In 2015) = 2.59 million
population(In 2016) = 127 (in million kg)/42(in kg)
population(In 2016) = 3.02 million
Question 49

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.

Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) ÷ (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production − Exports.

What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012-2016 ?

A
104
B
102.1
C
108
D
100.1
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 49 Explanation: 
average consumption of rice (in million kg) = [72.5 + 88 + 108 + 105 + 127]/5
average consumption of rice (in million kg) = 100.1 million kg
Question 50

Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE ?

    P : ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
    Q : Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.
A
P only
B
Q only
C
P and Q
D
Neither P nor Q
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 50 Explanation: 
P: FALSE because “Information and Communication Technology”.
Q: TRUE: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.
Question 51

A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous Laptop models.

Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this ?

A
Universal Serial Bus Mouse
B
Faster Random Access Memory
C
Blu Ray Drive
D
Solid State Hard Drive
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 51 Explanation: 
Solid State Hard Drive(SSDs) essentially semiconductor memory devices mounted on a circuit board, are small and lightweight.
They often follow the same form factors as HDDs (2.5-inch or 1.8-inch), but the enclosures are made mostly of plastic.
Question 52

Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message ?

 
A
ram@test.com
B
ram@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
C
ram@test.com; rama@test.com
D
ram@test.com; rama@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 53

Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit :

    (a) Kilobyte
    (b) Byte
    (c) Megabyte
    (d) Terabyte
    (e) Gigabyte
    (f) Bit

Give your answer from the following code :

A
(f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
B
(f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)
C
(f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
D
(f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 53 Explanation: 
1 Byte = 8-bits
1 KiloByte = 103 Byte
1 MegaByte = 106 Byte
1 GigaByte = 109 Byte
1 TeraByte = 1012 Byte
Question 54

With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?

    P : Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
    Q : Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
    R : Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.
A
P only
B
Q only
C
P and Q only
D
P and R only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 54 Explanation: 
Volatile Memory:
A storage device is said to be volatile only if it maintains its data while the device is switched ON/ powered.
Example : RAM Non-Volatile Memory:
A storage device is said to be volatile if it maintains its data even if the device is switched OFF.
Example : ROM, Secondary memory.
Question 55

‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an eco-friendly resource for use in :

    (a) agriculture as micro-nutrient
    (b) wasteland development
    (c) dam and water holding structures
    (d) brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (c) and (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 55 Explanation: 
All of the above is true.
Question 56

Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end ?

A
Earthquakes
B
Landslides
C
Hurricanes
D
Droughts
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 57
    Assertion (A) : Indoor air pollution is a serious health hazard.
    Reason (R) : The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true and (R) is false.
D
Both (A) and (R) are false.
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 58

In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, identify the correct sequence of energy sources - Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

A
TPP > RE > LHP > NE
B
TPP > LHP > RE > NE
C
LHP > TPP > RE > NE
D
LHP > TPP > NE > RE
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 59

Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India ?

A
Unregulated small scale industry
B
Untreated sewage
C
Agricultural run-off
D
Thermal power plants
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 60

India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after :

    (a) The United States of America
    (b) Australia
    (c) China
    (d) United Kingdom (U.K.)

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (c) only
C
(a), (c) and (d) only
D
(a) and (c) only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 61

Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph.D programme in :

A
State and Central Universities
B
Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs
C
IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities
D
IITs and IISc
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 62

Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select :

    (a) the Central Information Commissioner
    (b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner
    (c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
    (d) the Chairperson of National Commission for Women

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (c) only
C
(a), (c) and (d) only
D
(a), (b) and (d) only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 63

Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting ?

    (a) It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of women.
    (b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
    (c) It is an accounting exercise.
    (d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A
(b) and (d) only
B
(a) and (d) only
C
(a), (c) and (d) only
D
(b), (c) and (d) only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 64

Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India ?

    (a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
    (b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
    (c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
    (d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (c) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(a) and (b) only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-1
Question 65

The definitions in an XML document are said to be when the tagging system and definitions in the DTD are all in compliance.

A
well-formed
B
reasonable
C
valid
D
logical
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 65 Explanation: 
→ A XML document is said to be well- formed if it have correct syntax like tags are case sensitive, elements must have closing tags, elements must be properly nested etc.
→ But when when associate a well formed XML document with a DTD( in which we define the structure of a document) and if that XML document validates all the definitions defined in DTD then that XML document is called as “valid” XML document.
→ Always remember that a “valid” XML document is also a “well-formed” XML document but a “well-formed” XML document is not necessarily a “valid” XML document.
→ In question, it is mentioned that XML document is validating the definitions in the DTD. So, the answer is option (3).
Question 66

Consider the JavaScript Code :

var y = "12";
function f() 
{
      var y = "6";
      alert (this.y);
      function g() 
      {
           alert (y); 
      }
      g();
} 
f();

If M is the number of alert dialog boxes generated by this JavaScript code and D1, D2, ...., DM represents the content displayed in each of the M dialog boxes, then : 

A
M=3; D1 displays ”12”; D2 displays ”6”; D3 displays ”12”.
B
M=3; D1 displays ”6”; D2 displays ”12”; D3 displays ”6”.
C
M=2; D1 displays ”6”; D2 displays ”12”.
D
M=2; D1 displays ”12”; D2 displays ”6”.
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 66 Explanation: 
The JavaScript this keyword refers to the object it belongs to.
It has different values depending on where it is used:
• In a method, this refers to the owner object.
• Alone, this refers to the global object.
• In a function, this refers to the global object.
• In an event, this refers to the element that received the event.
• Methods like call(), and apply() can refer this to any object.
• There are two alert boxes in the javascript code. So two messages will be displayed.
• First message, alert(this.y) here this.y is global variable whose value is 12. So first message is “12”.
• Second message is alert(y) , here “y” local variable and value is 6 so second message displays value “6”
Question 67

What is the output of the following JAVA program ?

class simple 
{ 
     public static void main(String[] args) 
     { 
          simple obj = new simple(); 
          obj.start();
     } 
     void start()
     {
          long [] P = {3, 4, 5}; 
          long [] Q = method (P); 
          System.out.print (P[0] + P[1] + P[2]+”:”); 
          System.out.print (Q[0] + Q[1] + Q[2]); 
     }
     long [] method (long [] R) 
     { 
          R [1] = 7; return R; 
     }
} //end of class
A
12 : 15
B
15 : 12
C
12 : 12
D
15 : 15
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 67 Explanation: 
• First we will create the object of simple class.
• By using object , we call the function start( ).
• In the start() function definition, first statement is integer array with three elements.
• long [ ] Q= method (P); Again function method(p) will be called.
• In the definition of method function, we are changing the second element of array to value 7 and returning updated array to array Q.
• We are passing address of P as argument to method so Modifications happened in the method automatically reflects to array P.
• Both array P and Q consists of values {3,7,5}.
• The sum of the three values are 15.
Question 68

Given below are three implementations of the swap( ) function in C++ :

Which of these would actually swap the contents of the two integer variables p and q ?

A
(a) only
B
(b) only
C
(c) only
D
(b) and (c) only
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 68 Explanation: 
Module - (a) is call by value. So, by using that code w can not swap the contents.
Module - (b) is call by reference. So, the modification of content in the function reflects the changes in the main program. Swapping is done in the module - (b).
Module - (c) is passing addresses as parameters but in the functions definition. We are changing the addresses not the content. So, swapping of the values can’t be done.
Question 69

In Java, which of the following statements is/are True ?

    S1 : The ‘final’ keyword applied to a class definition prevents the class from being extended through derivation.
    S2 : A class can only inherit one class but can implement multiple interfaces.
    S3 : Java permits a class to replace the implementation of a method that it has inherited. It is called method overloading.
Code :
A
S1 and S2 only
B
S1 and S3 only
C
S2 and S3 only
D
All of S1, S2 and S3
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 69 Explanation: 
• If a class has multiple methods having same name but different in parameters, it is known as Method Overloading.Method Overloading is a feature that allows a class to have more than one method having the same name, if their argument lists are different. So the option-3 is False.
• The final keyword in java is used to restrict the user. The java final keyword can be used in many context. Final can be: variable, method and class.
• A Java class can only extend one parent class. Multiple inheritance (extends) is not allowed. Interfaces are not classes. However, and a class can implement more than one interface.
Question 70

A graphic display system has a frame buffer that is 640 pixels wide, 480 pixels high and 1 bit of color depth. If the access time for each pixel on the average is 200 nanoseconds, then the refresh rate of this frame buffer is approximately :

A
16 frames per second
B
19 frames per second
C
21 frames per second
D
23 frames per second
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 70 Explanation: 
Given data,
- Width (or) wide = 640 pixels
- Height (or) High = 480 pixels
- Color depth =1 bit/pixel
- Access time of each pixel on the average = 200ns
- Refresh rate of frame buffer = ?
Step-1: Graphic display system = 640 * 480 =307200
Step-2: Memory required for Graphic display system = 640 * 480 * 1 = 307200
Step-3: Total screen access time = Memory required for Graphic display system * Access time of each pixel
= 307200 * 200 ns
= 61440000 ns
Step-4: Refresh rate of frame buffer per second =(10-9)/61440000
= 16.27604166 frames per second
[ Note: 10-9 = 1000000000 ]
Question 71

Assume the following regarding the development of a software system P:

    - Estimated lines of code of P : 33, 480 LOC
    - Average productivity for P : 620 LOC per person-month
    - Number of software developers : 6
    - Average salary of a software developer :  50,000 per month

If E, D and C are the estimated development effort (in person-months), estimated development time (in months), and estimated development cost (in Lac) respectively, then (E, D, C) =  

A
(48, 8, 24)
B
(54, 9, 27)
C
(60, 10, 30)
D
(42, 7, 21)
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 71 Explanation: 
Given data,
- Estimated lines of code of P : 33480 LOC
- Average productivity for P : 620 LOC per person-month
- Number of software developers : 6
- Average salary of a software developer : 50000 per month
Step-1: Estimated development effort (in person-months) = 33480 /620
E = 54
Step-2: Estimated development time (in months) = 54/6
D = 9 months
Step-3: Estimated development cost (in Lac) = 50000 * 6 * 9 = 27 lacs
Question 72

To obtain a string of n Terminals from a given Chomsky normal form grammar, the number of productions to be used is :

A
2n−1
B
2n
C
n+1
D
n2
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 72 Explanation: 
If all the productions of a grammar are in the form A ➝ BC OR A ➝ a then that grammar is said to be in Chomsky normal form.
Example:

Derive string “ab” from above grammar.
Sol:

Using formula 2n - 1; where n = length of string
2(2) - 1 = 3
Hence, the answer is option(1).
Question 73

Consider a vocabulary with only four propositions A, B, C and D. How many models are there for the following sentence ? B ∨ C

A
10
B
12
C
15
D
16
       UGC-NET JUNE Paper-2
Question 73 Explanation: 
Here, number of models is nothing but number of TRUEs in final statement. In this proposition logic we got total 15 number of models.

Total 12 TRUE for given sentence.
Question 74
Copying a process from memory to disk to allow space for other processes is called:
A
Swapping
B
Demand Paging
C
Deadlock
D
Page Fault
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 74 Explanation: 
→ Swapping was an early virtual memory technique. An entire program would be swapped out (or rolled out) from RAM to disk, and another one would be swapped in (or rolled in). → A swapped-out program would be current but its execution would be suspended while its RAM was in use by another program.
Question 75
Find the odd one out
A
Merge Sort
B
Travelling Salesman Problem
C
Knapsack Problem
D
Optimal Binary Search Tree Problem
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 75 Explanation: 
Merge Sort → Divide and Conquer
Travelling Salesman Problem → Dynamic Programming
Knapsack Problem → Dynamic Programming
Optimal Binary Search Tree Problem → Dynamic Programming
Question 76
What is 2's complement of (101)​ 3​ ?
A
(010​ ) ​ 3
B
(011​ )3
C
(121​ ) ​ 3
D
(121​ ) ​ 2
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 76 Explanation: 
Given base is r=3. So, 2’s complement is diminished radix complement or (r-1) complement. (r-1)’s complement is 222-101= 121
Question 77
If attributes of relation schema R is member of some candidate key then this type of attributes are classified as:
A
atomic attribute
B
candidate attribute
C
non prime attribute
D
prime attribute
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 77 Explanation: 
→ ​ In the relational model of databases, a candidate key of a relation is a minimal superkey for that relation; that is, a set of attributes such that:
1. the relation does not have two distinct tuples (i.e. rows or records in common database language) with the same values for these attributes (which means that the set of attributes is a superkey)
2. there is no proper subset of these attributes for which (1) holds (which means that the set is minimal).
● Candidate keys are also variously referred to as primary keys, secondary keys or alternate keys.
● The constituent attributes are called prime attributes. Conversely, an attribute that does not occur in ANY candidate key is called a non-prime attribute.
Ex: AB, BC, CD are candidate keys of R(ABCD). In the FDs set one attribute may not be part of all the FDs.
Question 78
Which of this is not a network edge device?
A
PC
B
Server
C
Smartphone
D
Switch
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 78 Explanation: 
● PC, Server and Smartphones are devices which are used for various purposes where as Switch is networking device.
● A network switch (also called switching hub, bridging hub, officially MAC bridge) is a computer networking device that connects devices on a computer network by using packet switching to receive, process, and forward data to the destination device.
Question 79
The example of implied addressing is
A
Stack addressing
B
Indirect addressing
C
Immediate addressing
D
None of the above
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 79 Explanation: 
-----> Operand is (implicitly) on top of stack
e.g. ADD Pop top two items from stack and add
-----> The stack mode of addressing is a form of implied addressing,the machine instructions need not include a memory reference but implicitly operate on top of stack.
Question 80
The degree of multi programming is controlled by:
A
CPU Scheduler
B
long term Scheduler
C
Context Switching
D
Medium term Scheduler
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 80 Explanation: 
→ The long-term scheduler, or admission scheduler, decides which jobs or processes are to be admitted to the ready queue (in main memory); that is, when an attempt is made to execute a program, its admission to the set of currently executing processes is either authorized or delayed by the long-term scheduler. Thus, this scheduler dictates what processes are to run on a system, and the degree of concurrency to be supported at any one time – whether many or few processes are to be executed concurrently, and how the split between I/O-intensive and CPU-intensive processes is to be handled.
→ The long-term scheduler is responsible for controlling the degree of multiprogramming.
Question 81
How many addition and subtraction are required if you perform multiplication of 5(multiplicand) and -30(Multiplier) using Booth algorithm?
A
2,1
B
1,2
C
1,1
D
2,2
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 81 Explanation: 
Step-1: 2’s complement of 30 is=00011110
Step-2: Append 0 in LSB of 2’s complement number=000111100
Step-3: Use the following codes. Procedure starts with LSB
(00→ 0)
(11→ 0)
(01→ +1)
(10→ -1)
1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
0 0 -1 0 0 0 +1 -1
Step-4: There are total 1 additions and 2 subtractions
Question 82
The decimal equivalent of the Hexadecimal number(AC7B)​ 16​ is:  
A
32564
B
44155
C
50215
D
43562
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 82 Explanation: 
= Ax16​ 3​ + Cx16​ 2 ​ + 7x16​ 1 ​ + Bx16​ 0
= 10x16​ 3​ +12x16​ 2​ + 7x16 + 11
= 40960 + 3072 + 112 +11
= ​ 44155
Question 83
How will you free the allocated memory?  
A
remove(var-name)
B
free(var-name)
C
delete(var-name)
D
dalloc(var-name)
       Nielit Scientist-B IT 4-12-2016
Question 83 Explanation: 
Dynamically allocated memory created with either calloc() or malloc() doesn't get freed on their own. You must explicitly use free() to release the space.
Syntax of free()
free(ptr);
This statement frees the space allocated in the memory pointed by ptr.
Question 84

Which among the following can best be used as  an asynchronous teaching aid

    (a) Skype
    (b) Blog
    (c) Facebook Post
    (d) Online Chat
    (e) Email
    (f) Google Hangout
Code :
A
(a), (c) and (f)
B
(c), (e) and (f)
C
(a), (b) and (c)
D
(b), (c) and (e)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 84 Explanation: 
Asynchronous teaching aid refers to the methods of teaching that uses online learning resources to facilitate information sharing to the students outside the constraints of time and place.
Example : Blog, Facebook post, Email, online discussion boards etc.
Question 85

In a school in which there are large number of failure, you may like to develop test for eliminatiminating those who are likely to have substantial difficulties in meeting the academic goals of teaching. For this you need to develop test which should be able to predict the individual’s ability or readiness to undertake the study of a school subject successfully. What is the name of such task ?

A
Analytical tests
B
Prognostic tests
C
Achievement tests
D
Attitude tests
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 86

In teaching learning context, results of an evaluation are useful to teachers in various ways. Which among the following is most important use for a teacher ?

A
Getting information about student’s study material.
B
Planning instruction and knowing the effectiveness of the teaching strategies used by them.
C
To decide placement of students in other institutions.
D
To identify home influence on students.
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 87

When a reviewer review a research article without knowing the author’s name, it is referred to as :

A
Blind review
B
Anonymous review
C
Behind-the-curtain review
D
Uncategorised review
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 87 Explanation: 
In blind review the identity of the reviewer is anonymous.
Anonymous review :
A review given by a reviewer without knowing the author name is referred as Anonymous review.
Question 88

The characteristics of scientific method of research are:

    a) Empiricism
    b) Objective
    c) Systematic
    d) Secretive
    e) Security related
    f) Predictive
Code:
A
(a), (b), (c) and (f)
B
(d), (e), (f) and (a)
C
(a), (b), (d) and (e)
D
(c), (d), (e) and (f)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 88 Explanation: 
Characteristics of scientific method of research:
1. Empiricism
2. Objective
3. Systematic
4. Predictive
Question 89

In a research setting participants may act differently because they think they are getting special attention. The reaction of treatment group to the special attention rather than the treatment itself is called as:

A
Jung effect
B
Marlov effect
C
Hawthorne effect
D
Attention deficit
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 90

Which among the following describe emotional intelligence as a learner characteristic ?

    (a) Recognize their own and other people’s emotions
    (b) Expressing their emotions strongly
    (c) Use emotional information to guide thinking and behaviour
    (d) Good observation, scientific thinking and deductive reasoning
    (e) Adjusting emotions to adapt to environments
    (f) Being creative and open to diverse viewpoints
Code:
A
(b), (d) and (e)
B
(a), (d) and (f)
C
(c), (e) and (f)
D
(a), (c) and (e)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 91

The kind of number which do not represent amounts but instead represent kind( different qualities, types or categories) are called as:

A
Absolute
B
Ordinal
C
Prime
D
Nominal
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 92

Poster session in research conferences provide better opportunities for:

A
Interpersonal interaction
B
Focus group discussion
C
Formal speeches
D
Display of common interest
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 93

The goal of formative assessment is to:

A
Promote student to next level
B
Form a group of students on the basis of their learning
C
Compare student learning against a standard or benchmark
D
Monitor student learning to provide ongoing feedback
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 93 Explanation: 
Formative Assessment :
Formative assessment is a assessment for learning.
In this kind of assessment, the learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Monitor student learning to provide ongoing feedbacks that can be used by instructor to improve their teaching and by students to improve their learning.
Help faculties recognize where students are struggling and address problem immediately.
Question 94

Today, in the digital age, who owns information owns the future. In this digital world, we face a fundamental choice between open and closed. In an open world information is shared by all freely available to everyone. In a closed world information is exclusively owned and controlled by a few. Today, we live in a closed world of extraordinary and growing concentrations in power and wealth. A world where innovation is held back and distorted by the dead hand of monopoly; where essential medicines are affordable only to the rich, where freedom is threatened by manipulation, exclusion and exploitation; and each click you make, every step you take, they will be watching you. By contrast, in an open world all of us would be enriched by the freedom to use, enjoy and build on everything from statistics and research to newspaper stories and books, from software and films to music and medical formulae. In an open world, we would pay innovators and creators more and more fairly, using market driven remuneration rights in place of intellectual property monopoly rights. As they have improved, digital technologies have taken on ever more of the tasks that humans used to do from manufacturing cars to scheduling appointments. And in the next few decades, artificial intelligence may well be not only driving our cars for us but drafting legal contracts and performing surgery. On the face of it, we have much to gain if machines can spare us tedious or routine tasks and perform them with greater accuracy. The danger, though, is that robots run on information-software, data algorithms and at present the ownership of this sort of information is unequal. And because it is protected by our closed system of intellectual property rights.

How will an open world function ?

A
Information is available to everyone.
B
Information is controlled.
C
With limited choices.
D
Information is exclusive.
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 95

Today, in the digital age, who owns information owns the future. In this digital world, we face a fundamental choice between open and closed. In an open world information is shared by all freely available to everyone. In a closed world information is exclusively owned and controlled by a few. Today, we live in a closed world of extraordinary and growing concentrations in power and wealth. A world where innovation is held back and distorted by the dead hand of monopoly; where essential medicines are affordable only to the rich, where freedom is threatened by manipulation, exclusion and exploitation; and each click you make, every step you take, they will be watching you. By contrast, in an open world all of us would be enriched by the freedom to use, enjoy and build on everything from statistics and research to newspaper stories and books, from software and films to music and medical formulae. In an open world, we would pay innovators and creators more and more fairly, using market driven remuneration rights in place of intellectual property monopoly rights. As they have improved, digital technologies have taken on ever more of the tasks that humans used to do from manufacturing cars to scheduling appointments. And in the next few decades, artificial intelligence may well be not only driving our cars for us but drafting legal contracts and performing surgery. On the face of it, we have much to gain if machines can spare us tedious or routine tasks and perform them with greater accuracy. The danger, though, is that robots run on information-software, data algorithms and at present the ownership of this sort of information is unequal. And because it is protected by our closed system of intellectual property rights.

What is the status of intellectual property rights in an open world ?

A
They are monopoly rights
B
Medical formulae are restricted
C
Protected proprietorial rights
D
Replaced by remuneration rights
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 96

Today, in the digital age, who owns information owns the future. In this digital world, we face a fundamental choice between open and closed. In an open world information is shared by all freely available to everyone. In a closed world information is exclusively owned and controlled by a few. Today, we live in a closed world of extraordinary and growing concentrations in power and wealth. A world where innovation is held back and distorted by the dead hand of monopoly; where essential medicines are affordable only to the rich, where freedom is threatened by manipulation, exclusion and exploitation; and each click you make, every step you take, they will be watching you. By contrast, in an open world all of us would be enriched by the freedom to use, enjoy and build on everything from statistics and research to newspaper stories and books, from software and films to music and medical formulae. In an open world, we would pay innovators and creators more and more fairly, using market driven remuneration rights in place of intellectual property monopoly rights. As they have improved, digital technologies have taken on ever more of the tasks that humans used to do from manufacturing cars to scheduling appointments. And in the next few decades, artificial intelligence may well be not only driving our cars for us but drafting legal contracts and performing surgery. On the face of it, we have much to gain if machines can spare us tedious or routine tasks and perform them with greater accuracy. The danger, though, is that robots run on information-software, data algorithms and at present the ownership of this sort of information is unequal. And because it is protected by our closed system of intellectual property rights.

Which of these characteristics of a closed world ?

    (a) Concentration in power and wealth increases.
    (b) Innovation is controlled.
    (c) Only the rich has access to medicines.
    (d) Freedom is manipulated.
    (e) Information is shared by all.
    (f) Creativity is recognised.
Code :
A
(d), (e), (f) and (a)
B
(c), (d), (e) and (f)
C
(b), (c), (d) and (e)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 97

Today, in the digital age, who owns information owns the future. In this digital world, we face a fundamental choice between open and closed. In an open world information is shared by all freely available to everyone. In a closed world information is exclusively owned and controlled by a few. Today, we live in a closed world of extraordinary and growing concentrations in power and wealth. A world where innovation is held back and distorted by the dead hand of monopoly; where essential medicines are affordable only to the rich, where freedom is threatened by manipulation, exclusion and exploitation; and each click you make, every step you take, they will be watching you. By contrast, in an open world all of us would be enriched by the freedom to use, enjoy and build on everything from statistics and research to newspaper stories and books, from software and films to music and medical formulae. In an open world, we would pay innovators and creators more and more fairly, using market driven remuneration rights in place of intellectual property monopoly rights. As they have improved, digital technologies have taken on ever more of the tasks that humans used to do from manufacturing cars to scheduling appointments. And in the next few decades, artificial intelligence may well be not only driving our cars for us but drafting legal contracts and performing surgery. On the face of it, we have much to gain if machines can spare us tedious or routine tasks and perform them with greater accuracy. The danger, though, is that robots run on information-software, data algorithms and at present the ownership of this sort of information is unequal. And because it is protected by our closed system of intellectual property rights.

What is the impact of digital technology on the present day world ?

A
Humans tasks are performed by machines.
B
Mechanical accuracy is distorted.
C
Creativity is sidelined.
D
Tedious tasks see an upward trend.
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 98

Today, in the digital age, who owns information owns the future. In this digital world, we face a fundamental choice between open and closed. In an open world information is shared by all freely available to everyone. In a closed world information is exclusively owned and controlled by a few. Today, we live in a closed world of extraordinary and growing concentrations in power and wealth. A world where innovation is held back and distorted by the dead hand of monopoly; where essential medicines are affordable only to the rich, where freedom is threatened by manipulation, exclusion and exploitation; and each click you make, every step you take, they will be watching you. By contrast, in an open world all of us would be enriched by the freedom to use, enjoy and build on everything from statistics and research to newspaper stories and books, from software and films to music and medical formulae. In an open world, we would pay innovators and creators more and more fairly, using market driven remuneration rights in place of intellectual property monopoly rights. As they have improved, digital technologies have taken on ever more of the tasks that humans used to do from manufacturing cars to scheduling appointments. And in the next few decades, artificial intelligence may well be not only driving our cars for us but drafting legal contracts and performing surgery. On the face of it, we have much to gain if machines can spare us tedious or routine tasks and perform them with greater accuracy. The danger, though, is that robots run on information-software, data algorithms and at present the ownership of this sort of information is unequal. And because it is protected by our closed system of intellectual property rights.

The crux of the passage contains the following statements
    (a) Digital technology is dangerous.
    (b) Those who own information will own the future.
    (c) Artificial Intelligence will do the human tasks.
    (d) Monopoly of digital technology has led to unequal ownership of information.
    (e) Intellectual property rights should be protected in an open world.
Code :
A
(d), (e) and (a)
B
(b), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (b) and (c)
D
(c), (d) and (e)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 99

Modern educational communication is described as :

A
Teleologic
B
Non-distributive
C
Un-approximate
D
Telescopic
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 100

The reasoning which would be helpful in seeking new knowledge of facts about the world is :

A
Demonstrative
B
Speculative
C
Deductive
D
Inductive
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 101

Among the following statements, two are contradictory to each other.

    Statements :
        (a) All men are humans.
        (b) Some men are humans.
        (c) Some men are not humans.
        (d) No men are humans.
Code :
A
(a) and (d)
B
(b) and (c)
C
(a) and (b)
D
(a) and (c)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 102

Which of these words is different from the rest ?

A
Sharp
B
Tail
C
Thin
D
Huge
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 103

Classroom communication has a basis in :

A
Audience fragmentation
B
Attention diversion
C
Non-informative
D
Cues
E
Intensive listener focus
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 104

In which of the following instances, deductive argument is valid ?

A
When its premises and conclusion are all false
B
When its premises are true but conclusion is false
C
When its premises are false but conclusion is true
D
When its premises and conclusion all are true
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 104 Explanation: 
Deductive learning :
If all premises are true and clear then drawn conclusion will also be true.
Question 105

If FACE is coded as HCEG, then the code for HIGH will be :

A
JKIJ
B
ZXYZ
C
BEFB
D
KHIK
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 105 Explanation: 
Question 106

The next term in the letter series DY, JX, OW, SV, VU, ______ is :

A
XS
B
XT
C
WV
D
YT
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 106 Explanation: 
Question 107

In verbal communication, words act as :

A
Decoratives
B
Symbols
C
Fillers
D
Passive barriers
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 108

The next number in the series 12, 15, 21, 33, 57, ______, is :

A
97
B
107
C
105
D
95
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 108 Explanation: 
Here, the next difference = 2* previous difference.
So, next term = previous term + next difference.
next term = 57+ 48 = 105
Question 109

Effective classroom communication would help students internalise :

    (a) Knowledge
    (b) Subject matter
    (c) Articulation
    (d) Language felicity
    (e) Non-responsiveness
    (f) Modalities of resistance
Code :
A
(a), (d), (e) and (f)
B
(c), (d), (e) and (f)
C
(b), (c), (d) and (e)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 110

The challenging behaviours of students a related to communication are :

    (a) Purposive challenges
    (b) Critical challenges
    (c) Procedural challenges
    (d) Evaluation challenges
    (e) Practicality challenges
    (f) Power challenges
Code :
A
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B
(d), (e), (f) and (a)
C
(c), (d), (e) and (f)
D
(b), (c), (d) and (f)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 111

Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them (taking singly or together). Which of the following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises ?

    Premises :
      (i) All cats are animals.
    (ii) Birds are not cats.
    Conclusions :
    (a) Birds are not animals

    (b) Cats are not Birds.
    (c) All animals are cats.
    (d) Some animals are cats.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :
A
(b) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (d)
C
(a) and (c)
D
(b), (c) and (d)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 111 Explanation: 
Question 112

Ram said to Shyam “That girl playing with the doll, is the younger of the two daughters of my father’s wife” .

How the girl playing with the doll is related to Ram ?

A
Sister-in-law
B
Cousin
C
Aunty
D
Sister
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 112 Explanation: 
Question 113

Inductive argument proceeds from :

A
Particulars to Universals
B
Universals to Universals
C
Universals to Particulars
D
Particulars to Particulars
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 114

Comprehension:

Study the table given above carefully. It shows the number of students appeared, passed and failed in five subjects. The full marks in each subject is also given. Some of the cells have missing data. You might need to determine some of the missing data to answer the question below.

Which of the following could be the full marks in Mathematics if the pass marks in mathematics was 35% and the person who just passed scored 70 ?

 
A
400
B
500
C
600
D
200
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 114 Explanation: 
Since the passing marks are given as 70. And it is also mentioned that passing marks are 35% of total marks.
If 200 is total marks then, passing marks = (200) * (35/100) = 70
So, 200 are the full marks in mathematics.
Question 115

Comprehension:

Study the table given above carefully. It shows the number of students appeared, passed and failed in five subjects. The full marks in each subject is also given. Some of the cells have missing data. You might need to determine some of the missing data to answer the question below.

In which subject, was the failure percent the least ?

A
Mathematics
B
English
C
Social Studies
D
Science
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 115 Explanation: 
failure percent in English = (36/600) *100 = 6%
failure percent in Mathematics = (60/300) *100 = 20%
failure percent in Science = (84/300) *100 = 28%
failure percent in Social Science = (48/360) *100 = 13.33%
failure percent in Computer = (32/200) *100 = 16%
Question 116

Comprehension:

Study the table given above carefully. It shows the number of students appeared, passed and failed in five subjects. The full marks in each subject is also given. Some of the cells have missing data. You might need to determine some of the missing data to answer the question below.

What is the difference between the number of failed students in Science and the number of passed in Social Studies ?

 
A
218
B
228
C
312
D
238
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 116 Explanation: 
Difference between the number of failed students in Science and the number of passed in Social Studies
= 312 - 84
= 228
Question 117

Comprehension:

Study the table given above carefully. It shows the number of students appeared, passed and failed in five subjects. The full marks in each subject is also given. Some of the cells have missing data. You might need to determine some of the missing data to answer the question below.

What is the approximate difference in percentage between the pass % in Social Studies and the pass % in Mathematics ?

A
2.5%
B
26.5%
C
6.5%
D
16.5%
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 117 Explanation: 
pass % in Social Studies = (312/360) * 100 = 86.66%
the pass % in Mathematics = ( 240/300) * 100 = 80%
difference in percentage between the pass % in Social Studies and the pass % in Mathematics
= 86.66% - 80%
= 6.66%
Question 118

Comprehension:

Study the table given above carefully. It shows the number of students appeared, passed and failed in five subjects. The full marks in each subject is also given. Some of the cells have missing data. You might need to determine some of the missing data to answer the question below.

What is the maximum marks that a student can score in all the five subjects together ?

A
1000
B
500
C
2000
D
1500
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 118 Explanation: 
maximum marks that a student can score in all the five subjects together
= 600+200+400+400+400
= 2000
Question 119

Which among the following industries, consumes maximum water in India ?

A
Engineering
B
Thermal power plants
C
Paper and pulp
D
Textiles
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 120

A Terabyte is equal to :

A
1024 Gigabytes
B
1024 Kilobytes
C
1024 X 1024 Kilobytes
D
1024 Megabytes
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 120 Explanation: 
1 KiloByte = 103 Byte
1 MegaByte = 106 Byte
1 GigaByte = 109 Byte
Question 121

Which of the given statements are true ?

    (a) Modem is a Networking device.
    (b) Modem is a Voltage stabilizer.
    (c) Modem convert analogue signal to digital signal and vice-versa.
Code :
A
(b) and (c)
B
(a), (b) and (c)
C
(a) and (c)
D
(a) and (b)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 122

“e-Pathshala” is an initiative by :

A
NCTE
B
CBSE
C
UGC
D
NCERT
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 123

Plants suitable for biomonitoring of Sulphur Dioxide pollution are :

A
Apricot, peach and gladiolus
B
Tobacco, grapes and garden bean
C
White pine, moss and lichens
D
Tomato and lettuce
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 124

An earthquake is rated as ‘major’ if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in range of :

A
6.0 - 6.9
B
5.0 - 5.9
C
4.0 - 4.9
D
7.0 - 7.9
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 125

The Council of Rural Development Authority is situated at :

A
Hyderabad
B
Pune
C
Ahmedabad
D
Ludhiana
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 126

DNS stands for :

A
Dynamic Name Standard
B
Domain Name System
C
Distributed Name System
D
Domain Name Standard
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 127

Full form of PDF is :

A
Portable Document Format
B
Portable Document Form
C
Portable Data Format
D
Portable Data Form
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 128

University and University-level institutions are categorised into :

    (a) Central Universities
    (b) State Universities
    (c) Private Universities
    (d) Deemed-to-be Universities
    (e) Institutions of Higher Learning
    (f) Civil Sector Institutions
Code:
A
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B
(c), (d), (e) and (f)
C
(a), (c), (e) and (f)
D
(b), (d), (e) and (f)
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 129
    Assertion (A): Climate change is going to increase social tension in India.
    Reason (R): The frequency and intensity of the extreme weather events will have serious consequences for food security.
Code:  
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 130

The biggest hindrance in using biomass as a major energy source is :

A
Air pollution due to combustion.
B
Energy yield of low level.
C
Technology not well developed for commercialisation.
D
Large amount of land required to grow energy crops.
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 131

In 1948, under whose chairmanship Education Commission was set up to reconstruct University Education in India ?

A
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
B
Prof. P.C. Joshi
C
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
D
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 132

The binary equivalent of (-23)10 is (2’s complement system for negative number is used) :

A
01000
B
01010
C
01001
D
10111
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 132 Explanation: 
(23)10 = (10111)2
Take 2’s complement of binary representation of (23)10 to have (-23)10 in binary.
(-23)10 = (01001)2
Question 133

The first Open University established in India is :

A
Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University, Nasik
B
Nalanda Open University, Patna
C
Tamil Nadu Open University, Chennai
D
BhimRao Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-1
Question 134
What are the primary characteristics that distinguish a cell from a packet?
A
Cells are generally smaller that packets
B
Cells do not incorporate physical address
C
all cell have the same fixed length
D
packet cannot be switched
       Nielit Scientist-C 2016 march
Question 134 Explanation: 
● Frames and packets, in general, can be of variable length, depending on their contents; in contrast, a cell is most often a message that is fixed in size.
● For example, the fixed-length, 53-byte messages sent in Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) are called cells. Like frames, cells usually are used by technologies operating at the lower layers of the OSI model.
Question 135

Suppose a system has 12 instances of some resources with n processes competing for that resource. Each process may require 4 instances of the resource. The maximum value of n for which the system never enters into deadlock is

A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-2
Question 135 Explanation: 
→ Here, every process requirement is 4 instances of the resource.
→ If we allocates 3 instance( one instance less than the requirement of each process) of the resource and to one process we allocate its minimum requirement then in that way with limited available instance of resource, without entering into deadlock we can fulfill requirement of maximum number of processes.
→ Now in question it is given that we have 12 instance then using above strategy we can allocate resources to 3 process without entering into deadlock.
Question 136

Consider the following statements related to AND-OR Search algorithm.

    S1 : A solution is a subtree that has a goal node at every leaf.
    S2 : OR nodes are analogous to the branching in a deterministic environment
    S3 : AND nodes are analogous to the branching in a non-deterministic environment.

Which one of the following is true referencing the above statements?

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
A
S1- False, S2- True, S3- True
B
S1- True, S2- True, S3- True
C
S1- False, S2- True, S3- False
D
S1- True, S2- True, S3- False
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-2
Question 136 Explanation: 
• An and–or tree is a graphical representation of the reduction of problems (or goals) to conjunctions and disjunctions of subproblems (or subgoals).
• A solution in an AND-OR tree is a sub tree whose leaves are included in the goal set.
Question 137

Which homogeneous 2D matrix transforms the figure (a) on the left side to the figure (b) on the right ?

 
A
B
C
D
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-2
Question 137 Explanation: 
The homogeneous coordinates of the cartesian point (x,y) is (x,y,1) and the transformation Matrix is a 3x3 Matrix.
The image in figure a is translated (by 1 unit in x axis), scaled (2 units in y axis) and rotated (90 degrees counterclockwise) to figure in b.
Question 138

Identify the correct sequence in which the following packets are transmitted on the network by a host when a browser requests a web page from a remote server, assuming that the host has been restarted.

A
HTTP GET request, DNS query, TCP SYN
B
DNS query, TCP SYN, HTTP GET request
C
TCP SYN, DNS query, HTTP GET request
D
DNS query, HTTP Get request, TCP SYN
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-2
Question 138 Explanation: 
Sequence in which the given packets are transmitted on the network by a host when a browser requests a web page from a remote server, assuming that the host has been restarted:
Step 1: DNS query is sent to Domain name server to convert the Domain name into it’s IP address.
Step 2: TCP SYN request packet is sent by sender to establish a connection for data transmission.
Step 3: HTTP GET request is used to request data from a specified IP address.
Question 139

Which of the following is true for semi-dynamic environment ?

A
The environment itself does not change with the passage of time but the agent’s performance score does.
B
The environment change while the agent is deliberating.
C
Even if the environment changes with the passage of time while deliberating, the performance score does not change.
D
Environment and performance score, both change simultaneously.
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-2
Question 139 Explanation: 
Semi- Dynamic environment :
The environment itself does not change with the passage of time but the agent’s performance score does.
Question 140

Consider the following statements

    S1: A heuristic is admissible if it never overestimates the cost to reach the goal
    S2: A heuristic is monotonous if it follows triangle inequality property.

Which one of the following is true referencing the above statements?

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
A
Statement S1 is true but statement S2 is false.
B
Statement S1 is false but statement S2 is true.
C
Neither of the statements S1 and S2 are true.
D
Both the statements S1 and S2 are true.
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-2
Question 140 Explanation: 
A heuristic function is said to be admissible if it never overestimates the cost of reaching the goal, i.e. the cost it estimates to reach the goal is not higher than the lowest possible cost from the current point in the path.
Question 141

Which of the following statement/s is/are true ?

    (i) Facebook has the world’s largest Hadoop cluster.
    (ii) Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:
A
Neither (i) nor (ii)
B
Both (i) and (ii)
C
(i) only
D
(ii) only
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-2
Question 141 Explanation: 
→ The Data warehouse Hadoop cluster at Facebook has become the largest known Hadoop storage cluster in the world.
Here are some of the details about this single HDFS cluster:
1. 21 PB of storage in a single HDFS cluster
2. 2000 machines
3. 12 TB per machine (a few machines have 24 TB each)
4. 1200 machines with 8 cores each + 800 machines with 16 cores each
5. 32 GB of RAM per machine
6. 15 map-reduce tasks per machine
That's a total of more than 21 PB of configured storage capacity! This is larger than the previously known Yahoo!'s cluster of 14 PB.
→ Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data.
Question 142

Consider the midpoint (or Bresenham) algorithm for rasterizing lines given below :

(1) Input (x1,y1) and (x2,y2)
(2) y = y1
(3) d = f(x1+1, y1+½) // f is the implicit form of a line
(4) for x = x1 to x2
(5) do
(6)       plot (x,y)
(7)       if (d<0)
(8)       then
(9)           y = y+1
(10)         d = d+(y1 - y2) + (x2 - x1)
(11)     else
(12)         d = d+(y1 - y2)
(13)     end
(14) end

Which statements are true ?

    P: For a line with slope m>1, we should change the outer loop in line (4) to be over y.
    Q: Lines (10) and (12) update the decision variable d through an incremental evaluation of the line equation f.
    R: The algorithm fails if d is ever 0.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :
A
Q and R only
B
P only
C
P and Q only
D
P, Q and R
       UGC-NET DEC Paper-2
Question 142 Explanation: 
From the code given in question gives information that the algorithm will work if d is ever 0, So the statement R is false.
Line 10 and 12 will update the value of d , So the statement Q is true.
Question 143
Four matrices M1, M2, M3 and M4 of dimensions pxq, qxr, rxs and sxt respectively can be multiplied is several ways with different number of total scalar multiplications. For example, when multiplied as ((M1 X M2) X (M3 X M4)), the total number of multiplications is pqr + rst + prt. When multiplied as (((M1 X M2) X M3) X M4), the total number of scalar multiplications is pqr + prs + pst. If p = 10, q = 100, r = 20, s = 5 and t = 80, then the number of scalar multiplications needed is
A
248000
B
44000
C
19000
D
25000
       Nielit Scientist-B CS 22-07-2017
Question 143 Explanation: 


Question 144
Suppose T(n)=2T(n/2)+n, T(0)=T(1)=1 which one of the following is false?
A
T(n)=O(n2)
B
T(n)=O(nlogn)
       Nielit Scientist-B CS 22-07-2017
Question 144 Explanation: 
Question 145
In the Merge sort algorithm, the time taken by the algorithm to divide an array of size n into two equal halves and many times that divide is called in overall sorting procedure is:
A
O(1) and θ(logn)
B
θ(1) and θ(logn)
C
O(logn) and θ(logn)
D
θ(logn) and O(1)
       Nielit STA [02-12-2018]
Question 145 Explanation: 
→ In the Merge sort algorithm, the time taken by the algorithm to divide an array of size n into two equal halves is O(logn)
→ many times that divide is called in overall sorting procedure is O(logn)
Question 146
​ Which of the following is true for ​ semi-dynamic ​ environment ?
A
The environment itself does not change with the passage of time but the agent’s performance score does.
B
The environment change while the agent is deliberating.
C
Even if the environment changes with the passage of time while deliberating, the performance score does not change.
D
Environment and performance score, both change simultaneously.
       UGC NET CS 2018-DEC Paper-2
Question 146 Explanation: 
Semi- Dynamic environment : The environment itself does not change with the passage of time but the agent’s performance score does.
Question 147
Consider the singly linked list. What is the worst case time complexity of the best-known algorithm to delete the node a, pointer to this node is q, from the list ?
A
O(1)
B
O(lg n)
C
O(n)
D
O(n lg n)
       UGC NET CS 2018-DEC Paper-2
Question 147 Explanation: 
If we have pointer to the tail of the list in order to delete it, which can be obtained by traversing the list which takes O(n) time.
Question 148
​Which of the following statement/s is/are true ?
(i) Facebook has the world’s largest Hadoop cluster.
(ii) Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data
A
Neither (i) nor (ii)
B
Both (i) and (ii)
C
(i) only
D
(ii) only
       UGC NET CS 2018-DEC Paper-2
Question 148 Explanation: 
→ The Data warehouse Hadoop cluster at Facebook has become the largest known Hadoop storage cluster in the world.
Here are some of the details about this single HDFS cluster:
1. 21 PB of storage in a single HDFS cluster
2. 2000 machines
3. 12 TB per machine (a few machines have 24 TB each)
4. 1200 machines with 8 cores each + 800 machines with 16 cores each
5. 32 GB of RAM per machine
6. 15 map-reduce tasks per machine
That's a total of more than 21 PB of configured storage capacity! This is larger than the previously known Yahoo!'s cluster of 14 PB.
→ Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data
Question 149
Which of the following are context free?
A = {anbnambm | m, n>=0}
B = {anbnambn | m, n>=0}
C = {ambn | m≠2n,m, n>=0}
A
A and B only
B
A and C only
C
B and C only
D
C only
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 149 Explanation: 
Statement-A: When 'a' will comes as input. We will push it on the top of stack and when 'b' will comes as input after 'a' we will pop one 'a' for each 'b'.
This way language 'A' can be accepted by the push down automat. Hence A is CFL.
Statement-B: When last 'b' i.e., bn after am comes as input then top of the stack will contain am
So we can't compare an with anbn. Hence it is not CFL
Statement-C: It is a CFL
Question 150
Let S be an NP-complete problem. Q and R are other two problems not known to be NP. Q is polynomial time reducible to S and S is polynomial time reducible to R. Which of the following statements is true?
A
R is NP-complete
B
R is NP-hard
C
Q is NP-complete
D
Q is NP-hard
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 150 Explanation: 
NP-Hard- if it can be solved in polynomial time then all NP-Complete can be solved in polynomial time. If NP Hard problem is reducible to another problem in Polynomial Time, then that problem is also NP Hard which means every NP problem can be reduced to this problem in Polynomial Time.
Question 151
The number of structurally different possible binary trees with 4 nodes is
A
14
B
12
C
336
D
168
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 151 Explanation: 
Finding number of binary tree, we are using catalan numbers formula

Here, n=4.
Total number of binary trees are 14.
Question 152
Using public key cryptography, X adds a digital signature σ to a message M, encrypts (M,σ) and sends it to Y, where it is decrypted. Which one of the following sequence of keys is used for operations?
A
Encryption : X’s private key followed by Y’s private key. Decryption : X’s public key followed by Y’s public key.
B
Encryption : X’s private key followed by Y’s public key; Decryption : X’s public key followed by Y’s private key
C
Encryption : X’s private key followed by Y’s public key; Decryption : Y’s private key followed by X’s public key.
D
Encryption : X’s public key followed by Y’s private key; Decryption : Y’s public key followed by X’s private key.
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 152 Explanation: 

Encryption: Source has to encrypt with its private key for forming Digital signature for Authentication. Source has to encrypt the (M, σ) with Y’s public key to send it confidentially. Decryption: Destination Y has to decrypt first with its private key, then decrypt using source public key.
Question 153
Which of the following are used to generate a message digest by the network security protocols?
(P) SHA-256
(Q) AES
(R) DES
(S) MD5
A
P and S only
B
P and Q only
C
R and S only
D
P and R only
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 153 Explanation: 
To generate a message digest by the network security protocols we need SHA and MD5.
→ SHA-256 and SHA-512 are novel hash functions computed with 32-bit and 64-bit words, respectively. They use different shift amounts and additive constants, but their structures are otherwise virtually identical, differing only in the number of rounds.
→ The MD5 message-digest algorithm is a widely used hash function producing a 128-bit hash value. Although MD5 was initially designed to be used as a cryptographic hash function, it has been found to suffer from extensive vulnerabilities. It can still be used as a checksum to verify data integrity, but only against unintentional corruption. It remains suitable for other non-cryptographic purposes, for example for determining the partition for a particular key in a partitioned database.
Question 154
In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C addresses is
A
220
B
224
C
214
D
221
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 154 Explanation: 
→ IP address belonging to class C are assigned to small-sized networks.
The network ID is 24 bits long.
The host ID is 8 bits long.
→ The higher order bits of the first octet of IP addresses of class C are always set to 110. The remaining 21 bits are used to determine network ID.
→ The 8 bits of host ID is used to determine the host in any network. The default subnet mask for class C is 255.255.255.x. Class C has a total of:
221 = 2097152 network address
28 – 2 = 254 host address
IP addresses belonging to class C ranges from 192.0.0.x – 223.255.255.x.
Question 155
An Internet Service Provider (ISP) has the following chunk of CIDR-based IP addresses available with it: 245.248.128.0/20. The ISP wants to give half of this chunk of addresses to Organization A, and a quarter to Organization B, while retaining the remaining with itself. Which of the following is a valid allocation of addresses to A and B?
A
245.248.136.0/21 and 245.248.128.0/22
B
245.248.128.0/21 and 245.248.128.0/22
C
245.248.132.0/22 and 245.248.132.0/21
D
245.248.136.0/24 and 245.248.132.0/21
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 155 Explanation: 

Question 156
Assume that Source S and Destination D are connected through an intermediate router R. How many times a packet has to visit the network layer and data link layer during a transmission from S to D?
A
Network layer – 4 times, Data link layer – 4 times
B
Network layer – 4 times, Data link layer – 6 times
C
Network layer – 2 times, Data link layer – 4 times
D
Network layer – 3 times, Data link layer – 4 times
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 156 Explanation: 
Source and destination are hosts. The hosts have all layers but routers have only 3 layers i.e physical,data link and network layer. The purpose of routers is to just pass on the packet between hosts or networks.
Therefore ,
Question 157
Generally TCP is reliable and UDP is not reliable. DNS which has to be reliable uses UDP because
A
UDP is slower
B
DNS servers has to keep connections
C
DNS requests are generally very small and fit well within UDP segments
D
None of these
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 157 Explanation: 
→ UDP is cheap.
→ UDP itself is not reliable, but higher level protocols - as DNS - may maintain reliability, e.g. by repeating the UDP datagram in the case of no response.
→ But the last is not the case for DNS. DNS itself uses sometimes besides UDP (as its primary protocol) the reliable Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
→ The last is used when the response data size exceeds 512 bytes, and for tasks which require the reliable delivery (e.g. zone transfers).
→ UDP is much faster. TCP is slow as it requires 3 way handshake. The load on DNS servers is also an important factor. DNS servers (since they use UDP) don’t have keep connections.
→ DNS requests are generally very small and fit well within UDP segments.
→ UDP is not reliable, but reliability can added on application layer. An application can use UDP and can be reliable by using timeout and resend at application layer.
Question 158
Consider the set of activities related to e-mail
A : Send an e-mail from a mail client to mail server
B : Download e-mail headers from mail box and retrieve mails from server to a cache
C : Checking e-mail through a web browser
The application level protocol used for each activity in the same sequence is
A
SMTP, HTTPS, IMAP
B
SMTP, POP, IMAP
C
SMTP, IMAP, HTTPS
D
SMTP, IMAP, POP
E
None of the above
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 158 Explanation: 
→ SMTP is used for connecting to outbound servers to send email while POP3 and IMAP are used to connect to incoming servers to retrieve messages.
→ POP download email headers from mailbox and retrieve mails from servers to a cache.
→ HTTPS checking email through a web browser.
Question 159
Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to Station B using a sliding window protocol. The round trip time delay between A and B is 40 ms and the bottleneck bandwidth on the path A and B is 64 kbps. What is the optimal window size that A should use?
A
5
B
10
C
40
D
80
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 159 Explanation: 
Given data,
-- Round trip delay between A and B = 40ms
-- Station A using frame size = 32 bytes. 32 bytes=32*8 bits
-- Bottleneck bandwidth on the path A and B = 64kbps
-- Window size=?
Step-1: First we have to find transmission time
Transmission time= Frame size/bandwidth
= 32*8/(64) ms
= 4 ms
Step-2: We have to find window size.
Standard Utilization formula is = n/(1+2a)
where ‘a’ is Propagation time / transmission time
= n/(1+2a)
= n/(1+40/4)
= n/11
Maximum utilization is ‘n’ = 11
Question 160
A two way set associative cache memory unit with a capacity of 16 KB is built using a block size of 8 words. The word length is 32 bits. The physical address space is 4 GB. The number of bits in the TAG, SET fields are
A
20, 7
B
19, 8
C
20, 8
D
21, 9
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 160 Explanation: 
2-way set associative it means 2 cache lines in one set
Physical Address =4GB
Cache Size =16KB
Block Size = 8 words = 8* 32 bits = 256 bits = 32 Bytes -------- because 1 word =32 bits
No.of cache lines /blocks = 16KB/ 32 B = 2^14/ 2^5= 2^9 i.e 512 lines
No of sets = No of cache lines / 2 ---------- because it is 2-way set-associative cache
= 2^9 /2 = 2^8 sets => 8 set bits
Now, because it is set-associative cache memory physical address generated by CPU is divided into 3 parts - first part indicate number of tag bits.
Second part indicates -no of bits required to address each set.
Third part indicates - no. of bits for block offset.
Let suppose tag bits = X
Therefore , we get
X+8+5 = 32 => X= 19 are the tag bits
Question 161
A CPU has a 32 KB direct mapped cache with 128 byte block size. Suppose A is a 2 dimensional array of size 512×512 with elements that occupy 8 bytes each. Consider the code segment
for (i =0; i < 512; i++)
{
for (j =0; j < 512; j++)
{
x += A[i][j];
}
}
Assuming that array is stored in order A[0][0], A[0][1], A[0][2]……, the number of cache misses is
A
16384
B
512
C
2048
D
1024
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 161 Explanation: 
→ Access A in row major order.
→ No. of cache blocks=Cache size/Block size = 32KB / 128B = 32×210B / 128B = 215 / 27 = 256
→ No. of array elements in each block = Block size / Element size = 128B / 8B =16
→ Total misses for (P1)=Array size * No. of array elements / No. of cache blocks = (512×512) * 16 / 256=16384
Question 162
A computer with 32 bit word size uses 2s complement to represent numbers. The range of integers that can be represented by this computer is
A
–232 to 232
B
–231 to 232-1
C
–231 to 231-1
D
–231-1 to 232-1
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 162 Explanation: 
Range of ‘n’ bit 2’s complement binary number is always –2(n-1) to 2(n-1)-1.
Question 163
Let M = 11111010 and N = 00001010 be two 8 bit two’s complement number. Their product in two’s complement is
A
11000100
B
10011100
C
10100101
D
11010101
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 163 Explanation: 
A = 1111 1010 = -610 [2's complement number]
B = 0000 1010 = 1010 [2's complement number]
A×B = -6×10 = - 6010
⇒ -6010 = 101111002
= 110000112 (1's complement)
= 110001002 (2's complement)
Question 164
For a pipelines CPU with a single ALU, consider the following:
  1. The j + 1st instruction uses the result of jth instruction as an operand
  2. Conditional jump instruction
  3. jth and j + 1st instructions require ALU at the same time
Which one of the above causes a hazard?
A
A and B only
B
B and C only
C
B only
D
A , B and C
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 164 Explanation: 
A is belongs to the Data hazard.
B is belongs to the Control hazard.
C is belongs to the Structural hazard.
→ Hazards are the problems with the instruction pipeline in CPU micro architectures.
Question 165
In designing a computer’s cache system, the cache block (or cache line) size is an important parameter. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
A
Smaller block size incurs lower cache miss penalty
B
Smaller block size implies better spatial locality
C
Smaller block size implies smaller cache tag
D
Smaller block size implies lower cache hit time
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 165 Explanation: 
When a cache block size is smaller, it could accommodate more number of blocks, it improves the hit ratio for cache, so the miss penalty for cache will be lowered.
Question 166
Consider an instruction of the type LW R1, 20(R2) which during execution reads a 32 bit word from memory and stores it in a 32 bit register R1. The effective address of the memory location is obtained by adding a constant 20 and contents of R2. Which of the following best reflects the addressing mode implemented by this instruction for operand in memory?
A
Immediate addressing
B
Register addressing
C
Register Indirect addressing
D
Indexed addressing
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 166 Explanation: 
Here 20 will act as base and content of R2 will be index.
→ Addresses have two parts: the number of an index register and a constant. The address of the operand is the sum of the constant and the contents of the index register. It contains indexed (direct) addressing, indexed immediate addressing and indexed indirect addressing.
Question 167
A sorting technique is called stable if
A
If it takes O(n log n) time
B
It uses divide and conquer technique
C
Relative order of occurrence of non-distinct elements is maintained
D
It takes O(n) space
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 167 Explanation: 
→ Stable sorting algorithms maintain the relative order of records with equal keys (i.e. values).
→ That is, a sorting algorithm is stable if whenever there are two records R and S with the same key and with R appearing before S in the original list, R will appear before S in the sorted list.
Question 168
Match the following and choose the correct Solution in the order A, B, C (Bounds given may or may not be asymptotically tight)
A
q, r, p
B
p, q, r
C
q, p, r
D
r, q, p
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 168 Explanation: 
Heap Construction → O(n)
Hash table construction→ O(n2)
AVL tree construction → O(logn)
Question 169
In a compact one dimensional array representation for lower triangular matrix (all elements above diagonal are zero) of size n x n, non zero elements of each row are stored one after another, starting from first row, the index of (i, j)th element in this new representation is
A
i+j
B
j+i(i-1)/2
C
i+j-1
D
i+j(j-1)/2
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 169 Explanation: 
Though not mentioned in question, from options it is clear that array index starts from 1 and not 0. If we assume array index starting from 1 then, ith row contains i number of non-zero elements. Before ith row there are (i-1) rows, (1 to i-1) and in total these rows has 1+2+3......+(i-1) = i(i-1)/2 elements.
Now at ith row, the jth element will be at j position.
So the index of (i, j)th element of lower triangular matrix in this new representation is
j = i(i-1)/2
Question 170
Which of the following permutation can be obtained in the same order using a stack assuming that input is the sequence 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 in that order?
A
7, 8, 9, 5, 6
B
5, 9, 6, 7, 8
C
7, 8, 9, 6, 5
D
9, 8, 7, 5, 6
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 170 Explanation: 
Push 5 Push 6 Push 7 Pop 7 Push 8 Pop 8 Push 9 Pop 9 Pop 6 Pop 5.
→ Remaining options are not possible.
Question 171
Quick sort is run on 2 inputs shown below to sort in ascending order
A.     1, 2, 3……n
B.     n, n-1, n-2 …… 1
Let C1 and C2 be the number of comparisons made for A and B respectively. Then
A
C1>C2
B
C1=C2
C
C1
D
Cannot say anything for arbitrary n
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 171 Explanation: 
→ The above question is clearly specifying quicksort worst case complexity.
→ Elements are already sorted order it gives worst case complexity O(n2)
→ If all elements are having same weight, it performs worst case complexity.
Question 172
A binary search tree is used to locate the number 43. Which one of the following probe sequence is not possible?
A
61, 52, 14, 17, 40, 43
B
10, 65, 31, 48, 37, 43
C
81, 61, 52, 14, 41, 43
D
17, 77, 27, 66, 18, 43
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 172 Explanation: 
Question 173
The characters of the string K R P C S N Y T J M are inserted into a hash table of size 10 using hash function
h(x) = ((ord(x) - ord(A) + 1)) mod 10
If linear probing is used to resolve collisions, then the following insertion causes collision
A
Y
B
C
C
M
D
P
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 173 Explanation: 
Given information,
Hash table size=10 and index starts from 0 to 9.
String=K R P C S N Y T J M
hash function = h(x) = ((ord(x) – ord(A) + 1)) mod 10

Question 174
Suppose the numbers 7, 5, 1, 8, 3, 6, 0, 9, 4, 2 are inserted in that order into an initially empty binary search tree. The binary search tree uses the reversal ordering on natural numbers i.e. 9 is assumed to be smallest and 0 is assumed to be largest. The in-order traversal of the resultant binary search tree is
A
9, 8, 6, 4, 2, 3, 0, 1, 5, 7
B
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
C
0, 2, 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 9, 8, 7
D
9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 174 Explanation: 

In order: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Question 175
A priority queue is implemented as a Max-heap. Initially it has 5 elements. The level order traversal of the heap is 10, 8, 5, 3, 2. Two new elements ‘1’ and ‘7’ are inserted into the heap in that order. The level order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is
A
10, 8, 7, 5, 3, 2, 1
B
10, 8, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5
C
10, 8, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5
D
10, 8, 7, 3, 2, 1, 5
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 175 Explanation: 
Max-Heap has 5 elements:

The level order traversal in this max heap final is:
10, 8, 7, 3, 2, 1, 5.
Question 176
The minimum number of stacks needed to implement a queue is
A
3
B
1
C
2
D
4
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 176 Explanation: 
Minimum number of stacks of size n required to implement a queue of size n is two. With the help of two stacks we can able to implement a queue.
Question 177
A strictly binary tree with 10 leaves
A
cannot have more than 19 nodes
B
has exactly 19 nodes
C
has exactly 17 nodes
D
has exactly 20 nodes
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 177 Explanation: 
→ If every non-leaf node in a binary tree has nonempty left and right subtrees, the tree is termed a strictly binary tree. Or, to put it another way, all of the nodes in a strictly binary tree are of degree zero or two, never degree one.
→ A strictly binary tree with N leaves always contains 2N – 1 nodes.
(2*10)-1 =19
Question 178
What is the maximum height of any AVL tree with 7 nodes? Assume that height of tree with single node is 0.
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 178 Explanation: 
The maximum height of any AVL tree with 7 nodes is, [where root is considered as height 0]
2h-1=7
h=3
Question 179
Which one of the following property is correct for a red-black tree?
A
Every simple path from a node to a descendant leaf contains the same number of black nodes
B
If a node is red, then one children is red and another is black
C
If a node is red, then both its children are red
D
Every leaf node (sentinel node) is red
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 179 Explanation: 
→ It could be from a binary search tree. The red-black tree tracks every simple path from a node to a descendant leaf that has the same number of black nodes.
→ A red black tree is a kind of self-balancing binary search tree in computer science. Each node of the binary tree has an extra bit, and that bit is often interpreted as the color (red or black) of the node.
→ These color bits are used to ensure the tree remains approximately balanced during insertions and deletions.
→ Balance is preserved by painting each node of the tree with one of two colors in a way that satisfies certain properties, which collectively constrain how unbalanced the tree can become in the worst case.
→ When the tree is modified, the new tree is subsequently rearranged and repainted to restore the coloring properties. The properties are designed in such a way that this rearranging and recoloring can be performed efficiently.
→ The balancing of the tree is not perfect, but it is good enough to allow it to guarantee searching in O(log n) time, where n is the total number of elements in the tree. The insertion and deletion operations, along with the tree rearrangement and recoloring, are also performed in O(log n) time.
Question 180
The in order and pre order traversal of a binary tree are
d b e a f c g
and
a b d e c f g
respectively. The post order traversal of a binary tree is
A
e d b g f c a
B
e d b f g c a
C
d e b f g c a
D
d e f g b c a
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 180 Explanation: 
Inorder: Left root Right
Pre order: Root Left Right
Post order: Left Right Root
Inorder: d b e a f c g

Pre order: a b d e c f g
Post order: d e b f g c a
Question 181
A virtual memory system uses FIFO page replacement policy and allocates a fixed number of frames to the process. Consider the following statements
M : Increasing the number of page frames allocated to a process sometimes increases the page fault rate
N : Some programs do not exhibit locality of reference
Which one of the following is true?
A
Both M and N are true and N is the reason for M
B
Both M and N are true and N is not the reason for M
C
Both M and N are false
D
M is false, but N is true
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 181 Explanation: 
→ FIFO suffers from Belady Anomaly.
→ Belady Anomaly states that when number of page frames. Increases then increase the page fault rate.
M is True:
→ Locality of reference states that it’s a phenomenon in which the same values of related storage locations are frequently accessed depending on the memory access pattern.
N is also True:
→ Q is not the reason for P, because Belady Anomaly not depends on the locality of reference.
Question 182
Consider three CPU intensive processes, which require 10, 20, 30 units and arrive at times 0, 2, 6 respectively. How many context switches are needed if shortest remaining time first is implemented? Context switch at 0 is included but context switch at end is ignored
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 182 Explanation: 

Total no.of context switches is 2.
Question 183
A process executes the following code for (i = 0; i < n; i++) fork( ); The total number of child processes created are
A
n2
B
2n+1 -1
C
2n
D
2n -1
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 183 Explanation: 
Fork is a system call, implements in kernel.
It is a operation where process creates a copy of itself.

1,3,7,15,31,... ⇒ 2n-1
Question 184
Consider the following scheduling

Matching the table in the order A, B, C gives
A
t, u, s
B
s, t, u
C
u, s, t
D
u, t, s
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 184 Explanation: 
Gang Scheduling is a scheduling algorithm for parallel systems that schedules related threads (or) processes to run simultaneously on different processes to run simultaneously on different processes.
Rate Monotonic scheduling is a priority assignment algorithm used in Real-Time operating systems (RTOS) with a static priority scheduling class.
Fair scheduling is a process of distributing the CPU usage equally among system users or groups and which is guarantee scheduling process.
Question 185
A system uses FIFO policy for page replacement. It has 4 page frames with no pages loaded to begin with. The system first accesses 50 distinct pages in some order and then accesses the same 50 pages in reverse order. How many page faults will occur?
A
96
B
100
C
97
D
92
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 185 Explanation: 
The first 100 accesses causes 100 page faults.
Page 1 …….. Page 100 causes 100 faults.
Now, when they are accesses in reverse order page 100, 99, 98, 97 are already present. So we get 96 page faults. So, total of 196 page faults.
Question 186
Which of the following is false?
A
User level threads are not scheduled by the kernel
B
Context switching between user level threads is faster than context switching between kernel level threads
C
When a user thread is blocked all other threads of its processes are blocked
D
Kernel level threads cannot utilize multiprocessor systems by splitting threads on different processors or cores
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 186 Explanation: 
All are true except “Kernel level threads shares the code segment.”
Question 187
Which one of the following are essential features of object oriented language?
  1. Abstraction and encapsulation
  2. Strictly-typed
  3. Type-safe property coupled with sub-type rule
  4. Polymorphism in the presence of inheritance
A
A and B only
B
A, D and B only
C
A and D only
D
A, C and D only
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 187 Explanation: 

Question 188
Which languages necessarily need heap allocation in the run time environment?
A
Those that support recursion
B
Those that use dynamic scoping
C
Those that use global variables
D
Those that allow dynamic data structures
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 188 Explanation: 
→ Dynamic memory is allocated on the heap by the system.
→ So the languages which allow dynamic data structure require heap allocation at runtime.
Question 189
Consider the code segment
int i, j, x, y, m, n;
n=20;
for (i = 0, i < n; i++)
{
for (j = 0; j < n; j++)
{
if (i % 2)
{
x + = ((4*j) + 5*i);
y += (7 + 4*j);
}
}
m = x + y;
Which one of the following is false
A
The code contains loop invariant computation
B
There is scope of common subexpression elimination in this code
C
There is scope of strength reduction in this code
D
There is scope of dead code elimination in this code
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 189 Explanation: 
→ 4*j is a common sub-expression. So there is a scope of elimination. So B is correct.
→ 5*i can be moved out of inner loop. So can be i%2, here loop invariant computation can be done, so option A is correct.
→ 4*i, 5*j can also be replaced so there is a scope of strength reduction. So C is true.
→ But there is no dead code to eliminate, we can replace the variable representation only.
Question 190
Consider the following table

Matching A, B, C, D in the same order gives :
A
p, q, r, s
B
q, r, s, p
C
r, s, q, p
D
r, s, p, q
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 190 Explanation: 
Activation Records:
An activation record is another name for Stack Frame. It's the data structure that composes a call stack. It is generally composed of:
1)Locals to the callee
2)Return address to the caller
3)Parameters of the callee
The Call Stack is thus composed of any number of activation records that get added to the stack as new subroutines are added, and removed from the stack (usually) as they return.
The actual structure and order of elements is platform and even implementation defined.
Assembler :
A computer program which translates assembly language to machine language.
It maintains a location counter to assign storage addresses to each instruction of our program.
Reference counter :
→ Reference counting is a technique of storing the number of references, pointers, or handles to a resource such as an object, block of memory, disk space or other resource.
→ Tracks for each object, counts the number of references made by it and when the count reaches zero, the object becomes inaccessible and gets destroyed.
A linking loader generally performs the reallocation of code.
Question 191
A counting semaphore was initialised to 7. Then 20 P (wait) operations and x V (signal) operations were completed on this semaphore. If the final value of semaphore is 5, then the value x will be
A
0
B
13
C
18
D
5
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 191 Explanation: 
Counting semaphore value is 7
After 20 P operations value of semaphore = 7 – 20 = -13
After ‘x’ V operations value of S=5, So -13 + xV = 5 and S = 18 .
Question 192
We consider the addition of two 2’s complement numbers bn-1bn-2…b0 and an-1an-2…a0. A binary adder for adding unsigned binary numbers is used to add the two numbers. The sum is denoted by cn-1cn-2…c0 and the carry-out by cout. Which one of the following options correctly identifies the overflow condition?
A
B
C
D
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 192 Explanation: 
There is an overflow if
1. The sign bits are same i.e MSB bits are same.
2. Carry_in ≠ Carry_out.
In option B, the MSB are equal.
Question 193
Consider the function
int fun(x: integer)
{
If x > 100
then
fun = x – 10;
else
fun = fun(fun(x + 11));
}
For the input x = 95, the function will return
A
89
B
90
C
91
D
92
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 193 Explanation: 
Value returned by
fun(95) = fun(fun(106))
= fun(96)
= fun(fun(107))
= fun(97)
= fun(fun(108))
= fun(98)
= fun(fun(109))
= fun(99)
= fun(110)
= fun(100)
= fun(fun(111))
= fun(101)
= 91
Question 194
Consider the function
int func(int num)
{
int count = 0;
while(num)
{
count++;
num >>= 1;
}
return(count) ;
}
For func(435) the value returned is
A
9
B
8
C
0
D
10
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 194 Explanation: 
func (435)
count = 0 Shift right of 1, which means the number gets half.
while (num)
{
Shift left of 1, which means, the number gets doubled.
count++;
num>>=1;
}
return (count); 435/2 = 217/2 = 108/2 = 54/2 = 27/2 = 13/2 = 6/2 = 3/2 = 1/2 = 0
Count: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9. Χ
(or)
(435)10 = (110110011)2
The given program counts total number of bits in binary representation and fails when while (num) becomes all zeroes.
Question 195
Which of the following set of components is sufficient to implement any arbitrary Boolean function?
a) XOR gates, NOT gates
b) 2 to 1 multiplexers
c) AND gates, XOR gate
d) Three-input gates that output (A.B)+C for the inputs A, B and C.
A
a and d
B
b and c
C
c
D
All a, b, c and d
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 195 Explanation: 
(A) XOR and NOT gates can only make XOR and XNOR which are not functionally complete.
(B) 2×1 multiplexer is functionally complete provided we have external 1 and 0 available.
(C) XOR can be used to make a NOT gate (a⊕1=a') and (AND, NOT) is functionally complete. Again this required external 1.
(D) We cannot derive NOT gate here. So not functionally complete.
Hence, options (B) and (C) are true provided external 1 and 0 are available.
Question 196
Consider the following :

Matching A, B, C, D in the same order gives.
A
r, p, s, q
B
p, r, q, s
C
s, r, q, p
D
q, r, s, p
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 196 Explanation: 
White box testing→ Condition Coverage
Black box testing→ Equivalence Class partitioning
Volume Testing→ Performance testing
Beta Testing→ System testing
Question 197
Consider the results of a medical experiment that aims to predict whether someone is going to develop myopia based on some physical measurements and heredity. In this case, the input dataset consists of the person’s medical characteristics and the target variable is binary: 1 for those who are likely to develop myopia and 0 for those who aren’t. This can be best classified as
A
Regression
B
Decision Tree
C
Clustering
D
Association Rules
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 197 Explanation: 
Regression: It is a statistical analysis which is used to establish relation between a response and a predictor variable. It is mainly used in finance related applications.
Decision Tree: Decision tree is a computational method which works on descriptive data and records the observations of each object to reach to a result.
Clustering: It is a method of grouping more similar objects in a group and the non-similar objects to other groups.
Association Rules: It uses if-then reasoning method using the support-confidence technique to give a result.
According to the question Decision Tree is the most suitable technique that can be used to get best result of the experiment.
Question 198
Which of the following related to snowflake schema is true?
A
Each dimension is represented by a single dimensional table
B
Maintenance efforts are less
C
Dimension tables are normalised
D
It is not an extension of star schema
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 198 Explanation: 
→ A snowflake schema is a logical arrangement of tables in a multidimensional database such that the entity relationship diagram resembles a snowflake shape.
→ The snowflake schema is represented by centralized fact tables which are connected to multiple dimensions.
→ "Snowflaking" is a method of normalizing the dimension tables in a star schema.
→ When it is completely normalized along all the dimension tables, the resultant structure resembles a snowflake with the fact table in the middle.
→ The principle behind snowflaking is normalization of the dimension tables by removing low cardinality attributes and forming separate tables.
Question 199
Which of the following is not true with respect to deadlock prevention and deadlock avoidance schemes?
A
In deadlock prevention, the request for resources is always granted if resulting state is safe
B
In deadlock avoidance, the request for resources is always granted, if the resulting state is safe
C
Deadlock avoidance requires knowledge of resource requirements a priori
D
Deadlock prevention is more restrictive than deadlock avoidance
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 199 Explanation: 
False: In deadlock prevention, the request for resources is always granted if resulting state is safe
→ Deadlock prevention algorithms are used in concurrent programming when multiple processes must acquire more than one shared resource.
→ A deadlock prevention algorithm organizes resource usage by each process to ensure that at least one process is always able to get all the resources it needs.
Question 200
Consider a disk sequence with 100 cylinders. The request to access the cylinder occur in the following sequence : 4, 34, 10, 7, 19, 73, 2, 15, 6, 20 Assuming that the head is currently at cylinder 50, what is the time taken to satisfy all requests if it takes 2 ms to move from one cylinder to adjacent one and shortest seek time first policy is used?
A
190
B
238
C
233
D
276
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 200 Explanation: 
The given sequence is
4, 34, 10,7, 19, 73, 2, 15, 6, 20
Arrange the sequence in order
2, 4, 6, 10, 15, 19, 20, 34, 73

⇒ 2 ms to move from one cylinder to adjacent one
⇒ (16*2)+(14*2)+(1*2)+(4*2)+(5*2)+(3*2)+(1*2)+(2*2)+(2*2)+(71*2)
⇒ 32+28+2+8+10+6+2+4+4+142
⇒ 238 ms
Question 201
Consider the following C function
#include <stdio.h>
int main(void)
{
char c[ ] = "ICRBCSIT17";
char *p=c;
printf("%s", c+2[p] – 6[p] – 1);
return 0;
}
The output of the program is
A
SI
B
IT
C
TI
D
17
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 201 Explanation: 
String is “ICRBCSIT17” and index numbers starts from 0.

Pointer(p) is pointing to character array c[ ].
Index location 2[p] =’R’ and 6[p] =’I’
‘R’-‘I’ = 9 and c+2[p]–6[p]–1
= c+9–1
= c+8
It will print 17.
Question 202
If C is a skew-symmetric matrix of order n and X is n * 1 column matrix, then XTCX is a
A
scalar matrix
B
null matrix
C
unit matrix
D
matrix will all elements 1
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 202 Explanation: 
→ A skew symmetric(or antisymmetric or anti metric) matrix is a square matrix whose transpose equals its negative. It satisfies the condition AT = -A

Question 203
A 32 bit adder is formed by cascading 4 bit CLA adder. The gate delays (latency) for getting the sum bits is
A
16
B
18
C
17
D
19
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 203 Explanation: 
Block diagram of Carry look-ahead adder(CLA) is shown in below figure. All the data inputs A and B are available and Pi and Gi are computed simultaneously for all the CLAs.

The carry propagates the through the Carry-lookahead generators. Carry-lookahead generator which produces carry takes 2 Units of time.
So time delay= (3 units for carry C1 of CLA1)+ (7 * 2 units for carries C2 to C7 of CLA2 to CLA7)+ (3 Units for carry and also sum of CLA8).
Note: For CLAs 1 to 7, it takes an extra 1 unit of time to produce Sum which overlaps with time required for carrie's of next CLAs.
Question 204
In IEEE floating point representation, the hexadecimal number 0xC0000000 corresponds to
A
-3.0
B
-1.0
C
-4.0
D
-2.0
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 204 Explanation: 
Given number 0xC0000000 is in Hexadecimal format.
Question 205
Consider the following table : Faculty (facName, dept, office, rank, dateHired)

(Assume that no faculty member within a single department has same name. Each faculty member has only one office identified in office. 3NF refers to third normal form and BCNF refers to Boyce-Codd Normal Form. Then Faculty is
A
Not in 3NF, in BCNF
B
In 3NF, not in BCNF
C
In 3NF, in BCNF
D
Not in 3NF, not in BCNF
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 205 Explanation: 
Possible FD’S for given instance are:
FacName ➝ dept,office
Question 206
Consider the following query :
SELECT E.eno, COUNT(*)
FROM Employees E
GROUP BY E.eno
If an index on eno is available, the query can be Solutioned by scanning only the index if
A
the index is only hash and clustered
B
the index is only B+tree and clustered
C
index can be hash or B+ tree and clustered or non-clustered
D
index can be hash or B+ tree and clustered
       ISRO DEC 2017 22- Soon
Question 207
The IETF standard documents are called:
A
RFC
B
RCF
C
ID
D
none of the above
       Nielit Scientist-B CS 4-12-2016
Question 207 Explanation: 
● The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is an open standards organization, which develops and promotes voluntary Internet standards, in particular the standards that comprise the Internet protocol suite (TCP/IP).
● A Request for Comments (RFC) is a type of publication from the technology community. RFCs may come from many bodies including from the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), the Internet Research Task Force (IRTF), the Internet Architecture Board (IAB) or from independent authors
Question 208

Who among the following devised the ryotwari system during the british rule in india?

A
Lord Dalhousie
B
Warren Hastings
C
Lord Minto
D
Capt. Alexander read
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 208 Explanation: 
The Ryotwari system was a land tenure system in British India, introduced by Sir Thomas Munro in 1820 based on system administered by Captain Alexander Read in the Baramahal district. It allowed the government to deal directly with the peasant (ryot) for revenue collection, and gave the peasant freedom to give up or acquire new land for cultivation. The peasant was assessed for only the lands he was cultivating.
Question 209

In which of the following states is the tuluni festival celebrated?

A
Arunachal pradesh
B
Manipur
C
Nagaland
D
Sikkim
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 209 Explanation: 
The Tuluni Festival of Nagaland is commended around the second seven day stretch of the long stretch of July.The most noteworthy celebration celebrated by the Sumi Naga clan of Nagaland is the Tuluni Festival. This celebration is commended to cheer the most bounteous and productive period of the year in Nagaland. The Sumi clan in Nagaland praises the Tuluni Festival with magnificence and greatness.
Amid the Tuluni Festival there are petitions and contributions that are given to Litsaba, who is the god of productivity who gives life and insurance to the crops. During the Tuluni Festival in Nagaland , a flagon is made with the leaf of plantain, to serve the rice lager. Tuluni is the name of this wine is devoured by the Sumi clan. "anni' is another name for 'Tuluni' which means the period of plenteous harvests.
Question 210

Among the various electrical safety device in the options, the one based on the heating effect of electric current is the:

A
protective relay
B
circuit breaker
C
fuse
D
surge protectors
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 210 Explanation: 
A fuse is an electrical safety device that operates to provide overcurrent protection of an electrical circuit. Its essential component is a metal wire or strip that melts when too much current flows through it, thereby interrupting the current. It is a sacrificial device; once a fuse has operated it is an open circuit, and it must be replaced or rewired, depending on type.
Question 211

Article 45 of the constitution of india provides provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of:

A
6 years
B
9 years
C
12 years
D
10 years
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 211 Explanation: 
Article 45 shall stand Substituted by Constitution (Eighty Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, s. 3 (which is yet not in force, date to be notified later on) as --
"45 . Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years -- The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years."
Question 212

Article 26 of the constitution of india deals with:

A
validation of certain acts and regulations
B
equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
C
freedom to manage religious affairs
D
prohibition of trafficking in human beings
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 212 Explanation: 
Freedom to manage religious affairs Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
(a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
(b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion
(c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property
(d) to administer such property in accordance with law
Question 213

Which team won the ICC world twenty20 2016(Men's) tournament?

A
England
B
West Indies
C
South africa
D
Australia
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 213 Explanation: 
England and the West Indies were both contesting the tournament final for a second time, having won one previous tournament each (in 2010 and 2012, respectively). West Indian captain Darren Sammy won the toss and elected to bowl, as he had done throughout the tournament. England posted a total of 155/9 from their 20 overs, with Joe Root top-scoring with 54 runs from 36 balls. For the West Indies, Carlos Brathwaite took 3/23 and Samuel Badree took 2/16, including a maiden. The West Indies subsequently reached their target with just two balls to spare. They required 19 runs from the final over, bowled by Ben Stokes, which Brathwaite reached by hitting four consecutive sixes. Marlon Samuels scored 85 not out from 66 balls – the highest score in World T20 final history – and was named the final Man of the Match for the second time. The match was played to a near-capacity crowd, with 66,000 people in attendance.
1. West Indies won the toss and elected to field.
2. Marlon Samuels (WI) made the highest score in a World T20 final.
3. West Indies became the first team to win both the men's and women's World Twenty20s on the same day, with the women defeating Australia by 8 wickets.
Question 214

The asian development bank(ADB) has approved a USD 346 million loan for road improvements in which of the following states?

A
Telangana
B
Maharashtra
C
Karnataka
D
Gujarat
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 214 Explanation: 
India on Thursday signed a $346 million loan agreement with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) to finance improvement of over 400 km of state highways that will enhance connectivity and access to economic centres across 12 districts in Karnataka.
This would be in addition to an ongoing road improvement project financed by the ADB with a loan of $315 million which involves upgradation of about 615 km of state roads.
The loan agreement for the Karnataka State Highways Improvement III Project (KSHIP-III) was signed between Sameer Kumar Khare, Joint Secretary in the Finance Ministry and Kenichi Yokoyama, Country Director of ADB’s India Resident Mission.
Kenichi Yokoyama said the new loan will continue ADB support to the Karnataka government's statewide road improvement programme, and will also help improve road safety.
Question 215

In which country was the ninth edition of the mountain echoes literature festival held in august 2018?

A
Sri lanka
B
India
C
China
D
Bhutan
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 215 Explanation: 
Bhutan Mountain Echoes Literary Festival definitely holds an important position among all Bhutan festivals. 2018 ninth edition of the literary festival, and the organiser has already announced the names of guests who are coming in to the festival. The festival is set to be held from August 23 to 25, 2018.
Question 216

______ can produce a virtual image larger than the object

A
Concave lens
B
Concave mirror
C
Convex mirror
D
Plane mirror
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 216 Explanation: 
A converging lens (one that is thicker in the middle than at the edges) or a concave mirror is also capable of producing a virtual image if the object is within the focal length. Such an image will be magnified. In contrast, an object placed in front of a converging lens or concave mirror at a position beyond the focal length produces a real image. Such an image may be magnified or reduced depending on the position of the object.
Question 217

From the given options, select the word that can be formed using the letters from the given word

ALTERNATE

A
TAVERN
B
LANTERN
C
TALENT
D
TANNER
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 217 Explanation: 
→ TAVERN: Here, V is not present in ALTERNATE.
→ LANTERN: Here, N appears 2 times but actual given word having only one ‘N’ letter.
→ TALENT: It is completely formed in given word ALTERNATE.
→ TANNER: Here, N appears 2 times but actual given word having only one ‘N’ letter.
Question 218

Select the option that is different from the other three options

A
Resentful
B
Serene
C
Desolate
D
Sad
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 218 Explanation: 
→ Serene synonyms are calm, peaceful and untroubled.
→ Resentful, Desolate and Sad are same category.
Question 219

Select the options that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term

CEGI:XVTR::FHJL:?

A
OQSU
B
USPO
C
VSQO
D
USQO
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 219 Explanation: 
Question 220

Select the option that is different from the other three options

A
117
B
78
C
60
D
52
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 220 Explanation: 
Here, 117 and 78 difference is 13*3
78 and 52 difference is 13*2
52 and 39 difference is 13*1
So, 60 is the odd one because difference is 13.
Actual difference is 39, 52, 78, 117.
Question 221

'Restaurant' is related to 'chef; in the same way as 'garage' is related to:

A
car
B
vehicle
C
mechanic
D
accountant
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 221 Explanation: 
→ Restaurant is related to chef
→ Garage is related to mechanic
Question 222

Choose the correct options that will complete the given number series:

2, 2, 3, 8, 35, ?, 1421

A
204
B
40
C
408
D
70
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 222 Explanation: 
The pattern in the serial is *1 – 1, *2 –2, *3 –3, *4 –4, *5 –5 i.e.,
3 (1st term) * 1 - 1 = 2 (2nd term)
2 (2nd term) * 2 - 2 = 2 (3rd term)
2 (3rd term) * 3 - 3 = 3 (4th term) and so on…
Going by this pattern the next number in the series will be 35 * 6 – 6 = 204
Question 223

Ruby met Nisha at a party. Nisha introduced herself as the eldest daughter of the brother-in-law of Ruby's friends mother?How is Ruby's friend related to Nisha?

A
Niece
B
Friend
C
Cousin
D
Daughter
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 223 Explanation: 
→ Nisha introduced herself as the eldest daughter of the brother-in-law of Ruby's friends mother is nothing but cousin.
Question 224

Five children are standing in a single file line in ascending order of their heights. Q is second in line. P and R are taller than O. N is taller than P but shorter than R. P is the middle of the line. Who is at end of the line?

A
P
B
O
C
R
D
Q
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 224 Explanation: 
Here, Q is already mentioned 2 position in a line.
P is middle means 3rd position.
N is taller than P means but shorter than R means 4th position.
O is shorter than P and R means 1st position.
R is end of the line.
O, Q, P, N, R
Question 225

If the seventh day of the month is four days after friday, what day will it be on the thirty first day of the month?

A
Tuesday
B
Wednesday
C
Friday
D
Monday
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 225 Explanation: 
7th day of the month is four days after friday is Tuesday.
14th day- Tuesday
21st day- Tuesday
28th day-Tuesday
29th-wednesday
30th-thursday
31st- friday
Question 226
 
A
14
B
7
C
15
D
13
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 227

Abhi bought an article and sold it at a loss of 10%. If he had bought it for 20% less and sold it for Rs.121 more, he would have had a profit of 40%. If he decides to sell it for Rs.506, what will he percentage gain/loss be?

A
Loss 8%
B
Gain 8%
C
Loss 5.50%
D
Gain 5.5%
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 228

A shopkeeper sold an article for Rs.494 after giving a discount of 18% on its marked proce. had he NOT given the discount, he would have earned a profit of 25% on the cost price. What is the cost price(in Rs) of the article?

A
Rs.484
B
Rs.480
C
Rs.410
D
Rs.450
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 229

In folding the HCF of two numbers by the division method, the quotients are 1 and 6 respectively. If the HCF of the two numbers in 300, then their LCM will be:

A
12600
B
6300
C
8400
D
2100
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 230

Of three numbers, the first is 7 times the second and is also 4 times the third. If the average of the three numbers is 299/7 , what is the sum of the first and the third number?

A
736/7
B
253/7
C
115
D
110
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 231
   
A
20
B
1/2
C
2
D
1/20
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 232

A vessel contains a solution of A and B in the ratio 5:7. If 4 1/2L of the solution is replaced by the sme quality of A, then their ratio becomes 9:7. How much(in liters) of liquid B was there in the bucket initially?

A
15
B
21
C
7 1/2
D
10 1/2
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 233

There are eleven numbers whose average is 64. The first number is 4 more than second but 10 less than the third. The average of the numbers from the fourth to the seventh is 62.5, and the average of the remaining numbers is 65.5. What is the average of the second and the third number?

A
65.5
B
64
C
65
D
64.5
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 234

A bag contains coins of Rs.1, 50 paise and 25 paise in the ratio 4:3:8. If the total amount in the bag is Rs.240, then the number of 50 paise coins is:

A
96
B
128
C
256
D
192
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 235

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word

AUDACITY
A
boldness
B
courage
C
timidity
D
nerve
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 236

Select the wrongly spelt word

A
improbable
B
impudent
C
impression
D
impropreity
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 237

Select the option which is NOT an antonym of another word by way of adding the prefix 'in-'.

A
indomitable
B
individualism
C
incompetent
D
incoherent
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 238

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Divyanshu didn't like to work at a corporate. He wants to start____ own business.

A
our
B
their
C
his
D
my
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 239

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

____ their clothes were proper, they didn't look smart.

A
Whether
B
Despite
C
Although
D
Because
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 240

In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been underlined. one of them is incorrect. Choose the incorrect word or phrase from the given options.

Most of the projects is struggling to make progress due to various like land acquisition, forest clearance or release of funds from the government.

A
release of funds
B
to make progress
C
due to
D
is struggling
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 241

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word

STEALTHY
A
direct
B
daring
C
unrestricted
D
sly
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 242

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Usually she has milk, but today she____hot herbal tea because she has a sore throat.

A
had taken
B
was taking
C
takes
D
is taking
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 243

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

This ward is meant for critically____children.

A
injury
B
injured
C
injurious
D
injuring
       JT(IT) 2018 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 244
Given : Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday
What day comes three days after the day which comes two days after the day which comes immediately after the day which comes two days after Monday?
A
Sunday
B
Tuesday
C
Thursday
D
Saturday
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 245
Before the printing press, books could be purchased only in expensive manuscript copies. The printing press produced books that were significantly less expensive than the manuscript editions. The public’s demand for printed books in the first years after the invention of the printing press was many times greater than demand had been for manuscript copies. This increase demonstrates that there was a dramatic jump in the number of people who learned how to read in the years after publishers first started producing books on the printing press. Which one of the following statements, if true, casts doubt on the argument?
A
During the first years after the invention of the printing press, letter writing by people who wrote without the assistance of scribes or clerks exhibited a dramatic increase.
B
Books produced on the printing press are often found with written comments in the margins in the handwriting of the people who owned the books.
C
In the first years after the printing press was invented, printed books were purchased primarily by people who had always bought and read expensive manuscripts but could afford a greater number of printed books for the same money.
D
Books that were printed on the printing press in the first years its invention often circulated among friends in informal reading clubs or libraries.
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 246
Bevex, an artificial sweetener used only in soft drinks, is carcinogenic for mice, but only when it is consumed in very large quantities. To ingest an amount of Bevex equivalent to the amount fed to the mice in the relevant studies, a person would have to drink 25 cans of Bevex-sweetened soft drinks per day. For that reason, Bevex is in fact safe for people.
In order for the conclusion that Bevex is safe for people to be properly drawn, which one of the following must be true?
A
Cancer from carcinogenic substances develops more slowly in mice than it does in people.
B
If all food additives that are currently used in foods were tested, some would be found to be carcinogenic for mice.
C
People drink fewer than 25 cans of Bevex- sweetened soda per day.
D
People can obtain important health benefits by controlling their weight through the use of artificially sweetened soft drinks.
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 247
Saurabh: Airlines have made it possible for anyone to travel around the world in much less time than was formerly possible.
Monica’s: That is not true. Many flights are too expensive for all but the rich.
Monica’s response shows that she interprets Saurabh’s statement to imply that
A
everyone has an equal right to experience world travel
B
world travel is only possible via routes serviced by airlines
C
most forms of world travel are not affordable for most people
D
anyone can afford to travel long distances by air
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 248
Nutritionists have recommended that people eat more fiber. Advertisements for a new fiber-supplement pill state only that it contains “44 percent fiber.”
The advertising claim is misleading in its selection of information on which to focus if which one of the following is true?
A
Nutritionists base their recommendation on medical findings that dietary fiber protects against some kinds of cancer.
B
It is possible to become addicted to some kinds of advertised pills, such as sleeping pills and painkillers.
C
The label of the advertised product recommends taking 3 pills every day.
D
The recommended daily intake of fiber is 20 to 30 grams, and the pill contains one third gram.
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 249
Many environmentalists have urged environmental awareness on consumers, saying that if we accept moral responsibility for our effects on the environment, then products that directly or indirectly harm the environment ought to be avoided. Unfortunately it is usually impossible for consumers to assess the environmental impact of a product, and thus impossible for them to consciously restrict their purchases to environmentally benign products. Because of this impossibility there can be no moral duty to choose products in the way these environmentalists urge, since_______.
Which one of the following principals provides the most appropriate completion for the argument?
A
a moral duty to perform an action is n ever based solely on the effects the action will have on other people
B
a person cannot possibly have a moral duty to do what he or she is unable to do
C
moral considerations should not be the sole determinants of what products are made available to consumers
D
the morally right action is always the one whose effects produce the least total harm
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 250
A man rowed 3 miles upstream in 90 minutes. If the river flowed with a current of 2 miles per hour, how long did the man’s return trip take?
A
20 minutes
B
30 minutes
C
45 minutes
D
60 minutes
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 251
A man walks 10 miles at an average rate of 2 miles per hour and returns on a bicycle at an average rate of 10 miles per hour. How long (to the nearest hour) does the entire trip take him?
A
4 hours
B
5 hours
C
6 hours
D
7 hours
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 252
A circular garden twenty feet in diameter is surrounded by a path three feet wide. What is the area of the path?
A
51π square feet
B
60 π square feet
C
69 π square feet
D
90 π square feet
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 253
What is the area of a semicircle with a diameter of 16 inches?
A
32π square inches
B
64 π square inches
C
128π square inches
D
256π square inches
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 254
Which of the following figures has the largest perimeter? (1 foot = 12 inches)
A
a square with a diagonal of 5 feet
B
a rectangle with sides of 3 feet and 4 feet
C
an equilateral triangle with a side equal to 48 inches
D
a regular hexagon whose longest diagonal is 6 feet
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 255
Two bicyclists travel in opposite directions. One travels 5 miles per hour faster than the other. In 2 hours they are 50 miles apart. What is the rate of the faster bicyclist?
A
11.25 mph
B
15 mph
C
20 mph
D
22.5mph
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 256
Sonal has finished reading 30% of a 340-page novel. How many pages has she read?
A
102
B
103
C
105
D
113
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 257
Of 150 people polled, 150 said they rode the city bus at least 3 times per week. How many people out of 100,000 could be expected to ride the city bus at least 3 times each week?
A
55,000
B
70,000
C
72,500
D
75,000
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 258
The sum of a number and its double is 69. What is the number?
A
46.6
B
34.5
C
23
D
20
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 259
Twelve less than 4 times a number is 20. What is the number?
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 260
A certain number when added to 50% of itself is 27.What is the number?
A
7
B
9
C
11
D
18
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 261
Rani will twice Raja’s age in 3 years when Raja will be 40. How many years old is Rani now?
A
20
B
80
C
77
D
37
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 262
The perimeter of a parallelogram is 50 cm. The length of the parallelogram is 5 cm more than the width. Find the length of the parallelogram.
A
15 cm
B
11 cm
C
5 cm
D
10 cm
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 263
Rahim travelled straight from point E to F at a distance of 5 km. From F he turned left and travelled 6 km and reached point G, there he took a left turn and travelled 5 km to reach point H. He took another left turn and travelled 2 km and reached point I. How far is he from the starting point?
A
3 km
B
4 km
C
5 km
D
7 km
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 264
A man is facing East, then he turns left and goes 10 m, then turns right and goes 5 m, then goes 5 m to the South and from there 5 m to West. In which direction is he, from his original place?
A
East
B
West
C
North
D
South
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 265
Kevlar​ belongs to a class of materials known as
A
Ceramics
B
Polymers
C
Carbon
D
Plastics
       Nielit Scientist-D 2016 march
Question 266
A T-switch is used to
A
Control how messages are passed between computers
B
Echo every character that is received
C
Transmit characters one at a time
D
Rearrange the connections between computing equipments
       ISRO CS 2015
Question 266 Explanation: 
A T-switch is used to rearrange the connections between computing equipments
Question 267
What frequency range is used for microwave communications, satellite and radar?
A
Low frequency: 30 kHz to 300 kHz
B
Medium frequency: 300 kHz to 3 MHz
C
Medium frequency: 300 kHz to 3 MHz
D
Extremely high frequency: 30000 kHz
       ISRO CS 2015
Question 267 Explanation: 
→ Microwave signals are often divided into three categories:
1)Ultra high frequency (UHF) (0.3-3 GHz);
2)Super high frequency (SHF) (3-30 GHz); and
3)Extremely high frequency (EHF) (30-300 GHz).
→ In addition, microwave frequency bands are designated by specific letters.
→ The term “P band” is sometimes used for ultra high frequencies below the L-band. For other definitions, see Letter Designations of Microwave Bands
→ Lower Microwave frequencies are used for longer links, and regions with higher rain fade. Conversely, Higher frequencies are used for shorter links and regions with lower rain fade.
Question 268
Which of the following compression algorithms is used to generate a .png file?
A
LZ78
B
Deflate
C
LZW
D
Huffman
       ISRO CS 2015
Question 268 Explanation: 
→ Deflate is a lossless data compression algorithm and associated file format that uses a combination of the LZ77 algorithm and Huffman coding.
→ An algorithm producing Deflate files is widely thought to be implementable in a manner not covered by patents.
→ This has led to its widespread use, for example in gzip compressed files, PNG image files and the ZIP file format for which Katz originally designed it.
Question 269
Which of the following is not an image type used in MPEG?
A
A frame
B
B frame
C
D frame
D
P frame
       ISRO CS 2015
Question 269 Explanation: 
A Group Of Pictures can contain the following picture types:
I picture (or) I frame (intra coded picture) – a picture that is coded independently of all other pictures. Each GOP begins (in decoding order) with this type of picture.
P picture (or) P frame (predictive coded picture) – contains motion-compensated difference information relative to previously decoded pictures. Each P picture can only reference one picture, and that picture must precede the P picture in display order as well as in decoding order and must be an I or P picture.
B picture (or) B frame (bi predictive coded picture) – contains motion-compensated difference information relative to previously decoded pictures. Each B picture can only reference two pictures, the one which precedes the B picture in display order and the one which follows, and all referenced pictures must be I or P pictures.
D picture or D frame (DC direct coded picture) – serves as a fast-access representation of a picture for loss robustness or fast-forward. D pictures are only used in MPEG-1 video.
Question 270
If P is risk probability, L is loss, then is computed as
A
RE=P/L
B
RE=P+L
C
RE=P*L
D
RE=2*P*L
       Nielit Scientific Assistance CS 15-10-2017
Question 270 Explanation: 
Risk Exposure(RE) is determined using the following relationship RE = P*L
where P is the probability of occurrence for a risk, and L is the cost to the project should the risk occur.
Question 271

Which statement about bank rate in India is correct?

A
RBI gives loan to commercial banks at this rate against collateral
B
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) determines bank rate in India
C
The ministry of finance determines bank rate
D
This is the rate at which commercial banks lend to their customers
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 272

Which of the following steps are taken to control inflation?

A
Reduction I bank rate
B
Decreasing government expenditure
C
Decreasing cash reserve ratio (CRR)
D
Increasing the money supply in the economy
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 273

Which of the following kings assumed the title of Gangaikonda chola?

A
Vijaydevraya
B
Rajaraja chola
C
Samudragupta
D
Rajendra I
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 274

Who established the Christi order in India?

A
Nizamuddin Aulia
B
Bhaktiyar Kaki
C
Farid-ud-Din-Ganj-i-Shakar
D
Khwaja Moinuddin
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 275

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

A
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the parliament
B
Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the parliament
C
Lok Sabha is the permanent house of the parliament
D
Rajya Sabha is the permanent house of the parliament
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 276

Which of the following statements is correct?

A
The governor appoints the chief minister of a state
B
The president appoints the chief minister of a state
C
The chief minister appoints the governor of a state
D
The prime minister appoints the governor of a state
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 277

Which Port was first developed after India lost Karachi Port to Pakistan?

A
Marmagao
B
Nhava Sheva
C
Paradeep
D
Kandla
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 278

Millions of years ago. The area now occupied by the Himalayas and the northern plains was under___________.

A
the Tethys sea
B
the Shipkila pass
C
Lake Mansarovar
D
River Satluj
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 279

What are Metalloids?

A
Unreactive, inert elements
B
Elements that show the properties of both metals and non-metals
C
Mixtures formed by the combination of two or more non-metals
D
Compounds formed by the combination of two or more elements
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 280

Which is the longest bone in human body?

A
Back bone
B
Hip bone
C
Thigh bone
D
Shoulder bone
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 281

_________ is a folk theatre form comprising music, dance, make-up, costume and dialogue.

A
Bharatanatyam
B
Ghoomar
C
Yakshgana
D
Bagurumba
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 282

Who among the following authored the popular Bengali novel Hajar Churashir Maa?

A
Tarashankar Bandopadhyaya
B
Ashapurna Devi
C
Mahasweta Devi
D
Bishnu Dey
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 283

In the year 1957, who among the following became the first recipient of the Padma Shri award in Sports category?

A
Mihir Sen
B
Milkha Singh
C
Balbir Singh
D
Sardar Singh
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 284

Which of the following was chosen as the Best Feature Film in the 63rd National Film Awards?

A
Court
B
Nannu Avanalla Ayalu
C
Baahubali – The Beginning
D
Prem Ratan Dhan payo
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 285

Who is the first man to hold both the 100 metres and 200 metres world records since fully automatic time became mandatory?

A
Usain Bolt
B
Asafa Powel
C
Carl Lewis
D
Tyson Gay
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 286

Select the related letters / numbers from the given alternatives,

BHEK: YVSP: :DGJM:?
A
FILO
B
WTQN
C
WYAC
D
NQTX
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 287

Select the related letters / numbers from the given alternatives,

12 : 20 : : 30 : ?
A
36
B
40
C
42
D
44
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 288

Select the one which is different from other three alternatives

A
Safe : Secure
B
Kind : Cruel
C
Clear : Vague
D
Shallow : Deep
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 289

Select the one which is different from other three alternatives

A
6 : 15
B
8: 23
C
10 : 31
D
12 : 37
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 290

Choose the correct alternative from the given ones which will complete the series;

4, 9, 20, 43, ? 185
A
88
B
90
C
92
D
96
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 291

Choose the correct alternative from the given ones which will complete the numbers/letter series.

NBM, KEP, HHS, ? , BNY
A
EJW
B
EKU
C
EKV
D
FLV
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 292

Pointing to a lady in a photograph Savita said, “Her father’s only son’s wife is my mother-in-law”. How is that lady in the photograph related to the Savita’s husband?

A
Aunt
B
Mother
C
Cousin
D
Sister – in – Law
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 293

Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, V and X are sitting in a row, facing North. ‘P’ is to the immediate left of ‘Q’, but on the immediate right of ‘R’. ‘S’ is on the right of ‘P’ but is on the left of ‘T’, ‘V’ is on the left of ‘X’ who is to the left of ‘R’, Who is sitting right in the middle?

A
X
B
S
C
R
D
P
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 294

From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word,

CLASSIFICATION
A
FICTION
B
NATIONAL
C
LIAISON
D
NILOTIC
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 295

If in a certain code languages STRONG is written as QVPQLI. How would SILVER be written in the same code language?

A
TJMWFS
B
QGJTCP
C
QKJXCT
D
REVLIS
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 296

Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system, Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

3X2=10, 4X3=14, 6X5=22, 7X6=?
A
42
B
36
C
30
D
26
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 297

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below.

People, Carpenters, Books
A
B
C
D
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 298

Sachin walked 7 Km West of his house and turned to his left and walked 5 Km. Then he moves 10 Km towards East and then again 3 Km West, Finally, he turns left and walks 2 Km. How far and in which direction is Sachin from his house i,e, starting point?

A
7 Km towards South
B
7 Km towards West
C
10 Km towards North
D
10 Km towards East
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 299

Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the conclusions can definitely be drawn from these statements.

    Statements:
    (i) All Books are Pens.
    (ii) All Pens are Pencils.
    Conclusions:
    I. All Pencils are Books.
    II. Some Pencils are Books.
A
Only conclusion I follows
B
Only conclusion II follows
C
Both conclusion I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 300

Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when mirror is held at MN?

A
B
C
D
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 301

The least number which when divided by 12, 16, 24 and 36 leaves remainder 7 in each case:

A
139
B
144
C
151
D
295
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 302

The length, breadth and height of a room are respectively 825 cm. 675 cm and 450 cm, what is longest tape which can measure the three dimensions of room exactly?

A
25 cm
B
50 cm
C
55 cm
D
75 cm
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 303

Let X varies inversely as Y and Y = 60 when X = 1.5. What is the value of X, when Y= 4.5?

A
20
B
809
C
30
D
45
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 304

If 25, X, 2X, 72 are in proportion then what is value of X?

A
20
B
24
C
30
D
32
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 305

The simple interest on certain sum of money at 6% per annum for 3 ½ years is ₹ 200. What is the sum invested?

A
₹ 1000
B
₹ 900
C
₹ 800
D
₹ 700
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 306

The compound interest on ₹ 48,000 for 1 year at 10% per annum compounded half-yearly in Rs is;

A
4800
B
4920
C
5800
D
10080
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 307

A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above cost price and gives a discount of 20%. What is his net profit or loss?

A
gain 4%
B
loss 4%
C
loss 5%
D
no profit no loss
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 308

By selling 50 pens, a shopkeeper gained the amount equal to selling price of 10 pens, what is his profit percent?

A
403%
B
503%
C
20%
D
25%
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 309

Two vessels A and B contains water and sprit in the ratio 3 : 4 and 5 : 2 respectively. They are mixed in the ratio 4 : 5. What is the ratio of water and sprit in the new mixture?

A
3 : 2
B
2 : 3
C
30 : 37
D
37 : 30
       JT(IT) 2016 PART-A General Aptitude
Question 310