UGC NET Dec-2020 and June-2021 Paper-2

Question 1
Given below are two statements
Statement I: LL(1) and LR are examples of Bottom-up parsers.
Statement II: Recursive descent parser and SLR are examples of Top-down parsers
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 1 Explanation: 
LL(1) is a Non Recursive descent Top down parser. LR is Bottom up Parser.
Recursive Descent Parser is top down parser with backtracking and SLR is one of four LR-Parsers(LR(0),SLR(1),LALR(1),CLR(1)).
Since LR is bottom up parser so SLR is example of Bottom up parser.
Question 2
Match List I with List II ,
https://solutionsadda.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/05/1.png
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A - I, B -III , C - IV, D - II
B
A - III, B -I , C - II, D - IV
C
A - III, B -I , C - IV, D - II
D
A - III, B -IV , C - I, D - II
Question 3
In software testing, beta testing is the testing performed by _______________.
A
potential customers at the developer's location
B
potential customers at their own locations
C
product developers at the customer's location
D
product developers at their own locations
Question 3 Explanation: 
Explanation: Alpha Testing: The alpha test is conducted at the developer's site by a customer. The software is used in a natural setting with the developer "looking over the shoulder" of the user and recording errors and usage problems. Alpha tests are conducted in a controlled environment.
Beta Testing: The beta test is conducted at one or more customer sites by the end-user of the software. Unlike alpha testing, the developer is generally not present. Therefore, the beta test is a "live" application of the software in an environment that cannot be controlled by the developer.
Question 4
Given below are two statements
Statement I: In an undirected graph, number of odd degree vertices is even.
Statement II: In an undirected graph, sum of degrees of all vertices is even.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Question 4 Explanation: 
Both statements are true. First is true due to the handshaking lemma. And Second is true because we know sum of degrees can be given by formula 2*(Number of edges). Any number multiplied by 2 is always even.
Question 5
Given the following STUDENT-COURSE scheme: STUDENT (Rollno, Name, courseno) COURSE (courseno, coursename, capacity), where Rollno is the primary key of relation STUDENT and courseno is the primary key of relation COURSE. Attribute coursename of COURSE takes unique values only. Which of the following query(ies) will find total number of students enrolled in each course, along with its coursename.
A. SELECT coursename, count(*) 'total' from STUDENT natural join COURSE group by coursename;
B. SELECT C.coursename, count(*) 'total' from STUDENT S, COURSE C where S.courseno=C.courseno group by coursename;
C. SELECT coursename, count(*) 'total' from COURSE C where courseno in (SELECT courseno from STUDENT);
A
A and B only
B
A only
C
B only
D
C only
Question 6
What language is accepted by the pushdown automaton
A
L = { w | na(w) <= nb(w), w Є {a, b}+}}
B
L = { w | na(w) = nb(w), w Є {a, b}+}}
C
L = { w | nb(w) <= na(w), w Є {a, b}+}}
D
L= {wwR | w Є {a, b}+}
Question 6 Explanation: 
Question 7
For which value of n is Wheel graph Wn regular?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 8
Next five questions are based on the following passage.
Consider a domain consisting of three Boolean variables Toothache, Cavity, and Catch. The full joint distribution is a 2×2×2 table as shown in the figure below.

The probability for Cavity, given that either Toothache or Catch is true, P(Cavity | toothache ∨ catch) is _______.
A
0.4615
B
0.5384
C
0.6000
D
0.8000
Question 9
The order of a leaf node in a B+ tree is the maximum number of (value, data record pointer) pairs it can hold. Given that the block size is 1K bytes, data record pointer is 7 bytes long, the value field is 9 bytes long and a block pointer is 6 bytes long, what is the order of the leaf node?
A
63
B
64
C
67
D
68
Question 9 Explanation: 
Using the formula dp*m+vp*m+bp<=block size we get the order as 63. Here dp is Data
Pointer(7B), vp is value size(9B), bp is Block Pointer and m is the order of leaf.
Question 10
Given the following STUDENT-COURSE scheme: STUDENT (Rollno, Name, Courseno) COURSE (Courseno, Coursename, Capacity), where Rollno is the primary key of relation STUDENT and Courseno is the primary key of relation COURSE. Attribute Coursename of COURSE takes unique values only. The number of records in COURSE and STUDENT tables are 3 and 5 respectively. Following relational algebra query is executed: R=STUDENT X COURSE
Match List I with List II in context to the above problem statement.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A -I , B -III , C -IV , D - II
B
A -I , B -III , C -IV , D - II
C
A -I , B -III, C -II , D - IV
D
A -III , B -I , C -IV , D - II
Question 10 Explanation: 
Lets say STUDENT Relation has ‘p’ number of attributes and COURSE Relation has ‘q’ number of attributes.And lets say STUDENT Relation has ‘m’ records and COURSE Relation has ‘n’ tuples. And let's say ‘R’ is the result of Cross Product of STUDENT X COURSE.
Then Cardinality of R is m*n
And Degree of R is p+q. Foreign Key of relation STUDENT is Courseno and there is no foregin key in COURSE relation.
Question 11
How many ways are there to assign 5 different jobs to 4 different employees if every employee is assigned at least 1 job?
A
1024
B
20
C
240
D
625
Question 12
Next five questions are based on the following passage. Consider a domain consisting of three Boolean variables Toothache, Cavity, and Catch. The full joint distribution is a 2×2×2 table as shown in the figure below.

The marginal probability of cavity P(cavity) is __________.
A
0.080
B
0.120
C
0.200
D
0.216
Question 13
Consider following two statements:
Statement I: Relational database schema represents the logical design of the database.
Statement II: Current snapshot of a relation only provides the degree of the relation.
In the context to the above statements, choose the correct option from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are FALSE
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are TRUE
C
Statement I is FALSE but Statement II is TRUE
D
Statement I is TRUE but Statement II is FALSE
Question 13 Explanation: 
Explanation: Relational databases schema were originally proposed to separate the physical storage of data from its conceptual representation and to provide a mathematical foundation for data representation and querying. It represents the logical design of the database. Hence statement 1 True.
Current snapshot or instance of a relation represent everything about the relation like degree of the relation, cardinality of the relation etc. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
Question 14
choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and B only
B
A only
C
B and C only
D
B only
Question 14 Explanation: 
A planar graph is a graph that can be embedded in the plane, i.e., it can be drawn on the plane in such a way that its edges intersect only at their endpoints.
In other words, it can be drawn in such a way that no edges cross each other.
Option-A is planar.
Option-B is planar

Option-C is non planar
Question 15
A data structure is required for storing a set of integers such that each of the following operations can be done in O(log n) time, where n is the number of elements in the set. Deletion of the smallest element
Insertion of an element if it is not already present in the set
Which of the following data structures can be used for this purpose?
A
A balanced binary search tree can be used but not a heap.
B
A heap can be used but not a balanced binary search tree.
C
Both balanced binary search tree and heap can be used.
D
Neither balanced binary search tree nor heap can be used.
Question 15 Explanation: 
A Balanced Binary Tree is nothing but an AVL Tree. And Time complexity of an AVL tree for finding an element is (Log n) in the worst case. Heaps are good only for min/max elements. Min heap will have minimum element on root and max element will have maximum at root. But to insert an element which may or may not be present in the heap will take O (N) in the worst case because we need to check all the elements of the heap.
Question 16
In software engineering, what kind of notation do formal methods predominantly use?
A
Computer code
B
Diagrammatic
C
Mathematical
D
Textual
Question 16 Explanation: 
Explanation: Formal methods used in developing computer systems are mathematically based techniques for describing system properties. Such formal methods provide frameworks within which people can specify, develop, and verify systems in a systematic, rather than ad hoc manner.
A method is formal if it has a sound mathematical basis, typically given by a formal specification language. This basis provides a means of precisely defining notions like consistency and completeness, and more relevantly, specification, implementation and correctness.
Question 17
The V components in MVC are responsible for:
A
Business logic and domain objects.
B
Security of the system.
C
Translating between user interface actions/events and operations on the domain objects.
D
User interface.
Question 17 Explanation: 
MVC (Model-View-Controller) is a pattern in software design commonly used to implement user interfaces, data, and controlling logic. It emphasizes a separation between the software's business logic and display. This "separation of concerns" provides for a better division of labor and improved maintenance.
The three parts of the MVC software-design pattern can be described as follows:
Model: Manages data and business logic. View: Handles layout and display. Controller: Routes commands to the model and view parts.
Question 18
Identify the correct order of the following five levels of Capability Maturity Model (from lower to higher) to measure the maturity of an organization's software process.
A. Defined
B. Optimizing
C. Initial
D. Managed
E. Repeatable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
C, A, E, D, B
B
C, B, D, E, A
C
C, E, A, B, D
D
C, E, A, D, B
Question 18 Explanation: 
Question 19

A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Question 20
Given below are two statements
Statement I: Breadth-First Search is optimal when all the step costs are equal whereas uniform-cost search is optimal with any step-cost.
Statement II: When all the step costs are same uniform-cost search expends more nodes at depth d than the Breadth-First Search.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 21
Next five questions are based on the following passage.
Consider a domain consisting of three Boolean variables Toothache, Cavity, and Catch. The full joint distribution is a 2×2×2 table as shown in the figure below.

P(cavity ∨ toothache) is __________.
A
0.120
B
0.200
C
0.280
D
0.600
Question 22
Given a relation scheme R(x,y,z,w) with functional dependencies set F={x→y, z→w}. All attributes take single and atomic values only.
A. Relation R is in First Normal FORM
B. Relation R is in Second Normal FORM
C. Primary key of R is xz
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and C only
B
B and C only
C
B only
D
C only
Question 22 Explanation: 
The Primary Key is xz.
There is Partial dependency from x->y and z->w. It is Given that all attributes take single and atomic values only.
So the relation is in 1NF but not in 2NF and the key is xz.
Question 23
A system has 99.99% uptime and has a mean-time-between-failure of 1 day. How fast does the system have to repair itself in order to reach this availability goal?
A
10 Seconds
B
11 Seconds
C
12 Seconds
D
9 Seconds
Question 24
A
A and B only
B
A and C only
C
A only
D
B and C only
Question 24 Explanation: 
"img src="https://solutionsadda.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/03/24-1.png">
Question 25
Consider the following 3 processes with the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds:

What is the average waiting time for these processes if they are scheduled using the preemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm?
A
2.66
B
4.66
C
5.5
D
6
Question 25 Explanation: 
Question 26
Consider the sentence below.
There is a country that borders both India and Pakistan.
Which of the following logical expressions express the above sentence correctly when the predicate Country(x) represents that x is a country and Borders(x, y) represents that the countries x and y share the border?
A
[∃c Country(c)] ⇒ [Border (c, India) ∧ Border (c,Pakistan)]
B
∃c Border (Country(c), India ∧ Pakistan)
C
∃c Country(c) ∧ Border (c, India) ∧ Border (c,Pakistan)
D
∃c Country(c) ⇒ [Border (c, India) ∧ Border (c,Pakistan)]
Question 27
In a file allocation system, the following allocation schemes are used:
A. Contiguous
B. Indexed
C. Linked allocation
Which of the allocation scheme(s) given above will not suffer from external fragmentation? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and B only
B
A only
C
B and C only
D
C only
Question 27 Explanation: 
Indexed and Linked Allocation will not suffer from external fragmentation.
Question 28
Consider the following recursive function F() in Java that takes an integer value and returns a string value:
public static String F( int N) {
if ( N <= 0) return "-";
return F(N - 3) + N + F(N - 2) + N;
}
The value of F(5) is:
A
-1-145-2-245
B
-2-25-1-3-135
C
-2-25-3-1-135
D
-2-25-3-135
Question 28 Explanation: 
F(1) return the value -1-1
F(2) return the value -2-2
F(3) return the value -3-1-13
F(4) return the value -1-14-2-24
F(5) return the value -2-25-3-1-135
Question 29
Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R
Assertion A : Software developers do not do exhaustive software testing in practice.
Reason R : Even for small inputs, exhaustive testing is too computationally intensive
(e.g., takes too long) to run all the tests.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
A is false but R is true
B
A is true but R is false
C
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
D
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Question 29 Explanation: 
Explanation: First we need to understand the meaning of Exhaustive Software Testing. It is a testing approach in which all possible input data combinations are used for testing the software. testing approach in which all possible input data combinations are used for testing the software. inputs.
Question 30
Suppose a B+ tree is used for indexing a database file. Consider the following information:
size of the search key field= 10 bytes, block size = 1024 bytes, size of the record
pointer= 9 bytes, size of the block pointer= 8 bytes.
Let K be the order of internal node and L be the order of leaf node of B+ tree, then (K, L)=______.
A
(34, 31)
B
(50, 52)
C
(57, 53)
D
(60, 64)
Question 30 Explanation: 
Please cross verify the explanation for internal node because i am getting different answer for it
Question 31
Given memory access time as p nanoseconds and additional q nanoseconds for handling the page fault. What is the effective memory access time if a page fault occurs once for every 100 instructions?
A
p+(q/100)
B
(p+q)/100
C
p+q
D
(p/100)+q
Question 31 Explanation: 
Question 32
Given below are two statements
Statement I: Cleanroom software process model incorporates the statistical quality certification of code increments as they accumulate into a system.
Statement II: Cleanroom software engineering follows the classic analysis, design, code, test, and debug cycle to software development and focussing on defect removal rather than defect prevention.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 32 Explanation: 
Explanation: Cleanroom represents the first practical attempt at putting the software development process under statistical quality control with a well-defined strategy for continuous process improvement. To reach this goal, a cleanroom unique life cycle was defined which focused on mathematics-based software engineering for correct software designs and on statistics-based software testing for certification of software reliability.
In cleanroom software engineering, unit testing and debugging are replaced by correctness verification and statistically based testing. These activities, coupled with the record keeping necessary for continuous improvement, make the cleanroom approach unique.
Question 33
Given below are two statements
Statement I: The family of context free languages is closed under homomorphism
Statement II: The family of context free languages is closed under reversal
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 33 Explanation: 
Question 34
A transaction may be in one of the following states during its execution life cycle in concurrent execution environment.
A. FAILED
B. TERMINATED
C. PARTIALLY COMMITTED
D. COMMITTED
E. ACTIVE
Given a transaction in active state during its execution, find its next transitioned state from the options given below:
A
A only
B
C only
C
D only
D
Either A or C only
Question 34 Explanation: 
Question 35
Which of the statements given below are correct?
The midpoint (or Bresenham) algorithm for rasterizing lines is optimized relative to DDA algorithm in that
A. it avoids round-off operations.
B. it is incremental.
C. it uses only integer arithmetic.
D. all straight lines can be displayed as straight (exact).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and B only
B
A and C only
C
A, B, and C only
D
A, B, C, and D
Question 35 Explanation: 
Explanation: Bresenham's Line Algorithm is an accurate and efficient raster line-generating algorithm, scan converts lines using only incremental integer calculations that can be adapted to display circles and other curves. Following are its characteristics:
A. it avoids round-off operations.
B. it is incremental.
C. it uses only integer arithmetic.
Question 36

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
B
A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
C
A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
D
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
Question 37
Next five questions are based on the following passage.
Consider a domain consisting of three Boolean variables Toothache, Cavity, and Catch. The full joint distribution is a 2×2×2 table as shown in the figure below.

The probability of a cavity, given evidence of a toothache, P(cavity | toothache) is __________.
A
0.216
B
0.280
C
0.400
D
0.600
Question 38
Which of the given options provides the increasing order of asymptotic complexity of functions f1, f2, f3 and f4?
A. f1(n) = 2n
B. f2(n) = n3/2
C. f3(n) = n log n
D. f4(n) = nlog n
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
B, C, A, D
B
B, C, D, A
C
C, B, A, D
D
C, B, D, A
Question 38 Explanation: 
n^3/2
Question 39
If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one interpretation, then SRS is said to be
A
Consistent
B
Correct
C
Unambiguous
D
verifiable
Question 39 Explanation: 
– Complete: All services required by the user should be defined.
– Consistent: Requirements should not have contradictory definitions.
– Unambiguous: Requirement has only one interpretation.
– Correct: Requirements should cover all the services expected from the software by the user/customer.
– Verifiable: SRS is said to be verifiable if there exists a technique to measure the extent to which every requirement is met by the system.
Question 40
The postfix form of the expression (A + B) * (C * D - E) * F / G is _______ .
A
A B + C D * E – * F * G /
B
A B + C D * E – F * * G /
C
A B + C D * E – F G / * *
D
A B + C D E * – * F * G /
Question 40 Explanation: 
(A + B) * (C * D - E) * F / G
=> (A B +) * (C * D - E) * F / G
=> (A B +) * (C D * - E) * F / G
=> (A B +) * (C D * E- ) * F / G
=> (A B + C D * E - *) * F / G
=> (A B + C D * E - * F *) / G
=> (A B + C D * E - * F * G / )
Question 41
A company is consuming parts in the manufacturing of other products. Each of the part is either manufactured within the company or purchased from the external suppliers or both. For each part, part number, partname is maintained. Attribute batch number is maintained if the consumed part is manufactured in the company. If part is purchased from an external supplier, then the supplier name is maintained. Which of the following constraints need to be considered when modeling class/subclass concepts in ERD for the given problem.
A
Disjoint constraint only
B
Partial participation and disjoint constraints
C
Partial participation
D
Total specialization and overlapping constraints
Question 42
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 43
Given below are three statements related to interrupt handling mechanism
A. Interrupt handler routine is not stored at a fixed address in the memory.
B. CPU hardware has a dedicated wire called the interrupt request line used for handling interrupts
C. Interrupt vector contains the memory addresses for specialized interrupt handlers. In the context of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given Below:
A
A is TRUE only
B
Both A and B are TRUE only
C
Both A, C are TRUE only
D
Both B and C are TRUE only
Question 43 Explanation: 
Statement A: If there is non-vectored interrupt then Interrupt handling routine will always be stored at a fixed address in the memory and if there is Vectored Interrupt then Interrupt vector contains the memory addresses of Interrupt handling routine. So we can’t say that the Interrupt handler routine is not stored at a fixed address in the memory. Hence Statement A is FALSE.
Statement B: CPU hardware has a dedicated wire called the interrupt request line used for handling interrupts. Hence Statement B is TRUE.
Statement C: If there is Vectored Interrupt then Interrupt vector contains the memory addresses of Interrupt handling routine. Hence Statement C is also TRUE.
Question 44
A
A and C only
B
A and B only
C
A, B and C
D
B and C only
Question 44 Explanation: 
Statement A is not regular because we have to keep checking that the number of ‘01’ should be greater than the number of ‘0’ which will come as input after ‘01’. So we need to have a memory to keep checking it. Regular languages are accepted by Finite automata and Finite automata does not contain any memory hence Statement A is not a Regular language.
Statement B: In this statement the number of ‘cb’ should be equal to the number of ‘a’ that will come as input after ‘cb’. So we will need a memory to keep checking it and so for the same reason as mentioned above this is also not a regular language.
Statement C: Number of ‘0’ should not be equal to number of 1’s. Hence for this also we need a memory because after storing all 0’s of input into memory we will compare them with the 1’s of Input. Hence for the same reason as mentioned above this is also not a regular language.________________________________________________________________
Question 45
Match List I with List II
A
A - II , B - III , C - IV , D - I
B
A - IV , B - I , C - II , D - III
C
A - IV , B - III , C - I , D - II
D
A - IV , B - III , C - II, D - I
Question 45 Explanation: 
A new process is created by the fork() system call.
The exec() system call is used after a fork() system call by one of the two processes to replace the process's memory space with a new program. The exec() system call loads a binary file into memory (destroying the memory image of the program containing the exec() system call) and starts its execution.
A process terminates when it finishes executing its final statement and asks the operating system to delete it by using the exit () system calL.
If a process has nothing else to do while the child runs, it can issue a wait() system call to move itself off the ready queue until the termination of the child. ________________________________________________________________
Question 46
Next five questions are based on the following passage.
Consider a domain consisting of three Boolean variables Toothache, Cavity, and Catch.
The full joint distribution is a 2×2×2 table as shown in the figure below.

The probability of a toothache, given evidence of a cavity, P(toothache | cavity) is __________.
A
0.216
B
0.280
C
0.400
D
0.600
Question 47
A company stores products in a warehouse. Storage bins in this warehouse are specified by their aisle, location in the aisle, and self. There are 50 aisles, 85 horizontal locations in each aisle, and 5 shelves throughout the warehouse. What is the least number of products the company can have so that at least two products must be stored in the same bin?
A
21251
B
251
C
4251
D
426
Question 48
Consider the following linear optimization problem:
Maximize Z = 6x+5y
Subject to 2x - 3y <= 5
x+3y <= 11
4x + y <=15
and x>=0, y >= 0.
The optimal solution of the problem is:
A
15
B
25
C
31.72
D
41.44
Question 49
Which agent deals with the happy and unhappy state?
A
Goal-based Agent
B
Learning Agent
C
Model-based agent
D
Utility-based agent
Question 50


In the context of Software Configuration Management (SCM), what kind of files should be committed to your source control repository?
A. Code files
B. Documentation files
C. Output files
D. Automatically generated files that are required for your system to be used
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and B only
B
B and C only
C
C and D only
D
D and A only
Question 50 Explanation: 
Explanation: Software configuration management (SCM) is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process. Because change can occur at any time, SCM activities are developed to (1) identify change, (2) control change, (3) ensure that change is being properly implemented, and (4) report changes to others who may have an interest.
The items that comprise all information produced as part of the software process are collectively called a software configuration and it is divided into three broad categories: (1) computer programs (both source level and executable forms); (2) documents that describe the computer programs (targeted at both technical practitioners and users), and (3) data (contained within the program or external to it).
Question 51
Suppose you have eight 'black and white' images taken with a 1-megapixel camera and one '8-color' image taken by an 8-megapixel camera. How much hard disk space in total do you need to store these images on your computer?
A
1 GB
B
3 GB
C
3 MB
D
4 MB
Question 52
Given a fixed-length record file that is ordered on the key field. The file needs B disk blocks to store R number of records. Find the average access time needed to access any record of the given file using binary search.
A
B/2
B
log2B
C
B+R
D
B:
Question 53
Match List I with List II

A
A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
B
A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
C
A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
D
A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
Question 53 Explanation: 
Explanation: The waterfall model: Because of the cascade from one phase to another, this model is known as the ‘waterfall model’ or software life cycle. The waterfall model is an example of a plan-driven process—in principle, you must plan and schedule all of the process activities before starting work on them.
Evolutionary Model: Evolutionary Model is based on the idea of developing an initial implementation, exposing this to user comment and evolving it through several versions until an adequate system has been developed.
Spiral model: It uses prototyping as a risk reduction mechanism but, more important, enables the developer to apply the prototyping approach at any stage in the evolution of the product. It maintains the systematic stepwise approach suggested by the classic life cycle but incorporates it into an iterative framework that more realistically reflects the real w
Question 54
A
has at least one 1
B
has no consecutive 0’s or 1’s
C
should end with 0
D
has at least two 0’s
Question 54 Explanation: 
Both X and Y has terminal values of “0”, The grammar generated string consists of at least two 0’s.
Question 55
Let us assume a person climbing the stairs can take one stair or two stairs at a time. How many ways can this person climb a flight of eight stairs?
A
21
B
24
C
31
D
34
Question 56
Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
B
A - II , B - III, C - IV, D - I
C
A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
D
A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
Question 56 Explanation: 
The Java Remote Method Invocation (RMI) system allows an object running in one Java virtual machine to invoke methods on an object running in another Java virtual machine. RMI provides for remote communication between programs written in the Java programming language.
The Java Naming and Directory Interface™ (JNDI) is an application programming interface (API) that provides naming and directory functionality to applications written using the Java™ programming language.
Question 57
What does the following function f() in 'C' return?
int f(unsigned int N)
{
unsigned int counter = 0;
while(N > 0)
{
unsigned int counter = 0;
while(N > 0)
{
counter += N & 1;
N = N >> 1;
}
return counter == 1;
}
A
1 if N is a power of 2, otherwise 0
B
1 if N is odd, otherwise 0
C
1 if the binary representation of N has any 1's, otherwise 0
D
1 if the binary representation of N is all 1's, otherwise 0
Question 57 Explanation: 
f(1) will return 1
f(2) will return 1
f(3) will return 0
f(4) will return 1
f(5) will return 0
Question 58
Which of the DBMS component ensures that concurrent execution of multiple operations on the database results into a consistent database state?
A
Buffer manager
B
File manager
C
Logs
D
Transaction processing system
Question 59
Which of the following is used to create a database schema?
A
DDL
B
DML
C
HTML
D
XML
Question 59 Explanation: 
Data Definition Language (DDL) : the DDL is used to define both conceptual and external schemas. Examples of DDL commands: CREATE, DROP, ALTER, TRUNCATE, COMMENT, RENAME
Data Manipulation Language (DML) : The DBMS provides a set of operations or a language called the data manipulation language (DML) for manipulations include retrieval, insertion, deletion, and modification of the data.Examples of DML: SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE
HyperText Markup Language (HTML) is the standard markup language for documents designed to be displayed in a web browser.
Extensible Markup Language (XML) is a markup language and file format for storing, transmitting, and reconstructing arbitrary data.
Question 60
Consider the following graph.

Among the following sequences
I. a b e g h f
II. a b f e h g
III. a b f h g e
IV. a f g h b e
Which are depth first traversals of the above graph?
A
I and IV only
B
I, II, and IV only
C
I, III, and IV only
D
II, III, and IV only
Question 60 Explanation: 
The sequence “a b f e h g” is not possible by using DFS traversal.
Question 61
A
A and B only
B
A and C only
C
A, B, and C
D
B and C only
Question 62
Given below are two statements
Statement I: The maximum number of sides that a triangle might have when clipped to a rectangular viewport is 6.
Statement II: In 3D graphics, the perspective transformation is nonlinear in z. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 63
Which of the following concepts can be used to identify loops?
A. Depth first ordering
B. Dominators
C. Reducible graphs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and B only
B
A and C only
C
A, B and C
D
B and C only
Question 64
Find the regular expression for the language accepted by the automata given below.
A
(a+b)ab(ab+bb+ aa^*(a+b)ab)^*
B
(aa^*(a+b)ab)^*
C
a^ *(a+b)ab(ab+bb+ aa^*(a+b)ab)^*
D
a^ *ab(ab+bb+ aa*(a+b)ab)^*
E
Discarded question
Question 64 Explanation: 
Quick check is : Given Automata is accepting null string also. Only B option is generating a null string. All the other regular expressions are not generating null strings. ________________________________________________________________
Question 65
Two balanced binary trees are given with m and n elements, respectively. They can be merged into a balanced binary search tree in ____ time.
A
O(m*log n)
B
O(m*log(m+n))
C
O(m*n)
D
O(m+n)
Question 65 Explanation: 
Two balanced binary trees are given with m and n elements, respectively. They can be merged into a balanced binary search tree in O(m+n) time. ________________________________________________________________
Question 66
A
A - III, B -I , C - IV, D - II
B
A - III, B -II , C - I, D - IV
C
A - III, B -IV, C - I, D - II
D
A - IV, B -III , C - I, D - II
Question 66 Explanation: 


Question 67
Consider the given tree below. Calculate the value at the root of the tree using the alpha beta pruning algorithm.
A
3
B
5
C
6
D
9
Question 67 Explanation: 
Question 68
Let (X, *) be a semigroup. Furthermore, for every a and b in X, if a ≠ b, then a*b ≠ b*a. Based on the defined semigroup, choose the correct equalities from the options given below:
A. For every a in X, a*a = a
B. For every a, b in X, a*b *a= a
C. For every a, b, c in X, a*b *c= a*c
A
A and B only
B
A and C only
C
A, B and C
D
B and C only
Question 69
In the following table, the left column contains the names of standard graph algorithms and the right column contains the time complexities of the algorithms. Here, n and m are the number of vertices and edges, respectively. Match each algorithm with its time complexity.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
B
A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
C
A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
D
A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Question 69 Explanation: 
Bellman Ford Algorithm → O(n*m)
Kruskal’s Algorithm → O(m*logn)
Floyd Warshall algorithm → O(n^3)
Topological Sorting → O(n+m)
Question 70
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
It is always important and useful to include an 'alt' attribute on 'img' tag in HTML because
A. users who cannot see the image due to vision impairment can have a textual description of the image (which can be spoken aloud by a screen reader).
B. If the image fails to load (slow connection, broken path, etc.) then alt text is displayed instead.
C. SEO (Search Engine Optimization) benefits.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A only
B
A, B, and C
C
B and C only
D
C only
Question 71
A hash function h defined as h(key)=key mod 7, with linear probing, is used to insert the keys 44, 45, 79, 55, 91, 18, 63 into a table indexed from 0 to 6. What will be the location of key 18?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 71 Explanation: 
h(key)=key mod 7
h(44)=44 mod 7 ⇒ 2nd index location
45 th element occupies 3rd index location
79th element occupies 4th location
55th element occupies 6th location
91th element occupies 0th location
18th element occupies 5th location
Question 72
Which among the following statement(s) is(are) FALSE? >br> A. Greedy best-first search is not optimal but is often efficient.
B. A* is complete and optimal provided h(n) is admissible or consistent.
C. Recursive best-first search is efficient in terms of time complexity but poor in terms of space complexity.
D. h(n) = 0 is an admissible heuristic for the 8-puzzle
A
A and D only
B
A only
C
C and D only
D
C only
Question 73
Let

Which of the following are correct statements?
A. L3 =L1 ∩ L2
B. L1 and L2 are context free languages but L3 is not a context free language
C. L1 and L2 are not context free languages but L3 is a context free language
D. L1 is a subset of L3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and C only
B
A and D only
C
A only
D
A and B only
Question 73 Explanation: 
Explanation: L3 =L1 ∩ L2, will contain a language L3 ={0p1p0p, p>=0}. Hence Statement A is true.
Statement B is TRUE because L1 can be accepted by PDA by pushing 0’s onto the stack and then popping one ‘0’ for every ‘1’ in input and the 0’s after ‘1’ can be ignored and we can reach the final state. L2 can be accepted by PDA because 0’s in input can be ignored, after that we can push all the 1’s onto the stack and then we can pop one ‘1’ for every ‘0’ encountered in input after ‘1’. And in the end after traversing the whole string if the stack is empty then we can reach the final state. Hence L1 and L2 are CFL because we can design a PDA for accepting L1 and L2 L3 is not CFL because we can’t design a PDA for it.
Statement C is false for the same reason explained for statement B.
Statement D is false.
L1 = { 010, 00110,001100,0100,......}
L3 = {010, 001100,....}
L3 is a subset of L1. Hence statement D is false
Question 74
What is the minimum number of states required for the finite automaton equivalent to the transition diagram given below?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 75
A double-ended queue (dequeue) supports adding and removing items from both the ends of the queue. The operations supported by dequeue are AddFront(adding item to front of the queue), AddRear(adding item to the rear of the queue), RemoveFront(removing item from the front of the queue), and RemoveRear(removing item from the rear of the queue). You are given only stacks to implement this data structure. You can implement only push and pop operations. What’s the time complexity of performing AddFront() and AddRear() assuming m is the size of the stack and n is the number of elements?
A
O(1) and O(n)
B
O(m) and O(n)
C
O(n) and O(1)
D
O(n) and O(m)
Question 76
Read the following and answer the questions:
Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB. Frame size and page size are the same for the given machine.
What is the minimum number of bits needed for the physical address?
A
12
B
24
C
28
D
34
Question 76 Explanation: 
Since the Main Memory size = 16GB = 234 B.
Hence 34 bits are needed for the physical address
Question 77
Read the following and answer the questions:
Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB. Frame size and page size are the same for the given machine.
If a process of size 34KB is to be executed on this machine, then what will be the size of internal fragmentation for this process?
A
1KB
B
2KB
C
4KB
D
Zero
Question 77 Explanation: 
Question 78
Read the following and answer the questions:
Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB. Frame size and page size are the same for the given machine.
Find number of pages required for the given virtual address space
A
2^10
B
2^12
C
2^20
D
2^30
Question 78 Explanation: 
Explanation: VAS= 2^32 B
Page Size = 4KB= 2^12 B
Number of Pages = 2^32 B / 2^12 B
= 2^20
Question 79
Read the following and answer the questions:
Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB. Frame size and page size are the same for the given machine.
The number of bits reserved for the frame offset is ______
A
12
B
14
C
32
D
8
Question 79 Explanation: 
Explanation: Frame Size = Page Size = 4KB= 2^12 B
Hence 12 bits are reserved for the frame offset .
Question 80
Read the following and answer the questions:
Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as 4KB. Frame size and page size are the same for the given machine.
What is the size of page table for handling the given virtual address space, given that each page table entry is of size 2 bytes?
A
12KB
B
2KB
C
2MB
D
32MB
Question 80 Explanation: 
Question 81
The characteristics of the combinational circuits are:
A. Output at any time is function of inputs at that time
B. Contains memory elements
C. Do not have feedback paths
D. Clock is used to trigger the circuits to obtain outputs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and B only
B
A and C only
C
B and C only
D
B and D only
Question 81 Explanation: 
Question 82
Arrange the following in the increasing order of complexity.
A. I/O Module
B. I/O processor
C. I/O Channel
D. DMA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
A, B, C, D
B
A, D, C, B
C
C, D, A, B
D
D, C, B, A
Question 83
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Control memory is part of the hardwired control unit.
B. Program control instructions are used to alter the sequential flow of the program.
C. The register indirect addressing mode for accessing memory operand is similar to displacement addressing mode.
D. CPU utilization is not affected by the introduction of Interrupts.
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Question 83 Explanation: 
Statement B: Program control instructions are used to give the address of the next instruction to be executed. Hence Statement B is TRUE.
Statement C:

Hence Statement C is FALSE
Statement D: This statement is false because introduction of interrupts cause interrupt overhead for CPU, which affects CPU utilization.
Question 84
In Ethernet when Manchester coding is used, the bit rate is__________.
A
Half the baud rate
B
Same as the baud rate
C
Thrice the baud rate
D
twice the baud rate
Question 85
Which of the following statements are true?
A. Frequency division multiplexing technique can be handled by digital circuits.
B. Time division multiplexing technique can be handled by analog circuits
C. Wavelength division multiplexing technique is used with optical fiber for combining two signals.
D. Frequency division multiplexing technique can be applied when the bandwidth of a link is greater than the bandwidth of the signals to be transmitted.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and D only
B
B and D only
C
B and D only
D
C and D only
Question 85 Explanation: 
Frequency-Division Multiplexing Frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) is an analog technique that can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted. FDM is an analog multiplexing technique that combines analog signals. It is used in radio and television broadcasting, cellular telephone system.
Wavelength-Division Multiplexing
Question 86
In electronic mail, which of the following protocols allows the transfer of multimedia?
A
IMAP
B
MIME
C
POP3
D
SMTP
Question 86 Explanation: 
Question 30 https://solutionsadda.in/isro-2017-may/
Question 87
The reverse Polish notation of the following infix expression [A*{B+C*(D+E)}] / {F* (G+H)} is__________.
A
ABCDE*++*FGH+*
B
ABCDE+**+FGH+*/
C
ABCDE+*+*FGH*+/
D
ABCDE+*+*FGH+*/
Question 87 Explanation: 
[A*{B+C*(D+E)}] / {F* (G+H)}
====> [A*{B+C*(DE+)}] / {F* (GH+)}
====> [A*{B+CDE+*}] / {FGH+*}

====> [A*{BCDE+*+] / {FGH+*}
====> [ABCDE+*+*] / {FGH+*}
====> ABCDE+*+*FGH+*/
Question 88
Which of the following statements is False?
A
Packet switching can lead to reordering unlike circuit switching.
B
Packet switching leads to better utilization of bandwidth resources than circuit switching.
C
Packet switching results in less variation in the delay than circuit switching.
D
Packet switching sender and receiver can use any bit rate, format or framing method unlike circuit switching.
Question 89
The Octal equivalent of hexadecimal (D.C)16 is:
A
(15.3)8
B
(15.6)8
C
(61.3)8
D
(61.6)8
Question 89 Explanation: 
D equivalent binary number is 1101
C equivalent binary number is 1100
(D.C)16 ===> (1101.1100)2
To convert binary to octal, we need to group three bits.
(1 101.110 0)2 ⇒ It can be written in Octal as 15.6
Question 90
Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
B
A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
C
A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
D
A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
Question 90 Explanation: 
The data link layer uses a sender to have more than one acknowledgment packet at a time, which improves network throughput.
Dialog control, synchronization and token management are some of the functionalities of the session layer in the OSI model
Question 91
The address of class B host is to be split into subnets with 6-bit subnet number. What is the maximum number of the subnets and the maximum number of hosts in each subnet?
A
62 subnets and 1022 hosts
B
62 subnets and 262142 hosts
C
64 subnets and 1024 hosts
D
64 subnets and hosts 262142
Question 92
Given below are two statements
Statement I: CISC computers have a large number of addressing modes.
Statement II: In RISC machines memory access is limited to load and store instructions.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 93
A message is encrypted using public key cryptography to send a message from sender to receiver. Which one of the following statements is True?
A
Receiver decrypts using his own public key
B
Receiver decrypts using sender’s public key
C
Sender encrypts using his own public key
D
Sender encrypts using receiver’s public key
Question 93 Explanation: 
To send encrypted data to someone, you must encrypt the data with that person's public key, and the person receiving the data decrypts it with the corresponding private key.
Question 94
A digital computer has a common bus system for 8 registers 16 bits each. How many multiplexers are required to implement a common bus? What size of multiplexers is required?
A
16, 16x1
B
16, 8x1
C
8, 16x1
D
8, 8x1
Question 94 Explanation: 
Size of multiplexers = number of registers X 1 =8 X1
Number of multiplexes= number of bits in each registers , from the given data, 16 bits are present, So total number of multiplexers are 16
Question 95
Which of the following statements are true?
A. X.25 is connection-oriented network
B. X.25 doesn’t support switched virtual circuits.
C. Frame relay service provides acknowledgements.
D. Frame relay service provides detection of transmission errors.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and D only
B
B and C only
C
B and D only
D
C and D only
Question 95 Explanation: 
X.25 is a connection oriented service. It supports switched virtual circuits as well as the permanent circuits.
Detection of transmission errors using a frame check sequence (FCS) is one of the core functionality of FRAME RELAY
Question 96
Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
B
A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
C
A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
D
A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
Question 96 Explanation: 
A universal gate is a gate which can implement any Boolean function without need to
use any other gate type.The NAND and NOR gates are universal gates.
The 2421, the excess‐3 and the 84-2-1 codes are examples of self‐complementing codes. Such codes have the property that the 9’s complement of a decimal number is obtained directly by changing 1’s to 0’s and 0’s to 1’s (i.e., by complementing each bit in the pattern)
Question 97
Given below are two statements
Statement I:
Telnet, Ftp, Http are application layer protocol
Statement II:
The Iridium project was planned to launch 66 low orbit satellites.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Question 97 Explanation: 
Question 98
The cache coherence problem can be solved
A) by having multiport memory
B) allow only nonshared data to be stored in cache
C) using a snoopy cache controller
D) using memory interleaving
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A and C only
B
B and C only
C
B and D only
D
D and C only
Question 98 Explanation: 
As multiple processors operate in parallel, and independently multiple caches may possess different copies of the same memory block, this creates cache coherence problem.
Snoopy protocols distribute the responsibility for maintaining cache coherence among all of the cache controllers in a multiprocessor system.
By allow only nonshared data to be stored in cache
Question 99
Let G(x) be the generator polynomial used for CRC checking. The condition that should be satisfied by the G(x) to catch all errors consisting of an odd number of inverted bits is:
A
(1-x^2) is factor of G(x)
B
(x+1) is factor of G(x)
C
(x^2+1) is factor of G(x)
D
(x-1) is factor of G(x)
Question 100
Which of the following is not an example of pseudo-instruction?
A
DEC
B
END
C
HLT
D
ORG
Question 100 Explanation: 
DEC instruction is used for decrementing an operand by one
ORG - Set current location counter value
END - Declare end of an assembly
HLT (halt) is an assembly language instruction which halts the central processing unit (CPU) until the next external interrupt is fired.
There are 100 questions to complete.
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