Environment

Question 1

Under Green India Mission, how many hectares of degraded forest land is to be brought under afforestation?

A
02 million hectares
B
06 million hectares
C
08 million hectares
D
20 million hectares
Question 2

The most important pollutants that cause degradation of water quality in rivers and streams are

    (a) Bacteria
    (b) Nutrients
    (c) Metals
    (d) Total dissolved solids
    (e) Algae

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A
(a), (b) and (c)
B
(a), (b) and (d)
C
(a), (b), (d) and (e)
D
(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
Question 3

Identify from the options given below, the co-benefit of Montreal Protocol.

A
Impetus to development of energy efficient systems
B
Reduction in carbon dioxide (equivalent) emissions
C
Convergence of efforts of international community in addressing air pollution
D
Control of trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste
Question 4
Which of the International Agreements/Convention/Protocols are legally binding on the member countries (parties)?
A) Convention on Biological Diversity
B) Kyoto Protocol
C) Montreal Protocol
D) Paris Agreement
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
(C) only
B
(A) and (C) only
C
(A), (B) and (C) only
D
(B), (C) and (D) only
Question 4 Explanation: 
In 1997, the Kyoto Protocol was concluded and established legally binding obligations for developed countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions.
The Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) sets binding obligations on industrialized countries to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases
In the given question, it mentioned that member countries only.
Binding commitments for the Annex I Parties. The main feature of the Protocol is that it established legally binding commitments to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases for Annex I Parties
Question 5
During the physical treatment process of wastewater, what is the correct order of following operations to be followed?
A) Flocculation
B) Filtration
C) Screening
D) Sedimentation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(C), (D), (B), (A)
B
(C), (D), (A), (B)
C
(B), (D), (A), (C)
D
(B), (C), (D), (A)
Question 6
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide emissions from bioenergy. Production has traditionally been excluded from most emission inventories and climate impact studies.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide emissions associated with production of bioenergy are significantly less compared to those from combustion of fossil fuels.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 7
Wind energy is very sensitive to the wind velocity because wind power is directly proportional to the
A
wind velocity
B
square of the wind velocity
C
square root of the wind velocity
D
cube of the wind velocity
Question 8
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Carbon monoxide (CO) is a serious asphyxiant; even a short exposure may have fatal health issues.
Reason (R): Hemoglobin present in the blood has greater affinity towards carbon monoxide than oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Question 9
Lower Level of Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in water
A. is bad for human consumption.
B. may have been caused due to presence of oxygen demanding waters.
C. threatens the fish and aquatic life.
D. cannot be used for irrigation purposes.
E. may cause undesirable taste and odour.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
A, B and C only
B
A, B and D only
C
B, C and E only
D
C, D and E only
Question 10
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Dose-response assessment is the process of determining whether or not a particular chemical is casually linked to particular health effect.
Statement II: Hazard identification is the process of characterizing the relationship between the dose of an toxic agent received and the incidence of an adverse health effect.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
C
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
D
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Question 11
Which of the following are primary aerosols in atmosphere?
A. Sea salt
B. Black carbon
C. Sulphate
D. Nitrate
E. Mineral Particles
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
A, B and C only
B
B, C and D only
C
A, B and E only
D
C, D and E only
Question 12
Solar ponds store solar thermal energy by?
A
Photovoltaic cells
B
Creating salt gradient
C
Using solar thermal collectors
D
Covering major portion of pond by plastic sheets
Question 13
Which of the following are responsible for formation and destruction of ozone (O3) in upper atmosphere?
A. Solar radiation
B. Oxides of nitrogen (NOx)
C. Black carbon
D. Chlorine (CI)
E. Ammonia (NH3)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
A, B and D only
B
B, C and D only
C
C, D and E only
D
A, C and E only
Question 14
Math List I with List II:
List I List II
(Protocol/summit) (Theme)
A) Paris Agreement I)Emissions trading
B) Kyoto Protocol II)Ozone depletion
C) Rio declaration III)INDCs
D) Montreal Protocal IV) Environment and development
A
A)-III,B)-I,C)-II,D)-IV
B
A)-I,B)-II,C)-IV,D)-III
C
A)-III,B)-I,C)-IV,D)-II
D
A)-I,B)-II,C)-III,D)-IV
Question 15
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Natural erosion of the soil is gradual removal of the top soil by natural process
Statement II: Accelerated erosion of the soil is caused due to man made activities. The rate of accelerated erosion is equal to the rate of soil formation
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Question 16
Chlorine in drinking water is used for
A) Disinfection
B) Removal of hardness
C) Odor treatment
D) turbidity control
E) Removal of iron and manganese
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A,C,E only
B
A,B,C only
C
A,D,E only
D
C,D,E only
Question 17
Geothermal field requires combination of the following three conditions
A)A natural underground source of water
B)A mountain in the vicinity
C)An impermeable layer
D)A coal mine in the vicinity
E)A large mass of hot rock in the vicinity
A
A,C,E only
B
A,C,D only
C
B,C,D only
D
B,D,E only
Question 18
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Volatile Organic chemicals(VOCs) are among the most commonly found contaminants in ground water.
Statement II: The concentration of VOCs in ground water is much less compared to that in surface waters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Question 19
Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government of India?
A
Solar power
B
Waste to energy conversion
C
Afforestation
D
Nuclear energy
Question 20
The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
A
500 mg/L
B
400 mg/L
C
300 mg/L
D
200 mg/L
Question 21
‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
A
Arundhati Roy
B
Medha Patkar
C
Ila Bhatt
D
Sunderlal Bahuguna
Question 22
The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
A
SO2 and O3
B
SO2 and NO2
C
HCHO and PAN
D
SO2 and SPM
Question 23
Assertion (A): Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic. Reason (R): They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is correct, but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Question 23 Explanation: 
Both are correct and R given proper explanation to A
Question 24
Volcanic eruptions affect
A
atmosphere and hydrosphere
B
hydrosphere and biosphere
C
lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
D
lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
Question 25
Frequent episodes of dense smog in winter season in the National Capital Region (NCR) can be attributed to
(i) Stubble burning
(ii) Biomass burning in rural households
(iii) Transport
(iv) Transboundary movement of pollutants
A
(i) and (iii)
B
(i), (ii) and (iii)
C
(i), (iii) and (iv)
D
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 26
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) comprises of
(i) Household waste
(ii) Sanitation residue
(iii) Waste from streets
(iv) Construction and demolition debris
A
(i), (ii) and (iii)
B
(i) and (iii)
C
(i), (iii) and (iv)
D
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 27
As per the Indian Government’s target for exploiting renewable energy sources, the percentage share of solar and wind energy in the total power generation from renewable energy sources by the year 2022 will be about
A
~ 91·43%
B
~ 57·14%
C
~ 50%
D
~ 60%
Question 28
An earthquake of a magnitude in the range of 6·0 – 6·9 on the Richter Scale is considered
A
Moderate
B
Strong
C
Major
D
Great
Question 29
Indian government's target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is
A
1 Giga-Watt
B
5 Giga-Watt
C
10 Giga-Watt
D
15 Giga-Watt
Question 30
In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?
A
Rwanda
B
Morocco
C
South Africa
D
Algeria
Question 31
Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?
A
Snow avalanche
B
Sea erosion
C
Tropical cyclone
D
Tsunami
Question 32
The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NO x ) in urban areas is
A
Road transport
B
Commercial sector
C
Energy use in industry
D
Power plants
Question 33
Which of the following is not a water-bone disease?
A
Typhoid
B
Hepatitis
C
Cholera
D
Dengue
Question 34
Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(b) only
D
(a), (b) and (c)
Question 35
Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?
A
Pesticides
B
Mercury
C
Lead
D
Ozone
Question 36
Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 37
Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
A
Wildfire
B
Lightning
C
Landslide
D
Chemical contamination
Question 38
As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
A
175 GW
B
200 GW
C
250 GW
D
350 GW
Question 39
At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
A
Brazil > Russia > China > India
B
Russia > China > India > Brazil
C
Russia > China > Brazil > India
D
China > Russia > Brazil > India
Question 40
Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.
A
Particulate matter
B
Oxides of nitrogen
C
Surface ozone
D
Carbon monoxide
Question 41
Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true and (R) is false.
D
(A) is false and (R) is true.
Question 42
World Meterological Organisation’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths to hydrometerological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)
A
25%
B
50%
C
75%
D
80%
Question 43
Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?
A
Untreated sewage
B
Agriculture run-off
C
Unregulated small scale industries
D
Religious practices
Question 44
Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
A
50 MW
B
25 MW
C
15 MW
D
10 MW
E
None of the Above
Question 45
Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources?
A
Oil, forests and tides
B
Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
C
Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
D
Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
Question 46
In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included?
A
Chlorofluorocarbons
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Fine particulate matter
D
Ozone
Question 47
Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale.
The ratio of the energies released E B /E A will be approximately:
A
~64
B
~8
C
~16
D
~32
Question 48
India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
A
~15%
B
~3%
C
~6%
D
~10%
Question 49
In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
A
India
B
USA
C
European Union
D
China
Question 50
The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
A
Population, forest cover and land available per person
B
Population, affluence per person, land available per person
C
Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
D
Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
There are 50 questions to complete.

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