Higher-Education-and-Politics

Question 1

The major barriers for access to higher education in India are:

    (a) more opportunities of employment for less educated
    (b) government policies
    (c) language of instruction
    (d) economic status
    (e) competition from foreign universities
    (f) gender discrimination in society

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A
(a), (b) and (c)
B
(b), (c) and (e)
C
(c), (d) and (f)
D
(d), (e) and (f)
Question 2

Rashtriya Uchhatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) aims to achieve the following in Higher Education System:

    (a) Equity
    (b) Access
    (c) 50% GER
    (d) Excellence

Choose the correct option from those given below:

A
(a), (b) and (c)
B
(a), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (b) and (d)
D
(b), (c) and (d)
Question 3

According to GATS (General Agreement on Trade and Services), higher education should be a commodity in the

A
domestic public sector
B
domestic private sector
C
non-trading section
D
global marketplace
Question 4

Which of the following statements is true in the Indian context?

A
Autonomous colleges can grant degrees independent of universities
B
Autonomous colleges can grant only bachelor’s degree independent of universities
C
Except doctoral degrees, all other degrees and diplomas can be granted by autonomous colleges
D
Whatever may be the degree or diploma,autonomous college can grant them under their own name but under the seal of an affiliated university
Question 5

The themes of some Sustainable Development Goals are

    (a) Climate action
    (b) Sustainable cities and communities
    (c) Peace, justice and strong institutions
    (d) Skill development and decent employment
    (e) Green agriculture
    (f) Responsible consumption and production

Choose the most appropriate from those given below:

A
(a), (b), (c), (e) and (f)
B
(b), (c), (e) and (f)
C
(b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (f)
Question 6
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Equality of educational opportunities is a pre-condition for achieving equity in education.
Statement II: Equity in education can be achieved without equality of educational opportunities.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
D
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Question 7
Which of the following come under the mandate of the University Grants Commision (UGC)?
A) Promotion and coordination of University education
B) Determining and monitoring standards of teaching, examination and research in Universities.
C) Organizing continuous professional development programmes for college and University teachers
D) Framing regulations on minimum standards of education
E) Disturbing and regulating grants to the universitisits and college
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A), (B), (C), (D) only
B
(B), (C), (D), (E) only
C
(A), (C), (D), (E) only
D
(A), (B), (D), (E) only
Question 8
What are the advantages of Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) introduced by the UGC for higher education institutions?
A) Focuses on student-centric education
B) Allows students to choose inter-disciplinary and interdisciplinary courses
C) Makes education at par with global standards
D) Makes it easy to estimate the performance levels of students in terms of marks
E) Offers flexibility for students to undertake studies at different times and at different institutions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A), (B), (C), (D) only
B
(B), (C), (D), (E) only
C
(A), (B), (C), (E) only
D
(C), (D), (E), (A) only
Question 9
Which of the following are the advantages of lecture-cum-demonstration method?
A. Clear and Permanent Knowledge
B. Helping the task of the teacher
C. Helpful in mental development
D. Economical method
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
B and D only
B
A, C and D only
C
A, B, C and D
D
B and C only
Question 10
An individual's culture is affected due to
A
Public order
B
Public space
C
Private interests
D
Effective interactions
Question 11
The policy of privatization of higher education began during:
A
The first five year plan
B
The third five year plan
C
The sixth five year plan
D
The eighth five year plan
Question 12
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was associated with the efforts in establishing:
A
Milind College
B
Aurangabad college
C
maha Bodhi college
D
Nagpur college
Question 13
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Constitution allows both central government and state governments to enact laws for the higher education system in India.
Statement II: More than 75% of colleges in the field of higher education are in private sector (government aided and unaided).
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Question 14
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
Statement II: Deemed Universities can design their own syllabus and course work but cannot grant degrees.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Question 15
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) was established in 1956 in order to ensure planned and coordinated development of technical education in India
Statement II: Technical Education was defined as programmes of education in engineering, technology, architecture, town planning, management, pharmacy and applied arts and crafts.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
C
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
D
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Question 16
India’s first Defence University is in the State of
A
Haryana
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Punjab
Question 17
Most of the Universities in India
A
conduct teaching and research only
B
affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
C
conduct teaching/research and examinations
D
promote research only
Question 18
Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A
Election Commission
B
Finance Commission
C
Union Public Service Commission
D
Planning Commission
Question 19
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A
Indian Parliament is supreme.
B
The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
C
There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
D
There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Question 20
Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?
A
Written Constitution
B
No State religion
C
Devolution of power to local Government institutions
D
Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Question 21
Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?
A
Chief Minister of a State
B
A member of the State Public Service Commission
C
Advocate-General
D
Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Question 22
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are formally known as
A
Transforming Our World: 2030 Agenda
B
Sustainable Living For All: 2022 Agenda
C
Life Of Dignity For All: 2022 Agenda
D
One Planet, One People: 2030 Agenda
Question 23
The mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC) includes
(i) Disbursing grants to Universities and colleges
(ii) Recognising and monitoring technical institutions
(iii) Funding research centres in Universities
(iv) Managing various scholarship programmes
A
(i), (ii) and (iv)
B
(i), (iii) and (iv)
C
(i), (ii) and (iii)
D
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 24
Which one of the following States is going to have India’s first National Rail and Transportation University?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Maharashtra
C
Bihar
D
Gujarat
Question 25
The Citizen’s Charter is an instrument which seeks to make an organisation
(i) Transparent
(ii) Accountable
(iii) Formal
(iv) Accessible
A
(i) and (iii)
B
(i), (ii) and (iii)
C
(i), (ii) and (iv)
D
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 26
The Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election, if
A
he/she himself/herself is a candidate
B
he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister
C
he/she has a criminal case pending against him/her
D
he/she is a nominated member of the State Legislative Assembly
Question 27
In the QS World Rankings (2018), which of the following Indian Universities is/are among the top 500 Universities?
(i) University of Delhi
(ii) University of Hyderabad
(iii) Banaras Hindu University
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru University
A
(i) only
B
(i), (ii) and (iv)
C
(i), (ii) and (iii)
D
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 28
Assertion (A): Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.
Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural resources.
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true and (R) is false.
D
(A) is false and (R) is true.
Question 29
Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A
(a) and (d)
B
(a), (c) and (d)
C
(b), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 30
Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.
A
(a), (b) and (c)
B
(b), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 31
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
A
(a) and (d)
B
(b) and (c)
C
(b), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 31 Explanation: 
Question 32
Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President's Rule in a State?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
A
(a) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (c)
C
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
D
(b) and (c)
Question 32 Explanation: 
Question 33
Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour?
(a) Governor of a State
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court
(d) Administrator of a Union Territory Select the correct answer from the codes given below
A
(a) only
B
(c) only
C
(a) and (c)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 33 Explanation: 
Question 34
Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
A
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (c)
C
(a), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b) and (d)
Question 35
The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
A
(b), (c) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (c)
C
(a), (b) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 36
Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
A
(a) and (c)
B
(a), b) and (c)
C
(a), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 37
Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
A
The Union List
B
The State List
C
The Concurrent List
D
The Residuary Powers
Question 38
The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
A
4 years
B
5 years
C
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D
not fixed
Question 39
Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
A
Maharashtra
B
Rajasthan
C
Tamil Nadu
D
West Bengal
Question 40
Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
A
2022
B
2030
C
2040
D
2050
Question 41
Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.
A
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
B
(b), (c) and (d)
C
(b) and (c)
D
(c) only
Question 42
Which of the following are the fundamental duties?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
A
(a), (b) and (c)
B
(a), (b) and (d)
C
(a), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 43
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
A
(a) and (d)
B
(b) and (d)
C
(c) and (d)
D
(b), (c) and (d)
Question 44
Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among students and teachers.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
A
(b), (c) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (c)
C
(a), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 45
The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
A
The Supreme Court of India
B
The High Court
C
The High Court and the Supreme Court both
D
The President of India
Question 46
Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true and (R) is false
D
(A) is false and (R) is true
Question 47
The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing, autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
A
(a), (b) and (d)
B
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (b) and (c)
D
(b), (c) and (d)
Question 48
The session of the parliament is summoned by:
A
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
B
The President
C
The Prime Minister
D
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Question 49
Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:
A
7th July
B
21st April
C
24th April
D
21st June
Question 50
The South Asia University is situated in the city of:
A
Kathmandu
B
Colombo
C
Dhaka
D
New Delhi
There are 50 questions to complete.

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