NVS PGT CS 2017 Part-B

Question 1
Which of the following symbol is used to create a link to a named anchor in HTML?
A
&
B
@
C
#
D
$
Question 1 Explanation: 
The syntax for anchor tag is as follows
< a href="# " > and < a name=" " >
Question 2
Observe the HTML code given below and identify the line that will be ignored and not displayed by the browser:
< HTML >
< TITLE > Browser Test < /TITLE >
< BODY >
< I >Test < /I >
< !--testing -- >
< B > Website < /B >
< /BODY >
< /HTML >
A
< TITLE > Browser Test
B
< B > Website < /B >
C
< !--testing -- >
D
< I > Test
Question 2 Explanation: 
< ! --- > is used as comment in html code.
Comments are ignored by browser to display the corresponding content.
Question 3
An element in an XML DTD having no content is known as.
A
unrestricted element
B
Container element
C
Empty element
D
Null element
Question 3 Explanation: 
Empty elements are declared with the category keyword
EMPTY:
&l; !ELEMENT element-name EMPTY >
Example:
< !ELEMENT br EMPTY >
XML example:
< br / >
Question 4
Pick out the invalid element naming rule for an XML element from the following rules :
A
Names can start with a number or punctuation character.
B
Names can contain letters, numbers, hyphens, underscores and periods.
C
Names cannot contain spaces
D
Names must not start with the letters.
Question 4 Explanation: 
XML elements must follow these naming rules:
Element names are case-sensitive
Element names must start with a letter or underscore
Element names cannot start with the letters xml (or XML, or Xml, etc)
Element names can contain letters, digits, hyphens, underscores, and periods
Element names cannot contain spaces
Question 5
Choose the compulsory attribute of the XML declaration statement from the following attributes :
A
Version
B
Encoding
C
Standalone
D
Doctype
Question 5 Explanation: 
An XML declaration is made up of as many as three name/value pairs, syntactically identical to attributes.
The three attributes are a mandatory version attribute and optional encoding and standalone attributes
Question 6
The element content model of a DTD uses the '+' symbol to indicate that the element.
A
Occurs one or multiple times
B
Occurs zero or multiple times
C
Occurs one or not at all
D
Occurs only once
Question 6 Explanation: 
“+” is used to indicate the element occurs one or multiple times
“*” is used to indicate the element occurs one or multiple times
Question 7
Identify which of the following is not a predefined internal entity in XML specification :
A
& apos; (to display the 'symbol)
B
& amp; (to display the & symbol)
C
& nbsp; (to display the 'symbol)
D
& quot; (to display the "symbol)
Question 7 Explanation: 
In XML, & apos; is used to display the symbol(‘).
& amp; (to display the & symbol)
& quot; (to display the "symbol)
& nbsp; (to display the space symbol)
Question 8
IPv6 has _______ bit address.
A
32
B
64
C
128
D
Variable
Question 8 Explanation: 
IPV4 has 32-bit address and IPV6 has 128 bit address.
IPv6 uses a 128-bit address, theoretically allowing 2128, or approximately 3.4×1038 addresses.
Question 9
Identify the incorrect statement about XML parser :
A
A parser is a software program that checks the syntax used in an XML file.
B
A validating passer ensures that the XML document is well formed but not valid.
C
Validating passer checks syntax as well as compares the structure of the XML document .
D
Non-validating parser only checks for structure problems with the XML code.
Question 9 Explanation: 
A parser is a piece of program that takes a physical representation of some data and converts it into an in-memory form for the program as a whole to use. Parsers are used everywhere in software. An XML Parser is a
parser that is designed to read XML and create a way for programs to use XML.
Question 10
In the _____ method, after the station finds the idle, it sends or refrains from sending based on probability.
A
Non-persistent
B
One-persistent
C
P-persistent
D
Non-validating
Question 10 Explanation: 
In p-persistent CSMA protocol, after the station finds the line idle, it sends or refrains from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator.
Question 11
What is the main function of transport layer?
A
Node to node delivery
B
Synchronization
C
Updating and maintenance of routing tables.
D
Process to process message delivery.
Question 11 Explanation: 
The main function of transport layer is to transfer the packet from source to destination ensuring that the packet sent has not been modified/destroyed and lost.
Transport layer is the 4th layer in TCP/IP Model that deals with logical communication between process
Question 12
Shreya is adding links to her school website. She wants that the link colour should change as soon as the visitor's mouse pointer is over the link and then the original colour of the link should be restored when the mouse points anywhere else on the page. which of the following two event handlers will be required for the script to achieve this effect ?
A
onMouseDown and onMouseUp
B
onMouseIn and onMouseOut
C
onMouseOver and onMouseOut
D
onMouseOver and onMouseUp
Question 12 Explanation: 
onmouseout:The event occurs when a user moves the mouse pointer out of an element, or out of one of its children
onmouseover:The event occurs when the pointer is moved onto an element, or onto one of its children
Question 13
Study the following three statements carefully :
Statement 1 : JavaScript support 3 primitive data types - integer, string and Boolean.
Statement 2 : JavaScript support 2 composite data types - arrays and objects.
Statement 3 : JavaScript support 2 special data types - null and undefined.
Choose the option below that is absolutely correct about the above three statements.
A
Only statement 2 and statement 3 are true.
B
Only statement 1 and statement 3 are true.
C
Only statement 1 and statement 3 are true.
D
All the statements are true.
Question 13 Explanation: 
There are six basic data types in JavaScript which can be divided into three main categories: primitive (or primary), composite (or reference), and special data types. String, Number, and Boolean are primitive data types.
Object, Array, and Function (which are all types of objects) are composite data types. Whereas Undefined and Null are special data types.
Question 14
Study the code given below: < HTML > < HEAD > < SCRIPT LANGUAGE = "JavaScript" > function start () { alert ("Event Occured") } < /SCRIPT > < /HEAD > < BODY onLoad = "Start()" > < h1 > Guess the event < /H1 > < /BODY > < /HTML > How many times will the function Start () be called ?
A
Once every time the system starts.
B
Once every time the web page is refreshed.
C
Only once when the window is opened.
D
Will not be called as the event handler is wrong.
Question 14 Explanation: 
onload() event is execute a JavaScript immediately after a page has been loaded
Question 15
Identify the statement that is equivalent to the given statement : document. write ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
A
window.document.write ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
B
body.document.write. ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
C
location .document.write ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
D
document.writeln ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
Question 15 Explanation: 
The document object (of the HTML DOM) is a property of the window object. The statement window.document.write () is equivalent to document.write() statement.
Question 16
Sankjukta created a smiley face in flash and then converted it into a symbol to be stored in the flash library. which of the following statements is false about this graphic symbol named "Smiley" ?
A
Smiley is a stage level object.
B
Smiley is a overlay level object.
C
Many instances of this graphic can be created and used on stage.
D
This object will operate in sync with the timeline of the main movie.
Question 16 Explanation: 
Overlay is nothing but Multiplies or screens the colours, depending on the base colours
Question 17
What will be the output of the following script command ?
document.write (2+5+"8");
A
258
B
Error
C
78
D
7
Question 17 Explanation: 
The “+” operator acts as arithmetic operator along with integers and concatenation operator along with string.
The expression 2+5+"8" gives 78
Question 18
To delete unwanted parts of an image which are not required in the final output, one has to :
A
Blur unwanted parts
B
Change the canvas size to exclude parts
C
Use the crop tools
D
Use the sponge tool
Question 18 Explanation: 
The Crop Tool allows you to remove unwanted parts of an image by drawing a rectangle around the part you want to keep and then rotating it if needed. Outside of the selection is deleted.
Question 19
The part of RAM in a computer to hold the graphics information for one frame consisting of colour values for every pixel on the screen is known as.
A
Pixel buffer
B
Image buffer
C
Frame buffer
D
Video buffer
Question 19 Explanation: 
A framebuffer) is a portion of RAM containing a bitmap that drives a video display.
Picture definition is stored in a memory area called the refresh buffer or frame buffer. This memory area holds the set of intensity values for all the screen points.
Each screen point is referred to as a pixel or pel
Question 20
Identify and frame the photoshop feature that is a set of instructions built into the program to apply special effects to pictures with options such as.
COMEIMAGE
A
Feathering
B
Filters
C
Channels
D
Layers
Question 20 Explanation: 
We can use filters to clean up or retouch your photos, apply special art effects that give your image the appearance of a sketch or impressionistic painting, or create unique transformations using distortions and lighting effects
Question 21
Identify the feature/panel of flash interface which is the lower portion of the interface and has two views : graphical view and list view.
A
Property inspector
B
Tools panel
C
Scene Panel
D
Layers Panel
Question 21 Explanation: 
Question 22
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of star topology compared to other standard topology ?
A
Easy to connect new nodes or devices
B
Require less cable length
C
All nodes are directly connected to the server.
D
Isolation of faulty node is easy.
Question 22 Explanation: 
In a star network, every host is connected to a central hub. In its simplest form, one central hub acts as a conduit to transmit messages
If the central node fails means the entire network will collapse
Question 23
Distribution of flash movies may either be through _________ for viewing on the internet or it may be _______ into another file format.
A
Publishing, Exporting
B
Exporting, Publishing
C
Previewing, Exporting
D
Exporting, Previewing
Question 23 Explanation: 
Flash movies can distributed over the internet by using .swf files.
Export your Flash movie as an .swf file by using File
The Publish command creates an SWF file and an HTML document that inserts your Flash content in a browser window.
The Publish command also creates and copies detection files for Macromedia Flash 4 from Adobe and later
Question 24
Distribution of flash movies may either be through _________ for viewing on the internet or it may be _______ into another file format.
A
Publishing, Exporting
B
Exporting, Publishing
C
Previewing, Exporting
D
Exporting, Previewing
Question 24 Explanation: 
Flash movies can distributed over the internet by using .swf files.
Export your Flash movie as an .swf file by using File
The Publish command creates an SWF file and an HTML document that inserts your Flash content in a browser window.
The Publish command also creates and copies detection files for Macromedia Flash 4 from Adobe and later
Question 25
In this switching technique entire data is sent as a complete unit from the sender Node and delivered to the recipient Node via a number of intermediate Nodes:
A
Message switching
B
Packet switching
C
Circuit switching
D
Data switching
Question 25 Explanation: 
In message switching, the whole message is treated as a data unit. The data is transferred in its entire circuitry via a number of intermediate Nodes
Question 26
Referential integrity controls relationship between
A
Operations in database
B
Instances of a class
C
Tables in database
D
Attributes in a table.
Question 26 Explanation: 
Referential integrity (RI) is a relational database concept, which states that table relationships must always be consistent.
In other words, any foreign key field must agree with the primary key that is referenced by the foreign key.
Thus, any primary key field changes must be applied to all foreign keys, or not at all.
The same restriction also applies to foreign keys in that any updates (but not necessarily deletions) must be propagated to the primary parent key.
Question 27
An electronic device used to connect different types of topologies having same protocol.
A
Repeater
B
Router
C
Bridge
D
Switch
Question 27 Explanation: 
Router will connect various networks of different topology.
A router is a Layer 3 network gateway device, meaning that it connects two or more networks and that the router operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
Question 28
Error detection at data link layer is achieved by.
A
Equalization
B
Bit stuffing
C
Hamming codes
D
Cyclic Redundancy code.
Question 28 Explanation: 
A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is an error-detecting code commonly used in digital networks and storage devices to detect accidental changes to raw data.
Blocks of data entering these systems get a short check value attached, based on the remainder of a polynomial division of their contents
. On retrieval, the calculation is repeated and, in the event the check values do not match, corrective action can be taken against data corruption.
CRCs can be used for error correction.
Question 29
Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial communication link in both directions at the same time ?
A
Simplex
B
Half-duplex
C
Full -duplex
D
Four fire circuit
Question 29 Explanation: 
Full-duplex data transmission means that data can be transmitted in both directions on a signal carrier at the same time.
For example, on a local area network with a technology that has full-duplex transmission, one workstation can be sending data on the line while another workstation is receiving data.
Question 30
A Firewall is
A
Only a software
B
Only a hardware
C
Necessarily both software and hardware
D
A software with or without hardware
Question 30 Explanation: 
Firewall can be both software and hardware. Depending upon your network infrastructure, you can decide which one is best for you.
If you want to secure your individual computer or laptop then software firewall is enough but for an enterprise level network, hardware firewall is required
Question 31
1. It has much greater bandwidth' than other transmission media.
2. It allows for longer transmission distance.
3. It is immune to electromagnetic interference.
4. It is much thinner and lighter than the other cable media.
All of the above characteristics are attached to
A
Optical fiber
B
Twisted pair cable
C
Coaxial cable
D
CAT 5/CAT 6 cable
Question 31 Explanation: 
All characteristics belongs to fiber optic cable.
Question 32
Binary Equivalent of (BAD)16 is
A
1111 1010 1101
B
1011 1010 1101
C
1011 1010 1111
D
1011 1110 1101
Question 32 Explanation: 
The binary value of “A” is 1010
The binary value of “B” is 1011
The binary value of “D” is 1101
Question 33
Which of the following is used to execute CPU instruction ?
A
Personal Computer
B
Program Counter
C
Protection Check
D
Parameter Combination
Question 33 Explanation: 
A program counter is a register in a computer processor that contains the address (location) of the instruction being executed at the current time
Question 34
Which of the following bus of a computer system is responsible for carrying information?
A
Databus
B
Address bus
C
Logical bus
D
Control bus
Question 34 Explanation: 
A data bus is a system within a computer or device, consisting of a connector or set of wires, that provides transportation for data.
Question 35
This is a smaller, faster memory which stores copies of the data from frequently used main memory locations.
A
Main memory
B
Cache memory
C
Semiconductor based memory
D
DRAM
Question 35 Explanation: 
A cache is a hardware or software component that stores data so that future requests for that data can be served faster; the data stored in a cache might be the result of an earlier computation or a copy of data stored elsewhere
Question 36
In computers, this is the processing of program instructions by dividing them among multiple processors with the objective of running a program in less time
A
Multiprogramming
B
Parallel processing
C
Time sharing
D
Batch processing
Question 36 Explanation: 
Parallel computing is the simultaneous use of multiple compute resources to solve a computational problem
Question 37
A binary search tree whose,left subtree and right subtree differ in height by at most one is called.
A
Strictly binary tree
B
Red-black tree
C
AVL tree
D
Complete binary tree
Question 37 Explanation: 
An AVL tree (named after inventors Adelson-Velsky and Landis) is a self-balancing binary search tree. It was the first such data structure to be invented.
In an AVL tree, the heights of the two child subtrees of any node differ by at most one; if at any time they differ by more than one, rebalancing is done to restore this property.
Question 38
Which cycle refers to the process where one instruction is fetched and executed?
A
Fetch cycle
B
Instruction cycle
C
Decode cycle
D
Execute cycle
Question 38 Explanation: 
CPUs the instruction cycle is executed sequentially, each instruction being processed before the next one is started
Question 39
This system software provides an interface to a hardware device, enabling the operating system to access that hardware.
A
Control Panel
B
Device Drive
C
Program installer
D
None of the above
Question 39 Explanation: 
A device driver is a computer program that operates or controls a particular type of device that is attached to a computer.
A driver provides a software interface to hardware devices, enabling operating systems and other computer programs to access hardware functions without needing to know the precise details about the hardware being used.
Question 40
Following is an example of an Operating System developed in India.
A
BeOS
B
BOSS
C
Haiku
D
OpenBSD
Question 40 Explanation: 
Bharat Operating System Solutions (BOSS GNU/Linux) is an Indian Linux distribution derived from Debian.
BOSS Linux is officially released in four editions: BOSS Desktop (for personal use, home and office), EduBOSS (for schools and education community), BOSS Advanced Server and BOSS MOOL.
Question 41
Following is an example of an Operating System developed in India.
A
BeOS
B
BOSS
C
Haiku
D
OpenBSD
Question 41 Explanation: 
Bharat Operating System Solutions (BOSS GNU/Linux) is an Indian Linux distribution derived from Debian.
BOSS Linux is officially released in four editions: BOSS Desktop (for personal use, home and office), EduBOSS (for schools and education community), BOSS Advanced Server and BOSS MOOL.
Question 42
Which of the following is NOT an example of scheduling algorithms ?
A
First Come First Serve [FCFS] scheduling
B
Shortest Job First [SJF] Scheduling
C
Priority Scheduling
D
Random
Question 42 Explanation: 
There is no scheduling algorithm “random” .
Along the options (1),(2) and (3) ,there is another algorithm named round robin scheduling algorithm.
Question 43
Which of the following is non-linear data structure.
A
Stack
B
Queue
C
String
D
Tree
Question 43 Explanation: 
Except “tree””, all remaining are the examples of linear data structures.
Non-linear data structure does not arrange the data consecutively rather it is arranged in sorted order.
In this, the data elements can be attached to more than one element exhibiting the hierarchical relationship which involves the relationship between the child, parent, and grandparent.
Question 44
Which data structure is used in breadth-first search of a graph to store nodes ?
A
Array
B
Stack
C
Queue
D
Tree
Question 44 Explanation: 
Queue is in breadth-first search of a graph to store nodes Use a queue to store the node and mark it as 'visited' until all its neighbours (vertices that are directly connected to it) are marked.
The queue follows the First In First Out (FIFO) queuing method, and therefore, the neighbours of the node will be visited in the order in which they were inserted in the node i.e. the node that was inserted first will be visited first, and so on.
Question 45
A thread in Operating System is a
A
Task
B
Program
C
Process
D
Light weight process
Question 45 Explanation: 
A thread of execution is the smallest sequence of programmed instructions that can be managed independently by a scheduler, which is typically a part of the operating system.
Question 46
A
XY' + X
B
X'Y + XY'
C
XY + XY'
D
XY + X'Y'
Question 46 Explanation: 
XNOR gate is a digital logic gate whose function is the logical complement of the exclusive OR (XOR) gate.
A high output (1) results if both of the inputs to the gate are the same. If one but not both inputs are high (1), a low output (0) results.
Question 47
A
XOR
B
NOR
C
XNOR
D
NAND
Question 47 Explanation: 
XOR gate ( EX-OR and pronounced as Exclusive OR) is a digital logic gate that gives a true (1 or HIGH) output when the number of true inputs is odd.
An XOR gate implements an exclusive or; that is, a true output results if one, and only one, of the inputs to the gate is true.
If both inputs are false (0/LOW) or both are true, a false output results
The diagram gives Boolean expression X.Y+ X'Y
Question 48
Which Boolean law is represented below?
P+QR=(P+Q)(P+R)
A
De Morgan's law
B
Associative law
C
Commutative law
D
Distributive law
Question 48 Explanation: 
Distributive Law – This law permits the multiplying or factoring out of an expression.
A(B + C) = A.B + A.C (OR Distributive Law)
A + (B.C) = (A + B).(A + C) (AND Distributive Law)
Question 49
Given two sorted lists of size m and n respectively. The number of comparisons needed in the worst case by the merge algorithm will be.
A
min (m, n)
B
max (m, n)
C
m+n-1
D
mn
Question 49 Explanation: 
→ To merge two lists of size m and n, we need to do m+n-1 comparisons in the worst case. Since we need to merge 2 at a time, the optimal strategy would be to take the smallest size lists first. → The reason for picking smallest two items is to carry minimum items for repetition in merging.
Question 50
Out Of the following, which cannot be used as an identifier in C++ ?
A
Name2
B
Total
C
class
D
Derived
Question 50 Explanation: 
“Class” is the keyword in c++.
We can’t use keywords as identifier names.
Question 51
The operator used to access member functions of a class from its object is
A
*
B
::
C
:
D
'
Question 51 Explanation: 
Scope resolution(::) operator is used to access the member functions outside the class in c++.
Question 52
In this programming methodology, common functionalities are grouped together into separate independent units. The whole program is divided into several units which interact through procedure calls.
A
Random Programming
B
Modular Programming
C
.NET Programming
D
Object Oriented Programming
Question 52 Explanation: 
Complex program is divided into several modules.
Each module meant for a specific functionality.
Question 53
The following is a computing industry standard for the consistent encoding, representation and handling of text.
A
EBCDIC
B
Unicode
C
ASCII
D
QRcode
Question 53 Explanation: 
Unicode is a computing industry standard for the consistent encoding, representation, and handling of text expressed in most of the world's writing systems.
Question 54
The following is the correct interpretation of Hierarchical Inheritance
A
one base class with one derived class
B
more than one generation of classes
C
one base class with more than one derived classes
D
more than one base classes with one derived class
Question 54 Explanation: 
If more than one class is inherited from the base class, it's known as hierarchical inheritance. In hierarchical inheritance, all the features that are common in child classes are included in the base class.
Question 55
The postfix expression for * + ab - cd is
A
abed+-*
B
ab +-cd *
C
ab +cd *-
D
ab +cd-*
Question 55 Explanation: 
The given expression is “* + ab - cd”
The infix expression of given expression is (a+b)*(c-d)
The post fix expression is ab+cd-*
Question 56
Which of the following is the default visibility mode while defining a class in C++ ?
A
private
B
personal
C
protected
D
public
Question 56 Explanation: 
The default visibility mode of members of class in c++ is private.
Question 57
Select the correct output of the following code :
char *s = "AMAZING"
s+=3;
cout<< s < < endl;
A
DMAZING
B
D
C
ZING
D
Z
Question 57 Explanation: 
The pointer will point to the start of the string.
s=s+3 which means that the pointer will point to the third index value.
So, it will print “ZING”
Question 58
A complete binary tree with leaf nodes can have ______.nodes of degree 2.
A
log2n
B
n-1
C
n
D
2n
Question 58 Explanation: 
A complete binary tree with three nodes (out of two are child nodes) has one node has degree of 2.
Question 59
Only the process executing the critical section is allowed to access die shared variable and all other processes should be prevented from doing so until the completion of the critical section This is known as
A
Interprocess communication
B
Semaphore
C
Deadlock
D
Mutual exclusion
Question 59 Explanation: 
A semaphore is a variable or abstract data type used to control access to a common resource by multiple processes in a concurrent system such as a multitasking operating system.
A semaphore is simply a variable. This variable is used to solve critical section problems and to achieve process synchronization in the multi processing environment.
Question 60
We can also call a table in a relational database.
A
Record
B
Attribute
C
Tuple
D
Relation
Question 60 Explanation: 
A relational database is a collection of data items organized as logically related tables.
Record/tuple means row in a table
Attribute means column in a table.
Question 61
Find the output of the following : C++ code: int *P, A[ ]=(20, 90, 70, 10}; P=A; A[2]+=10; P+=2; cout < < *P < < endl;
A
70
B
80
C
90
D
10
Question 61 Explanation: 
P=A; // P will point to the starting address of the array.
A[2]+=10; => A[2]=A[2]+10=70+10=80
P+=2;=> P=P+2 // Here “P” will point to the third element of the array which value is “80”
Question 62
A table has more than one attributes each of which identify a tuple uniquely. All such keys are known as :
A
Primary keys
B
Alternate keys
C
Candidate keys
D
Foreign keys
Question 62 Explanation: 
A table may have more than one such attribute/group of identifies that identifies a tuple uniquely, all such attributes(s) are known as Candidate Keys.
Out of Candidate keys, one is selected as Primary key, and others become Alternate Keys.
Question 63
Belady's anomaly occurs in_______ page replacement algorithm.
A
LRU
B
Optimal
C
Circular FIFO
D
FIFO
Question 63 Explanation: 
Belady’s anomaly is the phenomenon in which increasing the number of page frames results in an increase in the number of page faults for certain memory access patterns.
This phenomenon is commonly experienced when using the first-in first-out (FIFO) page replacement algorithm.
In FIFO, the page fault may or may not increase as the page frames increase, but in Optimal and stack-based algorithms like LRU, as the page frames increase the page fault decreases
Question 64
Which of the following cannot be used as a front-end software along with a database ?
A
Visual basic
B
Visual C++
C
Power Builder
D
MS PowerPoint
Question 64 Explanation: 
Microsoft PowerPoint is a presentation program. PowerPoint was originally designed to provide visuals for group presentations within business organizations, but has come to be very widely used in many other communication situations, both in business and beyond.
Question 65
DROP TABLE statement
A
deletes only the structure of the table.
B
deletes all constraints in a table
C
deletes data of table
D
deletes data as well as structure of table.
Question 65 Explanation: 
The DROP TABLE statement is used to drop an existing table in a database.
The SQL DROP TABLE statement is used to remove a table definition and all the data, indexes, triggers, constraints and permission specifications for that table.
Syntax :DROP TABLE table_name;
Question 66
Based on table CLUB, which of the following SQL query will display earliest and latest DOJ under each TYPE?
A
SELECT MIN(DOJ), MAX(DOJ) FROM CLUB;
B
SELECT MIN(DOJ), MAX(DOJ) FROM CLUB GROUP BY TYPE;
C
SELECT MIN(DOJ), MAX(DOJ),TYPE FROM CLUB GROUP BY TYPE;
D
SELECT MIN(DOJ), MAX(DOJ), TYPE GROUP BY TYPE FROM CLUB;
Question 66 Explanation: 
The GROUP BY statement group rows that have the same values into summary rows.
The GROUP BY statement is often used with aggregate functions (COUNT, MAX, MIN, SUM, AVG) to group the result-set by one or more columns.
Question 67

Based on table CLUB, find out the most appropriate SQL statement from the following to display the total amount of FEE collected from monthly members till date :
A
SELECT SUM(MONTIIS_BETWEEN(SYSDATE, DOJ) * FEE)
FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "MONTHLY'
B
SELECT SUM(MONTH_BETWEEN (DOI,SYSDATE) * FEE)
FROM CLUB ;WHERE TYPE= "MONTHLY"
C
SELECT SUM(MONTH_BETWEEN (DOJ, SYSDATE) * FEE)
FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= ''MONTHLY"
D
SELECT MONTHS_BETWEEN(SYSDATE, DOJ) • FEE
FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "MONTHLY''
Question 67 Explanation: 
We need to calculate the amount from DOJ to system date in monthly wise.
Question 68

Based on table CLUB, which of the following SQL statement will delete the information of those members, who are either ANNUAL members or those who are having DOJ on or after "01-JAN-2010".
A
DELETE FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "ANNUAL" AND DOJ > = "01-JAN-10";
B
DELETE FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "ANNUAL" OR DOJ > "01-JAN-10";
C
DELETE * FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "ANNUAL" OR DOJ > "01-JAN-10";
D
DELETE FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "ANNUAL" OR DOJ > = "01-JAN-10";
Question 68 Explanation: 
The DELETE statement is used to delete existing records in a table.
DELETE Syntax:
DELETE FROM table_name WHERE condition;
Question 69

Based on table "CLUB", which SQL query will help us to know the number of "MONTHLY" members, who joined the club after "01-JAN-07"
A
SELECT*, COUNT () FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE = "MONTHLY'' AND DOJ > = "01-JAN-07'';
B
SELECT FROM CLUB COUNT (*) WHERE TYPE = "MONTHLY" AND DOJ "01-JAN-07";
C
SELECT COUNT (*) FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE = "MONTHLY" OR DOJ = "01- JAN-07";
D
SELECT COUNT (*) FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE = "MONTHLY" AND DOJ > "01-JAN-07";
Question 69 Explanation: 
The SQL COUNT() function returns the number of rows in a table satisfying the criteria specified in the WHERE clause. It sets the number of rows or non NULL column values.
COUNT() returns 0 if there were no matching rows.
Question 70
Which of the following is not a valid value of the SCROLLING attribute of the <FRAME > tag ?
A
yes
B
No
C
Auto
D
None
Question 70 Explanation: 
The syntax of frame tag:
< frame scrolling="auto|yes|no" >
Attribute Values
Question 71
Which is not the state of the process in OS?
A
vileged
B
Running
C
Ready
D
Blocked
Question 71 Explanation: 
New- The process is being created.
Ready- The process is waiting to be assigned to a processor.
Running- Instructions are being executed.
Waiting- The process is waiting for some event to occur(such as an I/O completion or reception of a signal).
Terminated- The process has completed its execution.
Question 72
Which of the following is mandatory attribute of < IMG > tag and < EMBED > tag ?
A
Border
B
HEIGHT
C
WIDTH
D
SRC
Question 72 Explanation: 
< img src= “ “ > The src attribute is required, and contains the path to the image you want to embed < embed src= “ “ >
Specifies the URL of an application to be embedded.
Question 73
ROWSPAN attribute cannot be used with which of the following tag ?
A
< TR *gt;
B
< TD >
C
< TH >
D
< TABLE >
E
A and D
Question 73 Explanation: 
ROWSPAN attribute is used for both < td > and < tr > tags.
There are 73 questions to complete.
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