JNU 2018-2 PhD CS

Question 1
If L and ~L (complement of L) are recursive enumerable, then L is
A
regular
B
context free
C
context sensitive
D
recursive
Question 1 Explanation: 
If L is recursively enumerable that means a TM accepts all strings in L. ~L is recursively enumerable means that a TM accepts all strings in ~L.So we can always decide if a string is in L or not. Since we can always decide so it is recursive.
Question 2
If transition is not defined on the current state and the current tape symbol, then the machine
A
halts
B
does not halt
C
goes into loop forever
D
None of the above
Question 2 Explanation: 
If transition is not defined in any state,then the state may be final or non final state.In both case it is said that the machine halts.If in final state there is no transition then we say machine halts and we say string accepted or if in non-final state there is no transition then we say machine halts and we say string is rejected.
Question 3
A language L may not be accepted by a Turing machine if
A
it is recursively enumerable
B
L can be enumerated by some Turing machine
C
it is recursive
D
None of the above
Question 3 Explanation: 
A language L may not be accepted by a Turing machine if L is not recursively enumerable. But note that if L is recursively enumerable then it will be definitely accepted by TM.
Question 4
The variable which produces an epsilon is called
A
empty
B
terminal
C
non-terminal
D
nullable
Question 4 Explanation: 
The variable which produces an epsilon is called nullable variable.
Question 5
The construction time for DFA having m nodes from an equivalent NFA is
A
O(m2)
B
O(2m)
C
O(m)
D
O(log m)
Question 5 Explanation: 
The construction time for a DFA from an NFA is O(2^m) where m is the number of nodes in NFA because if no. of nodes in NFA is m then DFA can have upto 2^m states.
Question 6
Which of the following is true about a file?
A
It is an abstract data type
B
It is usually non-volatile
C
It is a logical storage unit
D
All of the above
Question 6 Explanation: 
File is logical storage unit with set of physical blocks
Question 7

Consider a fully associative cache with 8 cache blocks (numbered 0-7) and the following sequence of memory block requests:

4, 3, 25, 8, 19, 6, 25, 8, 16, 35, 45, 22, 8, 3, 16, 25, 7

If LRU replacement policy is used, which cache block will have memory block 7?
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
Question 7 Explanation: 
Question 8
Which of the following is the address generated by the CPU?
A
Physical address
B
Absolute address
C
Logical address
D
None of the above
Question 8 Explanation: 
The address generated by the CPU is a logical address, whereas the address actually seen by the memory hardware is a physical address
Question 9
What is interprocess communication?
A
Communication within the process
B
Communication between two processes
C
Communication between two threads of same process
D
None of the mentioned
Question 9 Explanation: 
Inter process communication is a set of programming interface which allow a programmer to coordinate activities among various program processes which can run concurrently in an operating system.
Question 10
Which of the following storage units has the highest access time?
A
Magnetic disk
B
Floppy disk
C
Cache
D
Swapping device
Question 10 Explanation: 
Among the given devices magnetic disk has the highest access time.
Question 11
Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of connection-oriented networking?
A
Quality of service
B
No priority service
C
Bandwidth utilization
D
All of the above
Question 12
PID is used by the system to identify
A
a process
B
file name
C
i-node
D
All of the above
Question 12 Explanation: 
A PID (i.e., process identification number) is an identification number that is automatically assigned to each process when it is created on a Unix-like operating system. A process is an executing (i.e., running) instance of a program. Each process is guaranteed a unique PID, which is always a non-negative integer.
Question 13
In which switching, multiplexing is used?
A
Packet switching
B
Circuit switching
C
Data switching
D
All of the above
Question 13 Explanation: 
points. Circuit switching method is also called a connection oriented network. Two nodes must be physically and logically connected to each other to create a circuit switching network.
Question 14
The purpose of subnetting is
A
it divides one large network into several smaller ones
B
it divides network into network classes
C
it speeds up the speed of network
D
None of the above
Question 14 Explanation: 
Subnetting divides a network into smaller sections. It can have a number of purposes including easier network management and more organized networks, as well as various security and performance gains
Question 15
The network mask for a class C network is
A
255.255.255.1
B
255.255.255.0
C
255.255.255.254
D
255.255.255.255
Question 15 Explanation: 
In class C network first 24 bit is network id and next 8 bit is host id.
So in network mask of class C first 24 bit will have binary 1’s and next 8 bits will have binary 0’s.
So therefore network mask of class C will be 255.255.255.0
Question 16
Which is not true about an AVL tree of n nodes?
A
Average space complexity is O(n)
B
Average space complexity is O(log (n))
C
Worst space complexity is O(n2)
D
Average insert complexity is O(log (n))
Question 16 Explanation: 
The space complexity of an AVL tree is O(n) in both the average and the worst case because the AVL tree is balanced BST and will require space almost equal to the space required by complete binary tree which is O(n). But the average space complexity can never be O(logn) since no. of elements are n.
Also time complexity for inserting an element in AVL tree is O(logn) since the tree is balanced binary search tree whose height is O(logn).
Question 17
The logical relationship among data items is defined by
A
data structure
B
data relationship
C
storage structure
D
data operation
Question 18
One generally uses which of the following data structures to recollect some past happening/event?
A
Array
B
Queue
C
Stack
D
Link
Question 19
The time complexity of inserting a node in a doubly linked list is
A
O(n2 log(n))
B
O(n log (n))
C
O(log (n))
D
O(n)
Question 19 Explanation: 
Strictly speaking an insertion is simply O(1). The other answers mostly correctly state that the complexity is O(n) if you need to search for the position in which to insert the new node
Question 20
Which of the following is not an application of priority queue?
A
Huffman code
B
Interrupt handling in operating system
C
Undo operation in text editors
D
Bayesian spam filter
Question 20 Explanation: 
Huffman coding need priority queue to extract nodes with minimum frequency.
Interrupt handling requires priority queue to serve the highest priority interrupt first.
Undo operation in text editors uses stack.
Bayesian spam filter also uses priority queue.
Question 21
The inverse of function f(x) = (x2 + 1)3 is
A
(y1/3 - 1)1/2
B
(y1/3 - 1)2
C
(y1/2 - 1)1/3
D
(y1/6 - 1)
Question 21 Explanation: 
Question 22
The domain of the function f(x) = x1/2 is
A
(-∞, +∞)
B
(2, ∞)
C
(-∞, 1)
D
(0, ∞)
Question 22 Explanation: 
The value of x under the square root can never be negative. So the domain of the function will always be greater than or equal to 0,i.e. (0, ∞).
Question 23
A function f is defined from set A to set B. A and B have m and n (m≤n) elements, respectively. Then the number of one-to-one functions is
A
nCm × m!
B
nCm × n!
C
mCn × m!
D
mCn × n!
Question 23 Explanation: 
For the function f to be one-one no. of elements in A must be less than or equal to B. And yes it is given that m<=n. So the no. of one-to-one function will be nCm × m!, because we will select m elements from set B which will have nCm ways and then each elements from selected elements of B can be mapped to one elements each in A which will have m! Ways and therefore making total no. of one-to one functions possible is nCm × m!.
Question 24
Floor (3.7) + Ceil (6.5) is equal to
A
11
B
10
C
9
D
8
Question 24 Explanation: 
Floor(x) means the greatest integer value less than equal to x. Whereas ceil(x) means the least integer value greater than or equal to x. Hence the value of Floor (3.7) + Ceil (6.5) is Floor (3.7) + Ceil (6.5) = 3+7 = 10
Question 25
Let A be defined as {{Φ}, {Φ, {Φ}}}. Then the power set of A has the number of elements is
A
10
B
8
C
6
D
4
Question 25 Explanation: 
The no. of elements in A is 2 which is {Φ} and {Φ, {Φ}}. So the no. of elements in the power set of A will be 2^2 = 4
Question 26
Let f(x) be defined as 3x2 + x3 log(x). Then f(x) is
A
O(x2)
B
O(x3)
C
O(x4)
D
O(x)
Question 26 Explanation: 
For given f(x) = 3x2 + x3 log(x) the correct answer will be will be O( x3 log(x)) but since it is not given so we have to take greater than this which will be O(x4) according to options given
Question 27
In relational model, the relations are viewed as
A
tuples
B
attributes
C
tables
D
rows
Question 27 Explanation: 
In relational model the relations are viewed as tables.
Question 28
In an E-R diagram, an entity set is represented by a/an
A
ellipse
B
rectangle
C
diamond box
D
circle
Question 28 Explanation: 
An entity is an object or component of data. An entity is represented as rectangle in an ER diagram.
Question 29
The database level closest to the users is
A
external
B
internal
C
physical
D
conceptual
Question 29 Explanation: 
Three levels of database architecture
Physical or Internal Level. It is the Internal Level and is the physical storage of a database. ...
Conceptual or Logical Level. It represents the complete content of the database i.e. the records and relationships. ...
External or View Level. External Level as the name suggests, is what the end users view.
Question 30
Let R1 and R2 be two relations. The UNION operation on R1 and R2 will give
A
all tuples of R1
B
all tuples of R2
C
all tuples of R1 and R2
D
all tuples of R1 and R2 having common columns
Question 30 Explanation: 
The UNION operation on R1 and R2 will give all tuples present in R1 and R2 .
Question 31
A primary key combined with a foreign key creates
A
parent-child relationship between tables that connect them
B
many to many relationship between tables that connect them
C
Network model between tables that connect them
D
None of the above
Question 31 Explanation: 
A primary key combined with a foreign key creates parent-child relationship between tables that connect them. The table which is referred table will be a parent table and the referring table will be a child table with foreign key which will be referring to the primary key of referred table.
Question 32
Which is/are integer constant(s)?
A
Decimal integer constant
B
Octal integer constant
C
Hexadecimal constant
D
All of the above
Question 32 Explanation: 
All are the examples of the integer constants only
Question 33
Suppose an expression contains assignment, relational and arithmetic operators and has no parenthesis. Then their order of evaluation is
A
arithmetic, relational, assignment
B
arithmetic, assignment, relational
C
relational, assignment, arithmetic
D
assignment, arithmetic, relational
Question 33 Explanation: 
The precedence of the assignment,relational and arithmetic operators is
Arithmetic > Relational > assignment
Question 34
In an assignment statement a=b, which of the following is correct?
A
The variables a and b are same
B
The value of b is assigned to variable a; later if the value of b changes, it will affect the value of a
C
The value of b is assigned to variable a; later if the value of b changes, it will not affect the value of a
D
The value of variable a is assigned to variable b and the value of b is assigned to variable a
Question 34 Explanation: 
In the assignment statement a=b , the value of b is assigned to the variable ‘a’ ,and since the variable ‘a’ and ‘b’ are independent so later if the values of b changes it will not affect the value of ‘a’.
Question 35
The operators && and || are used to
A
compare two numeric values
B
compare two Boolean values
C
combine two numeric values of short
D
combine different types of values
Question 35 Explanation: 
Among all options , Option-D is the most suitable one.The logical operators can be used with variables,constants and expressions and so on
Question 36
Which of the following functions need not to have return statement in its body?
A
int a(char *s)
B
float *b()
C
void c(int y[], int n)
D
short d(long x)
Question 36 Explanation: 
Void functions are created and used just like value-returning functions except they do not return a value after the function executes. A void function performs a task, and then control returns back to the caller--but, it does not return a value
Question 37
The rank of any general 100×1000 matrix cannot be greater than
A
1000
B
500
C
10
D
100
Question 37 Explanation: 
The rank of any general m x n matrix cannot be grater than min(m,n). Hence the rank of 100×1000 cannot be greater than min(100,1000) = 100.
Question 38
The number of solutions of is
A
0
B
1
C
infinite
D
None of the above
Question 38 Explanation: 
Question 39
The determinant is
A
0
B
2
C
6
D
24
Question 39 Explanation: 
The determinant of the given matrix will be
1(18-12) - 1(9-4) +1(3-2)
=6-5+1 = 2
Question 40
Consider the group S<sub>3</sub> of all permutations of 3 letters. Which of the following properties does it satisfy?
A
Finitely generated
B
Cyclic
C
Abelian
D
Simple
Question 41
The remainder obtained after x<sup>4</sup> + x<sup>2</sup> + 1 is divided by x<sup>2</sup> + x + 1 is
A
1
B
x
C
x2 - x + 1
D
0
Question 41 Explanation: 
Question 42
Which of the following sets is a subgroup of the additive group of real numbers?
A
Positive real numbers
B
Non-negative real numbers
C
Even integers
D
Odd integers
Question 42 Explanation: 
For a set to be group four conditions must be satisfied closure,associativity,identity element,inverse element.
Lets check option wise
A)For addition inverse of a element will be its negative but in this option no negative elements are present ,hence not the group.

B)Same reason as option A
C)Yes this is the group because it satisfies closure, associativity,identity element is also present as ‘0’ because 0 is an even number, inverse of elements is also present since in this all even integers are present either positive or negative.Hence all the four conditions are satisfied.
D)For addition 0 is the identity element but in this only odd integers are present which do not contain 0.Hence not the group.
Question 43
Consider the function f(x) = |x|, x∈R (set of real numbers). It is
A
differentiable everywhere
B
continuous everywhere
C
differentiable at 0 only
D
None of the above
Question 44
A
B
C
D
Question 45
The function is
A
discontinuous
B
differentiable
C
non-differentiable
D
None of the above
Question 46

The points where



is discontinuous are
A
x = n, n is an integer
B
x = (2n+1), n is an integer
C
x = 2n, n is an integer
D
x = (2n+1) /2, n is an intege
Question 47
A
B
C
D
Question 48
A
-19/17
B
19/17
C
9/17
D
-9/17
Question 49
The order of convergence of Regula falsi method is
A
1.618
B
1.321
C
1.931
D
2.012
Question 50
The numerical integration using the Simpson’s rule for which step size h has error of order
A
h
B
h2
C
h3
D
1
Question 51
Parrot : Cage :: Man : ?
A
Home
B
Motor car
C
Prison
D
Forest
Question 51 Explanation: 
Parrot is captured in Cage in same way Man is captured in Prison.
Question 52
UTS : FDC :: WVU : ?
A
YWV
B
WXY
C
UVX
D
HGF
Question 52 Explanation: 
Ist term is related to IIIrd term when read in reverse order as STU - UVW. Same is the case with IInd and IVth terms as-CDF - FGH.
Question 53
RAP, MAP, HOT, FUN, ?
A
HNP
B
CAT
C
PGD
D
STN
Question 53 Explanation: 
a, e, i, o, u are vowels and there is a vowel consonant relationship in every group of the series.
Question 54
A/2, B/4, C/6, D/10,?
A
E/16, F/26
B
E/12, F/16
C
E/12, F/14
D
D/10, E/10
Question 54 Explanation: 
In the series in every term there is alphabet in numerator which is increased by 1 from previous term and the denominator is the sum of denominators of previous two elements. So the first next term will be E/(6+10) =E/16 and the second next term will be F/(10+16) =F/26.
Question 55
In a code language 251 means ‘you are good’, 137 means ‘we are bad’, 359 means ‘good and bad’. Find the code for ‘and’
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
9
Question 55 Explanation: 
Number 251 and 137 have digit 1 in common and the corresponding sentences have ‘are ’ word in common. So till here we can conclude that code for ‘are ’ is 1. Now number 137 and 359 have digit 3 in common and the corresponding sentences have ‘bad’ word in common.So from this we can conclude that code for ‘bad’ is 3. Now number 251 and 359 have digit 5 in common and the corresponding sentences have ‘good’ word in common.So from this we can conclude that code for good is 5. Now we need code for ‘and’ which is present in sentence ‘good and bad’ whose corresponding number is 359. Sice we know the code for ‘good’ and ‘bad’ which is 5 and 3 .So definitely the code for ‘and’ will be 9
Question 56
ADG, GJM,?
A
NOP
B
MPS
C
MOQ
D
WTV
Question 56 Explanation: 
The words in series start from the letter with which the previous word ends and also there is a 2 letter gap sequentially in each word. So the next word in the series will be MPS
Question 57
11, 33, 55, 77,?
A
99
B
88
C
121
D
165
Question 57 Explanation: 
The given sequence is arithmetic sequence with common difference 22.Hence the next element will be 99, since 99-77=22
Question 58
If 3×6 = 18, 5×3 = 16, 8×2 = 20, find the value of 4×6=?
A
15
B
18
C
20
D
23
Question 58 Explanation: 
(3 + 6) x 2 = 18,
(5 + 3)x 2 = 16,
(8 + 2) x 2 = 20
So,
(4+6)x 2= 20
Question 59
Pen is to poet as needle is to
A
thread
B
tailor
C
button
D
sewing
Question 59 Explanation: 
Pen is used by the poet to write the poetry .In a similar way needle is used by the tailor to sew the clothes.
Question 60

Statement: Should the education be made by the Govt. free of charge?

Reason A: Yes, it will help in universalization of education in the country.

Reason B: No, there will be budgetary deficit creating some new problems.
A
only A is strong
B
only B is strong
C
Both are strong
D
None is strong
Question 61
In hypothesis testing, the level of significance of a test is the probability of
A
committing a type I error
B
committing a type II error
C
not committing a type I error
D
not committing a type II error
Question 62
The _____ test is not used to compare the parameters (like mean, variance, proportion etc.) of two different samples
A
z
B
t
C
x2
D
F
Question 63
In hypothesis testing, the power of a test is the probability of
A
committing a type I error
B
committing a type II error
C
not committing a type I error
D
not committing a type II error
Question 63 Explanation: 
The probability of not committing a Type II error is called the power of a hypothesis test
Question 64
The choice of t-test is done when a _____ sample is taken from a population with _____ variance.
A
large, known
B
small, unknown
C
large, unknown
D
small, known
Question 64 Explanation: 
t-test is based on t-distribution and is considered an appropriate test for judging the significance of a sample mean or for judging the significance of difference between the means of two samples in case of small sample(s) when population variance is not known (in which case we use variance of the sample as an estimate of the population variance)
Question 65
A
B
C
D
Question 66
A
B
C
D
Question 67
A
0.68
B
0.83
C
0.95
D
1
Question 68
Given that X is a random variable with first moment 10 and second moment 90, what is its standard deviation?
A
100
B
√90
C
√10
D
10
Question 69
The mean of the binomial probability distribution is 857.6 and the probability is 64%, then the number of values of the binomial distribution is
A
1040
B
1340
C
1240
D
1140
Question 69 Explanation: 
The mean of the binomial probability distribution is = np
where n=no. of values and p=probability = 0.64
So given,np=857.6
n*0.64=857.6
n=857.6/0.64 = 1340
Question 70
Tail or head, one or zero, and girl or boy are examples of
A
complementary events
B
non-functional events
C
non-complementary events
D
functional events
Question 70 Explanation: 
Complementary events happen when there are only two outcomes, like getting a job, or not getting a job. In other words, the complement of an event happening is the exact opposite: the probability of it not happening.The complementary events cannot occur simultaneously, means they are mutually exclusive events.
Like if in a coin tail occurs then head is not there or if head occurs then tail is not there. Similarly for a binary no. if a digit is 0 it cant be one or if a digit is 1 it cant be 0.
Similarly for a child if a child is boy it cannot be a girl or if the child is a girl it cannot be a boy.
So the events given in the questions are complementary events.
Question 71
Condition for negative exponential distribution considering mean (μ) is that
A
μ must be less than zero
B
μ must be greater than one
C
μ must be greater than zero
D
μ must be smaller than two
Question 72
A bag contains 5 black and 10 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is white?
A
1/2
B
2/3
C
3/4
D
4/5
Question 72 Explanation: 
Probability that the ball drawn is white is = C(10,1) / C(15,1) = 10/15 = 2/3
Question 73
Which of the following is a class indication of quality of a research journal?
A
Impact factor
B
h-index
C
g-index
D
i10-index
Question 73 Explanation: 
Impact factor is an indication of the quality of a research journal
Question 74
The number of significant digits in the number 2.0400×102 is
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 74 Explanation: 
2.0400×10^2 = 204.00 = 204(because 0’s after decimal point is not required)
Therefore no. of significant digits are 3
Question 75
The independent variables that are not related to the purpose of the study but may affect the dependent variable are termed as
A
extraneous variables
B
inductive variables
C
intrinsic variables
D
extrinsic variables
Question 75 Explanation: 
Independent variables that are not related to the purpose of the study, but may affect the dependent variable are termed as extraneous variables
Question 76
Primary data can be collected by conducting survey. In which of the following ways is/are the survey conducted by?
A
Interview
B
Observation
C
Questionnaire
D
All of the above
Question 77
Truncation error in the number 5.217 truncated to 5.21 is
A
0.0013%
B
0.013%
C
0.13%
D
1.3%
Question 77 Explanation: 
Truncation error will be
(5.217-5.21)/5.217*100 = 0.13%
Question 78
Absolute error in a measurement value of a physical quantity is
A
difference between measured value and its true value
B
ratio of measured value and true value
C
measured value plus true value
D
difference between measured and true values divided by true value
Question 78 Explanation: 
The magnitude of the difference between the individual measurement and the true value of the quantity is called the absolute error of the measurement. The arithmetic mean of all the absolute error is taken as the mean absolute error of the value of the physical quantity.
Question 79
Relative error in a physical quantity is
A
difference between measured value and true value
B
ratio of absolute error and the measured value of the physical quantity
C
ratio of measured value and true value
D
ratio of true value and measured value
Question 79 Explanation: 
The relative error is the ratio of the mean absolute error Δamean to the mean value amean of the quantity measured.
Question 80
Type-I error means
A
rejection of hypothesis which should have been accepted
B
accepting the hypothesis which should have been rejected
C
accepting the hypothesis which should have been accepted
D
rejection of hypothesis which should have been rejected
Question 81
Which of the following is not a formal experimental design?
A
Completely randomized
B
Randomized block
C
Factorial
D
Roman square
Question 82
Statistical constants of the population are called
A
statistics
B
parameters
C
variables
D
proportions
Question 82 Explanation: 
The statistical constants of the population are referred as Parameters and the. statistical constants of the Sample are referred as Statistics
Question 83
Statistical measures of the sample are called
A
parameters
B
statistics
C
variables
D
proportions
Question 83 Explanation: 
A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter while measure based on a sample is known as statistic.
Question 84
Data obtained in Census survey is
A
free from sampling errors
B
free from non-sampling errors
C
free from biased errors
D
free from all errors
Question 85
Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
A
Convenience sampling
B
Quota sampling
C
Judgement sampling
D
Stratified sampling
Question 85 Explanation: 
Quota sampling is a non-probability sampling technique in which researchers look for a specific characteristic in their respondents, and then take a tailored sample that is in proportion to a population of interest
Question 86
Which of the following is not an informal experimental design?
A
Before-and-after without control
B
Before-only with control
C
Before-and-after with control
D
After-only with control
Question 86 Explanation: 
Informal experimental designs.
(1)Before and after without control design.
(2)After only with control design.
(3)Before and after with control design.
Question 87
Type-II error means
A
rejection of hypothesis which should have been accepted
B
rejection of hypothesis which should have been rejected
C
accepting the hypothesis which should have been rejected
D
accepting the hypothesis which should have been accepted
Question 88
Principle of randomization provides
A
better estimation of experimental error
B
better estimation of sampling error
C
protection against experimental error
D
protection against sampling error
Question 88 Explanation: 
The Principle of Randomization provides protection, when we conduct an experiment, against the effect of extraneous factors by randomization. In other words, this principle indicates that we should design or plan the experiment in such a way that the variations caused by extraneous factors can all be combined under the general heading of “chance.” For instance, if we grow one variety of rice, say, in the first half of the parts of a field and the other variety is grown in the other half, then it is just possible that the soil fertility may be different in the first half in comparison to the other half. If this is so, our results would not be realistic. In such a situation, we may assign the variety of rice to be grown in different parts of the field on the basis of some random sampling technique i.e., we may apply randomization principle and protect ourselves against the effects of the extraneous factors (soil fertility differences in the given case). As such, through the application of the principle of randomization, we can have a better estimate of the experimental error.
Question 89
Principle of local control
A
eliminates experimental error
B
eliminates variability caused by extraneous factor from experimental error
C
eliminates variability caused by sampling
D
eliminates variability caused by any kind of factor
Question 89 Explanation: 
The Principle of Local Control is another important principle of experimental designs. Under it the extraneous factor, the known source of variability, is made to vary deliberately over as wide a range as necessary and this needs to be done in such a way that the variability it causes can be measured and hence eliminated from the experimental error. This means that we should plan the experiment in a manner that we can perform a two-way analysis of variance, in which the total variability of the data is divided into three components attributed to treatments (varieties of rice in our case), the extraneous factor (soil fertility in our case) and experimental error. In other words, according to the principle of local control, we first divide the field into several homogeneous parts, known as blocks, and then each such block is divided into parts equal to the number of treatments. Then the treatments are randomly assigned to these parts of a block. Dividing the field into several homogenous parts is known as ‘blocking’. In general, blocks are the levels at which we hold an extraneous factor fixed, so that we can measure its contribution to the total variability of the data by means of a two-way analysis of variance. In brief, through the principle of local control we can eliminate the variability due to extraneous factor(s) from the experimental error.
Question 90
Which of the following is a type of factorial design?
A
Heterogeneous factorial design
B
Simplex factorial design
C
Simple factorial design
D
Homogeneous factorial design
Question 91
In the context of hypothesis testing, which of the following options is the meaning of the statement “Test the hypothesis at 10% level of significance”?
A
The null hypothesis H0 would be rejected when the sampling result has a less than 0.1 probability occurrence when H0 is true
B
The risk of rejecting the alternative hypothesis is 10%
C
The percentage of type I error is 10%
D
The probability of a false negative is 0.1
Question 92
To conduct an experimental hypothesis-testing research, the group that is exposed to certain new or specific conditions is called _____ group.
A
control
B
subject
C
object
D
experimental
Question 93
Sampling design refers to the procedure adopted by a researcher to select items from _____
A
examples
B
samples
C
universe
D
pool
Question 94
Which one of the following is not a type of research design?
A
Descriptive and diagnostic research design
B
Exploratory research design
C
Hypothesis-testing research design
D
Confirmatory research design
Question 95
Which of the following types of data is not numerical in nature?
A
Interval
B
Nominal
C
Ordinal
D
Ratio
Question 96
Ranking and rating are important _____ techniques.
A
sampling
B
measurement
C
scaling
D
testing
Question 97
Which of the following is not a sample design?
A
Chance
B
Quota
C
Random
D
Focus
Question 98
The principle of replication, principle of randomization and principle of local control are three principles of ______.
A
sampling
B
measurement
C
ranking
D
experimental design
Question 99
The cost of _____ involved in sampling analysis determines the selection of the sampling procedure
A
computers
B
data preprocessing
C
data storage devices
D
drawing incorrect inference from the selected data
There are 99 questions to complete.