Question 1

A D flip-flop is to be connected to an 8085 microprocessor chip as a 1-bit output port with a port address of FF hex. Data bit D3 should be involved in the data transfer from CPU to the flip-flop. The flip-flop should be cleared on power ON.
(a) Using only one NAND gate (fan in of 10), one NOT gate and one D flip-flop. Draw the required interface logic circuit (only the relevant signals should be shown).
(b) Write a program to generate a square wave on the output of the flip-flop. ON and OFF periods of the square wave should be 7 bus cycles each.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 2

Let L = {a1, a2, ......, an} n ≥ 0 be a list whose Pascal representation is

                  type list = record
                     next: ↑ list; val: integer end  

The following function returns a list in which a2i and a2i-1, 1 ≤ i ≤ [n/2] are interchanged. Complete the function by filling the boxes. Write the line number and the content of the box in your answer sheet.

1. function change (p: ↑ list): ↑ list;
2. var q.t: ↑ list;
3. begin 
4. if p = nil then change := p
5. else if p ↑ next = nil then change : ▭
6. else begin
7. q : p ↑ next;
8. ▭ := q;
9. t : q ↑ next;
10. ▭ := p;
11. ▭ := change(t)
12. end
13. end 
A
Theory Explanation.
Question 3

Consider a graph whose vertices are points in the plane with integer co-ordinates (x,y) such that 1≤x≤n and 1≤y≤n, where n≥2 is an integer. Two vertices (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) are adjacent iff ∣x1−x2∣ ≤ 1 and ∣y1–y2∣ ≤1. The weight of an edge {(x1,y1),(x2,y2)} is √(x1–x2)2 + (y1–y2)2
(a) What is the weight of a minimum weight-spanning tree in this graph? Write only the answer without any explanations.
(b) What is the weight of a maximum weight-spanning tree in this graph? Write only the answer without any explanations.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 4

Consider the following program in Pseudo-Pascal syntax.

program what:
      var z: integer
       procedure recur(x):
       begin if x <= 40 then
                  begin x:x+z
                     recur(x);
                     z:=x+10
                  end
       end(*recur*)
   begin(*what*)
       z=10;
       recur(z);
       writeln(z)
   end 

(a) Suppose the parameter to the procedure ‘recur’ is passed by value.
i. What value is printed by program?
ii. How many times is ‘recur’ called?
(b) What value is printed by the program if the parameter is passed by reference?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 5

Consider the grammar

   S → bSe
   S → PQR
   P → bPc
   P → ε
   Q → cQd
   Q → ε
   R → dRe
   R → ε  

where S,P,Q,R are non-terminal symbols with S being the start symbol; b,c,d,e are terminal symbols and ‘ε’ is the empty string. This grammar generates strings of the form bi, cj, dk, em for some i,j,k,m ≥ 0.
(a) What is the condition on the values of i,j,k,m?
(b) Find the smallest string that has two parse trees.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 6

Consider a hash table with n buckets, where external (overflow) chaining is used to resolve collisions. The hash function is such that the probability that a key value is hashed to a particular bucket is 1/n. The hash table is initially empty and K distinct values are inserted in the table.

(a) What is the probability that bucket number 1 is empty after the Kth insertion?
(b) What is the probability that no collision has occurred in any of the K insertions?
(c) What is the probability that the first collision occurs at the Kth insertions?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 7

Let F be the set of one-to-one functions from the set {1,2,…,n} to the set {1,2,…,m}, where m≥n≥1.
(a) How many functions are members of F?
(b) How many functions f in F satisfy the property f(i) = 1 for some i, 1≤i≤n?
(c) How many functions f in F satisfy the property f(i) < f(j) for all 1≤i≤j≤n?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 8

Let R be a reflexive and transitive relation on a set A. Define a new relation E on A as

 E = {(a,b) ∣ (a,b)∈R and (b,a)∈R} 

(a) Prove that E is an equivalence relation on A.
(b) Define a reason ≤ on the equivalence classes of E as E1 ≤ E2 if ∃a,b such that a∈E1, b∈E2 and (a,b)∈R. Prove that ≤ is a partial order.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 9

Consider the following function.

Function F (n, m: integer): integer;
begin
       If (n <= 0) or (m <= 0) then F:=1
       else
            F:= F(n-1, m) + F(n, m-1);
       end;

Use the recurrence relation to answer the following question. Assume that n, m are positive integers. Write only the answers without any explanation.
(a) What is the value of F(n,2)?
(b) What is the value of (n,m)?
(c) How many recursive calls are made to the function F, including the original call, when evaluating F(n,m).

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 10

A size-balanced binary tree is a binary tree in which for every node, the difference between the number of nodes in the left and right subtree is at most 1. The distance of a node from the root is the length of the path from the root to the node. The height of a binary tree is the maximum distance of a leaf node from the root.
(a) Prove, by using induction on h, that a size-balance binary tree of height h contains at least 2h nodes.
(b) In a size-balanced binary tree of height h≤1, how many nodes are at distance h−1 from the root? Write only the answer without any explanations.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 11

An array A contains n≥1 positive integers in the locations A[1], A[2],... A[n]. The following program fragment prints the length of a shortest sequence of consecutive elements of A, A[i], A[i+1],...A[j] such that the sum of their values is ≥M, a given positive number. It prints ‘n+1’ if no such sequence exists. Complete the program by filling in the boxes. In each case use the simplest possible expression. Write only the line number and the contents of the box.

1. begin
2. i: +1; j:=1;
3. Sum := ▭;
4. min: n; finish:=false;
5. While not finish do
6. If ▭ then
7. if j=n then finish:=true.
8.     else
9. begin
10.    j:=j+1;
11.    sum:=▭
12.        end
13. else
14. begin
15.        If(j-1) < min then min:=j-1;
16.        sum:=sum - A[i];
17.        i:=i+1;
18. end
19. writeln (min+1);
20. end.   
A
Theory Explanation.
Question 12

Consider the following piece of 'C' code fragment that removes duplicates from an ordered list of integers.

Node  *remove-duplicates(Node *head, int *j)
{
    Node *t1, *t2;
    *j=0;
    t1 = head;
    if (t1! = NULL) t2 = t1 →next;
    else return head;
    *j = 1;
    if(t2 == NULL) return head;
    while t2 != NULL)
    {
        if (t1.val != t2.val) --------------------------→ (S1)
        {
            (*j)++; t1 → next = t2; t1 = t2: ----------→ (S2)
        }
        t2 = t2 → next;
    }
    t1 → next = NULL;
    return head;
} 

Assume the list contains n elements (n≥2) in the following questions.
(a) How many times is the comparison in statement S1 made?
(b) What is the minimum and the maximum number of times statements marked S2 get executed?
(c) What is the significance of the value in the integer pointed to by j when the function completes?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 13

A B+ - tree of order d is a tree in which each internal node has between d and 2d key values. An internal node with M key values has M+1 children. The root (if it is an internal node) has between 1 and 2d key values. The distance of a node from the root is the length of the path from the root to the node. All leaves are at the same distance from the root. The height of the tree is the distance of a leaf from the root.
(a) What is the total number of key values in the internal nodes of a B+ - tree with l leaves (l≥2)?
(b) What is the maximum number of internal nodes in a B+ - tree of order 4 with 52 leaves?
(c) What is the minimum number of leaves in a B+ - tree of order d and height h(h≥1)?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 14

Construct a finite state machine with minimum number of states, accepting all strings over {a,b} such that the number of a's is divisible by two and the number of b's is divisible by three.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 15

Given that L is a language accepted by a finite state machine, show that LP and LR are also accepted by some finite state machines, where
LP = {s|ss' ∈ L, for some string s'}
LR = {s|s obtainable by reversing some string in L}

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 16

A language L is a subset of Pascal with the following constructs:

    (a) Expressions involving the operators '+' and '<' only
    (b) Assignment statements
    (c) 'while' statements and
    (d) Compound statements with the syntax 'begin...end'
    Give an unambiguous grammar for L.
A
Theory Explanation.
Question 17

The language L, defined by the following grammar allows use of real or integer data in expressions and assignment statements.

    (assign-stmt):: = (LHS):= (E)
             (E) :: = (E) + (T)|(T)
             (T) :: = (T) * (V)|(V)
             (V) :: = id|((E))
           (LHS) :: = id 

It is required to convert expression and assignment strings of L into postfix strings that use the type-specific operators (+, i), (+, r), (*, i), (*, r), (:=, i) and (:=,r).
Write a syntax directed translation scheme to convert expression and assignment strings into the post-fix form. You may assume that the name and type of a variable can be obtained by making the function calls 'give-type (id)' and 'give-name (id)' respectively.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 18

Consider the following program fragment in Pascal:

   Program Main;
      var X : integer;
      procedure A:
         var Y : integer;
         procedure B:
            var Z : integer;
            procedure C:
               var Z : integer;
               begin(* Procedure C *)
               :
               end(* Procedure C *)
 begin(*Procedure B*)
    :
  C; (* call to C *)
  A; (* call to A *)
    :
 end(*Procedure B*)
     begin(* Procedure A *)
        :
        B; (* call to B *)
        :
     end(* Procedure A *)
  begin (* Main *)
        :
        A; (* call to A *)
        :
  end(* Main *) 

Assume that there are no calls to any procedures other than the ones indicated above. It is known that at some point of time during the execution of this program five activation records exist on the run-time stack. Describe the run-time stack at this point of time by clearly indicating the following: the top of the stack, the contents of the static link and dynamic link, and allocation of the local variables in each record.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 19

Following is a state table for some finite state machine.

(a) Find the equivalence partition on the states of the machine.
(b) Give the state table for the minimal machine. (Use appropriate names for the equivalent states. For example if states X and Y are equivalent then use XY as the name for the equivalent state in the minimal machine.)

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 20

Let f = (w'+y)(x'+y)(w+x'+z)(w'+z)(x'+z)
(a) Express f as the minimal sum of products. Write only the answer.
(b) If the output line is stuck at 0, for how many input combinations will the value of f be incorrect?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 21

Following floating point number format is given
f is a fraction represented by a 6-bit mantissa (includes sign bit) in sign magnitude form e is a 4-bit exponent (includes sign hit) in sign magnitude form n = (f,e) = f, 2e is a floating point number.
Let A = 54.75 in decimal and
B = 9.75 in decimal.

(a) Represent A and B as floating point numbers in the above format.
(b) Show the steps involved in floating point addition of A and B.
(c) What is the percentage error (upto one position beyond decimal point) in the addition operation in (b)?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 22

A concurrent system consists of 3 processes using a shared resource R in a non-preemptible and mutually exclusive manner. The processes have unique priorities in the range 1.....3, 3 being the highest priority. It is required to synchronize the processes such that the resource is always allocated to the highest priority requester. The pseudo code for the system is as follows.

Shared Data 
mutex:semaphore = 1:/* initialized to 1*/
process[3]:semaphore = 0; /*all initialized to 0 */
R_requested [3]:boolean = false; /*all initialized to false */
busy: boolean = false; /*initialized to false */
Code for processes
begin process
my-priority:integer;
my-priority:=____; /*in the range 1...3*/
repeat
    request_R(my-priority);
    P (proceed [my-priority]);
    {use shared resource R}
    release_R (my-priority);
forever
end process;
Procedures
procedure request_R(priority);
P(mutex);
if busy = true then
    R_requested [priority]:=true;
else
 begin
    V(proceed [priority]);
    busy:=true;
 end
V(mutex); 

Give the pseudo code for the procedure release_R.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 23

A program P reads and processes 1000 consecutive records from a sequential file F stored on device D without using any file system facilities. Given the following

   Size of each record = 3200 bytes
   Access time of D = 10 msecs
   Data transfer rate of D = 800 × 103 bytes/second
   CPU time to process each record = 3 msecs 

What is the elapsed time of P if
(a) F contains unblocked records and P does not use buffering?
(b) F contains unblocked records and P uses one buffer (i.e., it always reads ahead into the buffer)?
(c) records of F are organized using a blocking factor of 2 (i.e., each block on D contains two records of F) and P uses one buffer?

You may assume that the CPU time needed to transfer a record from a buffer to a local variable of P is negligible.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 24

An operating system handles requests to resources as follows.

A process (which asks for some resources, uses them for some time and then exits the system) is assigned a unique timestamp are when it starts. The timestamps are monotonically increasing with time. Let us denote the timestamp of a process P by TS(P).

When a process P requests for a resource the OS does the following:
(i) If no other process is currently holding the resource, the OS awards the resource to P.
(ii) If some process Q with TS(Q) < TS(P) is holding the resource, the OS makes P wait for the resources.
(iii) If some process Q with TS(Q) > TS(P) is holding the resource, the OS restarts Q and awards the resources to P.
(Restarting means taking back the resources held by a process, killing it and starting it again with the same timestamp)

When a process releases a resource, the process with the smallest timestamp (if any) amongst those waiting for the resource is awarded the resource.
(a) Can a deadlock ever arise? If yes, show how. If not, prove it.
(b) Can a process P ever starve? If yes, show how. If not, prove it.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 25

Consider the following relational database schema:

     EMP (eno name, age)
     PROJ (pno name)
     INVOLVED (eno, pno) 

EMP contains information about employees. PROJ about projects and INVOLVED about which employees involved in which projects. The underlined attributes are the primary keys for the respective relations.

(a) What is the relational algebra expression containing one or more of {σ,π,x,u,−} which is equivalent to SQL query.

select eno
from EMP, INVOLVED 
where EMP.eno=INVOLVED.eno  
and INVOLVED.pno=3 

(b) State in English (in not more than 15 words).

What the following relational algebra expressions are designed to determine
(i) πeno(INVOLVED) − πeno((πeno(INVOLVED) X πpno(PROJ))−INVOLVED)
(ii) πage(EMP) − πEageE(EMP) x EMP))

(Note: ρE(EMP) conceptually makes a copy of EMP and names it K (ρ is called the rename operator))

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 26

not in 2NF
B
in 2NF but not 3NF
C
in 3NF but not in 2NF
D
in both 2NF and 3NF
Question 26 Explanation: 
Since R1 ∩ R2 = ∅, so the decomposition is lossless join. Now since all the attributes are keys, so R1 ∩ R2 will be a key of the decomposed relation.
And since every attribute is key so the decomposed relation will be in BCNF and hence in 3NF.
Question 27

not in 2NF
B
in 2NF but not 3NF
C
in 3NF but not in 2NF
D
in both 2NF and 3NF
Question 27 Explanation: 
Since R1 ∩ R2 = ∅, so the decomposition is lossless join.
Now since all the attributes are keys, so R1 ∩ R2 will be a key of the decomposed relation.
And since every attribute is key so the decomposed relation will be in BCNF and hence in 3NF.
Question 28

Let A be a sequence of 8 distinct integers sorted in ascending order. How many distinct pairs of sequences, B and C are there such that (i) each is sorted in ascending order, (ii) B has 5 and C has 3 elements, and (iii) the result of merging B and C gives A?

A
2
B
30
C
56
D
256
Question 28 Explanation: 
A can have sequence of 8 distinct integers which are sorted in ascending order.
→ If we are pick 3 elements from 8 sequence integers then remaining 5 elements are already in ascending order. After merging these elements then it gives A.
→ No. of possibilities of choosing 8 elements from total of 8 = 8C3
= 8!/3!5!
= 8 * 7
= 56
Question 29

Let G = (V, E) be an undirected graph with a subgraph G1 = (V1, E1). Weights are assigned to edges of G as follows:

A single-source shortest path algorithm is executed on the weighted graph (V,E,w) with an arbitrary vertex ν1 of V1 as the source. Which of the following can always be inferred from the path costs computed?

A
The number of edges in the shortest paths from v1 to all vertices of G
B
G1 is connected
C
V1 forms a clique in G
D
G1 is a tree
Question 29 Explanation: 
Calculate the minimum weight of the graph by using single source shortest path, if the weight of the graph is 0 then G is Connected, then that is the shortest path. In case the weight of the graph is not 0 then the graph G is disconnected.
Question 30

The root directory of a disk should be placed

A
at a fixed address in main memory
B
at a fixed location on the disk
C
anywhere on the disk
D
at a fixed location on the system disk
E
anywhere on the system disk
Question 30 Explanation: 
Root directory can points to the various user directories. Then they will be stored in a way that user can't be easily modify them. Then they should be at fixed location on the disk.
Question 31

Given the following algorithm for sorting an array X of N numbers:

SUBROUTINE SORT(X,N)
   IF(N < 2)
       RETURN
   FOR(i=2 TO N INCREMENT BY 1)
     FOR(j=1 TO i INCREMENT BY 1) 
        IF (X[i] > X[j])
             CONTINUE
        TEMP X[i]
        X[i] = X[j]
        X[j] = TEMP
        END FOR
     END FOR
   END SUBROUTINE 

A good approximation of Halstead's estimated program length is

A
20
B
50
C
80
D
110
Question 32

Find if the following statements in the context of software testing are TRUE or FALSE.
(S1) Statement coverage cannot guarantee execution of loops in a program under test.
(S2) Use of independent path testing criterion guarantees execution of each loop in a program under test more than once.

A
True, True
B
True, False
C
False, True
D
False, False
Question 32 Explanation: 
Note: Out of syllabus.
Question 33

Which of the following requirement specifications can be validated?

    (S1) If the system fails during any operation, there should not be any loss of data
    (S2) The system must provide reasonable performance even under maximum load conditions
    (S3) The software executable must be deployable under MS Windows 95, 2000 and XP
    (S4) User interface windows must fit on a standard monitor's screen
A
S4 and S3
B
S4 and S2
C
S3 and S1
D
S2 and S1
Question 33 Explanation: 
Note: Out of syllabus.
Question 34

For merging two sorted lists of sizes m and n into a sorted list of size m+n, we required comparisons of

A
O(m)
B
O(n)
C
O(m+n)
D
O(logm+logn)
Question 34 Explanation: 
In best case, no. of comparisons is Min(m,n).
In worst case, no. of comparisons is m+n-1.
Then we require O(m+n) comparisons to merging two sorted lists.
Question 35

A binary tree T has n leaf nodes. The number of nodes of degree 2 in T is:

A
log2 n
B
n - 1
C
n
D
2n
Question 35 Explanation: 
A binary tree is a tree data structure in which each node has atmost two child nodes.
The no. of subtrees of a node is called the degree of the node. In a binary tree, all nodes have degree 0, 1 and 2.
The degree of a tree is the maximum degree of a node in the tree. A binary tree is of degree 2.
The number of nodes of degree 2 in T is "n - 1".
Question 36

In the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm, the size of the congestion window

A
does not increase
B
increases linearly
C
increases quadratically
D
increases exponentially
Question 36 Explanation: 
In slow start phase, window size will grow exponentially, when the threshold is reached and congestion avoidance phase begins. In congestion avoidance phase, the window is increased linearly.
Question 37

P only
B
P and R only
C
R only
D
P, Q and S only
Question 37 Explanation: 
P) True. Because every edge in cycle graph will become a vertex in new graph L(G) and every vertex of cycle graph will become an edge in new graph.
R) False. We can give counter example. Let G has 5 vertices and 9 edges which is planar graph. Assume degree of one vertex is 2 and of all others are 4. Now, L(G) has 9 vertices (because G has 9 edges) and 25 edges. But for a graph to be planar,
|E| ≤ 3|v| - 6
For 9 vertices |E| ≤ 3 × 9 - 6
⇒ |E| ≤ 27 - 6
⇒ |E| ≤ 21. But L(G) has 25 edges and so is not planar.
As (R) is false, option (B) & (C) are eliminated.
Question 38

Which one of the following is NOT logically equivalent to ¬∃x(∀y(α) ∧ ∀z(β))?

A
∀x(∃z(¬β)→∀y(α))
B
∀x(∀z(β)→∃y(¬α))
C
∀x(∀y(α)→∃z(¬β))
D
∀x(∃y(¬α)→∃z(¬β))
Question 38 Explanation: 
Option A:
∀x(∃z(¬β) → ∀y(α))
⇒ ∀x(¬∃z(¬β) ∨ ∀y(α))
⇒ ∀x(∀z(β)∨y(α))
⇒ ¬∃x¬(∀z(β)∨∀y(α))
⇒ ¬∃x(¬∀z(β)∧¬∀y(α))
A is Not equivalent to the given.
Option B:
∀x(∀z(β)→∃y(¬α))
⇒ ∀x(¬∀z(β)∨∃y(¬α))
⇒ ¬∃x¬(¬∀z(β)∨∃y(¬α))
⇒ ¬∃x(∀z(β)∨∀y(α))
B is Matching and equivalent to given.
Option C:
∀x(∀y(α)→∃z(¬β))
⇒ ∀x(¬∀y(α)∨∃z(¬β))
⇒ ¬∃x¬(¬∀y(α)∨∃z(¬β))
⇒ ¬∃x(∀y(α)∧z(β))
C is equivalent to the given.
Option D:
∀x(∃y(¬α)→∃z(¬β))
⇒ ∀x(¬∃y(¬α)∨∃z(β))
⇒ ∀x(∀y(α)∨∃z(β))
⇒ ¬∃x¬(∀y(α)∨∃z(β))
⇒ ¬∃x(¬∀y(α)∧¬∃z(β))
⇒ ¬∃x(¬∀y(α)∧∀z(¬β))
So D is Not equivalent to the given.
Question 39
An upper-layer packet is split into 10 frames, each of which has an 80 percent chance of arriving undamaged. If no error control is done by the data link protocol, how many times must the message be sent on average to get the entire thing through (in transmissions)?
A
18.6
B
27.9
C
9.3
D
None of the above
Question 39 Explanation: 
Total frames=10
Each frame has a chance of 80% undamage which is 0.8 of getting through, the chance of the whole message getting through is (0.8)10, which is about 0.107. Call this value p.
The expected number of transmissions for an entire message is then

Now use a = 1-p to get E = 1/p. Thus, it takes an average of 1/0.107, or about 9.3 transmissions.
Question 40
Consider building a CSMA/CD network running at 1Gbps over a 1-km cable with no repeaters. The signal speed in the cable is 200,000 km/sec. What is the minimum frame size?
A
10000 bytes
B
100000 bits
C
1250 bits
D
None of the above
Question 40 Explanation: 
Question 41
If two communicating stations X and Y are linked through two intermediate routers, r1 and r2; then determine the number of times each packet visits Network Layer (NL) and Data Link Layer (DLL) for single transmission from X to Y.
A
NL - 4, DLL - 4
B
NL - 4, DLL - 3
C
NL - 4, DLL - 6
D
NL - 2, DLL - 6
Question 41 Explanation: 
Each router will contain two DLL since it has two interfaces and one network layer. Each host or station will contain one network layer and one data link layer. So the total no. of data link layer will be 2(from stations) + 4(from routers) = 6. No. of network layers will be 2(from stations) + 2(from routers) = 4.
Question 42
To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the address must be consulted is
A
port
B
physical
C
IP
D
None
Question 42 Explanation: 
IP address takes you to the correct host but not to the process in the host. And each host might contain many processes. So the address required to deliver a message to the application program or process within a host is the port address.
Question 43
Manchester encoding is principally designed to
A
ensure that the line remains unbalanced
B
have more than one symbol per bit period
C
increase the bandwidth of a signal transmitted on the medium
D
ensure that a transition occurs in the center of each bit period
Question 43 Explanation: 
In Manchester encoding a logic 0 is indicated by a 0 to 1 transition at the centre of the bit and logic 1 by 1 to 0 transition.
Question 44
The concept of pipelining is most effective in improving performance if the tasks being performed in different stages:
A
require different amount of time
B
require about the same amount of time
C
require different amount of time with time difference between any two tasks being same
D
require different amount with time difference between any two tasks being different
Question 44 Explanation: 
Case 1:
Consider 4 stages in pipeline P1, P2, P3, P4, with each stage requires 1ns.
For large no. of instructions the time taken by pipeline to execute one task is 1ns.

But for non pipeline the time taken to execute one task is,

Case 2:
Now let’s consider 4 stages pipeline P1, P2, P3, P4, with each stage requiring 1ns, 2ns, 3ns, 4ns.

For large no. of instruction the time taken by pipeline to execute one task is max(1, 2, 3, 4)ns = 4ns
But for non pipeline the time taken to execute one task is,
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10ns

Hence from above it can be clearly seen that the concept of pipelining is most effective in improving performance if the tasks being performed in different stages require about the same amount of time.
Question 45
Given that (292)10 = (1204)x in some number system x. The base x of that number system is
A
2
B
8
C
10
D
None of the above
Question 45 Explanation: 
Question 46
Which of the following is not functionally a complete set?
A
AND, OR
B
NOR
C
NAND
D
AND, OR, NOT
Question 46 Explanation: 
Functionally complete sets are NOR,NAND,(OR,NOT),(AND,NOT).
Hence Option (a) set in not functionally complete.
Question 47
Assume that for a certain processor, a read request takes 50 nanoseconds on a cache miss and 5 nanoseconds on a cache hit. Suppose while running a program, it was observed that 70% of the processor’s read requests result in a cache hit. The average read access time in nanoseconds is
A
10
B
12
C
13
D
18.5
Question 47 Explanation: 
ARAT = Hit rate × cache hit time + miss rate × cache miss time
= 0.7 × 5ns + 0.3 × 50ns
= 3.5ns + 15ns
= 18.5 ns
Question 48

The number of min-terms after minimizing the following Boolean expression is

[D’ + AB’ + A’C + AC’D + A’C’D]’
A
1
B
46
C
56
D
76
Question 48 Explanation: 
(D’ + AB’ + A’C + AC’D + A’C’D)’
(D’ + A’C’D + AB’ + A’C + AC’D)’
((D’ + D) (D’ + A’C’) + AB’ + A’C + AC’D)’
(D’ + A’C’ + AB’ + A’C + AC’D)’
(D’ + AC’D + AB’ + A’(C + C’))’
(D’ + AC’ + AB’ + A’)
(D’ + AC’ + (B’ + A’) (A + A’)
(D’ + AC’ + B’ + A’)
(D’ + (A + A’) (C’ + A’) + B’)’
(D’ + C’ + A’ + B’)’ = ABCD
Question 49

The speed up of a pipeline processing over an equivalent non-pipeline processing is defined by the ratio:

where n→no. of tasks, Tn→time of completion of each task, k→no. of segments of pipeline, Tp→clock cycle time, S→speed up ratio.
A
S = n Tn/ (k + n - 1) Tp
B
S = n Tn/ (k + n + 1) Tp
C
S = n Tn/ (k - n + 1) Tp
D
S = (k + n - 1) Tp/ n Tn
Question 49 Explanation: 
Consider a ‘k’ segment pipeline with clock cycle time as ‘Tp’. Let there be ‘n’ tasks to be completed in the pipelined processor. Now, the first instruction is going to take ‘k’ cycles to come out of the pipeline but the other ‘n – 1’ instructions will take only ‘1’ cycle each, i.e, a total of ‘n – 1’ cycles. So, time taken to execute ‘n’ instructions in a pipelined processor:
ET pipeline = k + n – 1 cycles
= (k + n – 1) Tp
In the same case, for a non-pipelined processor, execution time of ‘n’ instructions will be:
ETnon-pipeline = n * k * Tp
but in question k * Tp = Tn
Hence ETnon-pipeline = n * Tn
So, speedup (S) of the pipelined processor over non-pipelined processor, when ‘n’ tasks are executed on the same processor is:
S = Performance of pipelined processor /
Performance of Non-pipelined processor
As the performance of a processor is inversely proportional to the execution time, we have,
S = ETnon-pipeline / ETpipeline
=> S = [n *Tn] / [(k + n – 1) * Tp]

Question 50
Consider a system running ten I/O - bound tasks and one CPU - bound task. Assume that the I/O - bound tasks issue an I/O operation once for every millisecond of CPU computing and that each I/O operation takes 10 milliseconds to complete. Also assume that the context switching overhead is 0.1 millisecond and that all processes are long-running tasks. The CPU utilization for a round-robin scheduler when the time quantum is millisecond?
A
78%
B
91%
C
98%
D
80%
Question 50 Explanation: 
The time quantum is 1 millisecond: Irrespective of which process is scheduled, the scheduler incurs a 0.1 millisecond context-switching cost for every context-switch. This results in a CPU utilization of 1/1.1 * 100 = 91%.
Question 51
Assume we have a demand-paged memory. The page table is held in registers. It takes 8 milliseconds to service a page fault if an empty page is available or the replaced page is not modified, and 20 milliseconds if the replaced page is modified. Memory access time is 100 nanoseconds. Assume that the page to be replaced is modified 70 percent of the time. What is the maximum acceptable page-fault rate for an effective access time of no more than 200 nanoseconds?
A
0.0006
B
0.00006
C
0.006
D
None of the above
Question 51 Explanation: 
Let p be the page fault rate (the probability that a memory access results in a page fault).
Then (1 − p) is the probability that a memory access costs 100 nsec.
The probability that a page fault costs 20 msec is 0.7 ∗ p and the probability that a page fault costs 8 msec is 0.3 ∗ p.
Since 1 nsec = 1000000 msec, (1 − p) ∗ 100 + 0.7 ∗ p ∗ 20000000 + 0.3 ∗ p ∗ 8000000 = 200 (14000000 + 2400000 − 100)p = 100 p = 100/(16400100) = 6.1 ∗ 10^−6 = .0000061 = .00061%
Question 52

Which of the following scheduling algorithms could result in starvation?

i) First-come, first-served

ii) Shortest job first

iii) Round robin

iv) Priority
A
ii and iv
B
i and iii
C
iv only
D
None of the above
Question 52 Explanation: 
In Shortest job first the job with longest burst time may starve if the process with low burst time keeps coming.
In priority scheduling algorithm the job with lowest priority may starve if the process with highest priority keeps coming.
FCFS and round robin scheduling algorithm will never cause starvation.
Question 53
Overlay is
A
A part of an operating system
B
A specific memory location
C
A single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large program by swapping
D
Overloading the system with many user files
Question 53 Explanation: 
In a general computing sense, overlaying means "the process of transferring a block of program code or other data into main memory, replacing what is already stored". Overlaying is a programming method that allows programs to be larger than the computer's main memory.
Question 54
In which of the following directory systems, it is possible to have multiple complete paths for a file, starting from the root directory?
A
Single level directory
B
Two level directory
C
Tree structured directory
D
Acyclic graph directory
Question 54 Explanation: 
In acyclic graph directory we can provide sharing by making the directory an acyclic graph. In this system, two or more directory entry can point to the same file or sub directory. That file or sub directory is shared between the two directory entries.
Question 55
A transparent DBMS
A
Cannot hide sensitive information from users
B
Keep its logical structure hidden from users
C
Keeps its physical structure hidden from users
D
Both (b) and (c)
Question 55 Explanation: 
A transparent DBMS keeps its physical structure hidden from users.
Question 56
A locked file can be
A
Accessed by only one user
B
Modified by users with the correct password
C
Is used to hide sensitive information
D
Both (b) and (c)
Question 56 Explanation: 
A locked file can be accessed by only one user at any specific time otherwise there would be race condition.
Question 57
Let F = {D→AC, A→DB, B→E, E→D} that hold on the attribute set {A, B, C, D, E}, then the highest normal form that hold is
A
BCNF
B
3NF
C
2NF
D
None of the above
Question 57 Explanation: 
The candidate keys for given functional dependencies are A,B,D,E.
So for the given functional dependencies left side of each functional dependencies is super key which satisfies the condition of BCNF. Hence the given relation is in BCNF.
Question 58

Which of the following statements are correct about an array?

1. The array int num[26]; can store 26 elements.

2. The expression num[1] designates the very first element in the array.

3. It is necessary to initialize the array at the time of declaration

4. The declaration num[SIZE] is allowed if SIZE is a macro.
A
1
B
2,4
C
2,3
D
1,4
Question 58 Explanation: 
Statement 1 is true.
Statement 2 is false because the expression num[0] designates the very first element in the array.
Statement 3 is false ,it is not necessary to initialize the array at the time of initialization.
Statement 4 is true, because the declaration num[SIZE] is allowed if SIZE is a macro. This statement is true, because the MACRO just replaces the symbol SIZE with given value.
Question 59

What is the output of the following statements?

int i=3;

printf(“%d%d”, i,i++);
A
34
B
43
C
44
D
33
Question 59 Explanation: 
In printf() function we calculate from right to left and then printing is done from left to right. So first i++ will be calculated but since ++ is post operator here so first i=3 value will be accepted and then value of i will be incremented by 1 .So next time simply i is there which now have value 4 so i=4 will be accepted and the output will be 43.
Question 60

The following program fragment

int a=4, b=6;

print (“%d”, a==b);
A
outputs an error message
B
prints 0
C
prints 1
D
none of the above
Question 60 Explanation: 
“==” is a binary operator which either gives value either 1 or 0 depending on whether it is true or false. Since the value of variable ‘a’ and ‘b’ are different so the == operator will be false and the output will be 0.
Question 61

Consider the following program

float myFunc(float *array, int size)

{

float x=0;

if (size!=0)

X = *array + myFunc(array+1, size-1);

return x;

}



void main ( )

{

float array [5] = {0, 0.5, 1.0, 1.5, 2};

printf (“%f\n”, myFunc(array,5));

}



What is the output of the program and how many times that the function “myFunc” is called?
A
3 and 6
B
5 and 5
C
5 and 6
D
None of the above
Question 61 Explanation: 

Hence the output will be 5 and no. of times the myFunc() function is called is 6.
Question 62
How many RAM chips of size (256K × 1 bit) are required to build 1M byte memory?
A
8
B
10
C
32
D
24
Question 62 Explanation: 
Question 63
Property of locality of reference may fail if a program has
A
Many conditional jumps
B
Many unconditional jumps
C
Many operands
D
All of these
Question 63 Explanation: 
A R locality of reference, also known as the principle of locality,is the tendency of a processor to access the same set of memory locations repetitively over a short period of time.
Question 64
The strategy by which algorithms are expressed in terms of general ideas, each of which can be further developed in general terms is called:
A
Top-Down design
B
Pseudo-coding
C
Software engineering
D
Bottom-Up design
Question 64 Explanation: 
Pseudocode is basically just writing down the logic of your solution to a specific coding challenge using plain English. So we can say that the strategy by which algorithms are expressed in terms of general ideas, each of which can be further developed in general terms is called Pseudo-coding
Question 65

What is the output of the following arithmetic expression?

5+3*2%10-8*6
A
-37
B
-42
C
-32
D
-28
Question 65 Explanation: 
The multiplication, modulus and division are evaluated first in left-to-right order (i.e., they associate from left to right) because they have higher precedence than addition and subtraction. And then addition and subtraction is evaluated in left to right order.
Hence the answer will be 5+3*2%10-8*6
=5+6%10-8*6
=5+6-8*6
=5+6-48
=5-42
=-37
Question 66
What is the expected number of operations needed to examine all the edges terminated at a particular vertex given an adjacency matrix representation of the graph? (assume n vertices are in the graph and m edges terminate at the desired node.)
A
O(m)
B
O(n)
C
O(m2)
D
O(n2)
Question 66 Explanation: 
Given graph with n vertices is represented in adjacency matrix representation so the expected operations are O(n2)
Question 67
Which of the following circuits can be used as parallel to a serial converter?
A
Multiplexer
B
Demultiplexer
C
Decoder
D
Digital counter
Question 67 Explanation: 
A combinational circuit that selects one from many inputs is known as Multiplexer. In multiplexer, different inputs are inserted parallely and then it gives one output which is in serial form.
Question 68
The preorder traversal sequence of a binary search tree is 30, 20, 10, 15, 25, 23, 39, 35, 42. Which one of the following is the post order traversal sequence of the same tree?
A
10, 20, 15, 23, 25, 35, 42, 39, 30
B
15, 10, 25, 23, 20, 42, 35, 39, 30
C
15, 20, 10, 23, 25, 42, 35, 39, 30
D
15, 10, 23, 25, 20, 35, 42, 39, 30
Question 68 Explanation: 
The given preorder traversal sequence of a binary search tree is 30, 20, 10, 15, 25, 23, 39, 35, 42.
Now let’s draw BST from given preorder sequence,
Question 69
The minimum number of nodes in a binary tree of depth d (root is at level 0) is
A
2d - 1
B
2d + 1 - 1
C
d + 1
D
d
Question 69 Explanation: 
The minimum no. of nodes in a binary tree will be present when the tree is completely skewed tree. Since root is at depth 0 so minimum no. of nodes in a binary tree of depth d will be d+1.
Question 70
The number of possible parenthesizations of a sequence of n matrices is
A
(n)
B
Ө(n lg n)
C
Ω(2^n)
D
None of the above
Question 70 Explanation: 

Question 71
Given a hash table T with 25 slots that stores 2000 elements, the load factor for T is
A
80
B
50
C
40
D
30
Question 71 Explanation: 
The load factor is no. of elements divided by no. of slots in the hash table. Hence the value of load factor will be 2000/25 = 80
Question 72

Consider the following array of elements.

〈89, 19, 50, 17, 12, 15, 2, 5, 7, 11, 6, 9, 100〉

The minimum number of interchanges needed to convert it into a max-heap is
A
4
B
5
C
2
D
3
Question 72 Explanation: 
The given sequence is
89, 19, 50, 17, 12, 15, 2, 5, 7, 11, 6, 9, 100




Question 73
Consider a complete binary tree where the left and right subtrees of the root are max-heaps. The lower bound for the number of operations to convert it into a heap is
A
Ω(log n)
B
Ω(n)
C
Ω(n log n)
D
Ω(n2)
Question 73 Explanation: 
Here we can apply the max heapify() function which takes O(logn) time. So the most appropriate answer is option a.
Question 74
Consider two decision problems Q1, Q2 such that Q1 reduces in polynomial time to 3-SAT and 3-SAT reduces in polynomial time to Q2. Which one of the following is consistent with the above statement?
A
Q1 is in NP, Q2 is NP hard
B
Q2 is in NP, Q1 is NP hard
C
Both Q1 and Q2 are in NP
D
Both Q1 and Q2 are NP hard
Question 74 Explanation: 
3-SAT ⇒ NPC problem
Q1≤p 3-SAT≤p Q2 ≤p ≤p hence → Q1 is in NP
but Q2 is not given in NP
Hence Q2 is in NP-Hard.
Question 75

Assume that the algorithms considered here sort the input sequences in ascending order. If the input is already in ascending order, which of the following are TRUE?

I. Quick sort runs in ⊝(n2) time

II. Bubble sort runs in ⊝(n2) time

III. Merge sort runs in ⊝(n) time

IV. Insertion sort runs in ⊝(n) time
A
I and II only
B
I and III only
C
II and IV only
D
I and IV only
Question 75 Explanation: 
When the input sequence is already in sorted order then
Quicksort runs in worst case complexity of ⊝(n2) time
Bubble sort runs in best case complexity of ⊝(n) time
Merge sort always have same complexity of ⊝(nlogn) both in best case and worst case
Insertion sort runs in best case complexity of ⊝(n) time
Hence statement I and IV are correct.
Question 76
The minimum number of nodes in an AVL tree (height balanced binary tree) of height 9 is
A
54
B
64
C
87
D
None of these
Question 76 Explanation: 
AVL tree is a self-balancing Binary Search Tree (BST) where the difference between heights of left and right subtrees cannot be more than one for all nodes.
Let minimum no. of nodes in an AVL tree with height h be N(h).
So recursively we can write that ,
N(h) = root node + minimum no of nodes in AVL tree with height (h-1) + minimum no. of nodes in AVL tree with height (h-2).
N(h) = 1+N(h-1)+N(h-2)
For base case N(1)=2 and N(2) = 4
So lets now find N(9),
N(3)= 1+ N(2)+N(1)= 1+2+4=7
N(4) = 1+N(3)+N(2)=1+7+4=12
N(5)= 1+N(4)+N(3)= 1+12+7=20
N(6)=1+N(5)+N(4)= 1+20+12= 33
N(7)=N(6)+N(5)+1= 1+33+20=54
N(8)=1+N(7)+N(6)= 1+54+33=88
N(9) = 1 + N(8)+N(7) = 1+88+54=143
Question 77
Every context-free grammar (CFG) can be converted into an equivalent
A
Greibach Normal Form (GNF)
B
Chomsky Normal Form (CNF)
C
(a) and (b) both
D
None of these
Question 78
The cardinality of the power set of {0, 1, 2, 10, 15} is
A
8
B
10
C
32
D
14
Question 78 Explanation: 
Since the set contains 5 elements so the power set will contain 2^5 = 32 elements.
Question 79
Let R be a relation on the set of positive integers such that aRb if and only if a and b are distinct and have a common divisor other than 1. Which of the following statements about R is true?
A
R is symmetric and reflexive but not transitive
B
R is reflexive but not symmetric and not transitive
C
R is transitive but not reflexive and not symmetric
D
R is symmetric but not reflexive and not transitive
Question 79 Explanation: 
R cannot be reflexive since in aRb and and b are distinct.
R cannot be transitive. Let's take an example. Suppose R contains (2,4) and (4,2) then for transitivity to satisfy R must also contain (2,2) which cannot be present in R since in aRb ‘a’ and ‘b’ must be different.
R is symmetric because if (2,4) have common divisors other than 1 then (4,2) also have common divisors other than 1.

Question 80
The Floyd-Warshall algorithm for all-pair shortest paths computation is based on
A
Greedy paradigm
B
Divide-and-Conquer paradigm
C
Dynamic Programming paradigm
D
Neither Greedy nor Divide-and-Conquer nor Dynamic Programming paradigm
Question 80 Explanation: 
The Floyd-Warshall algorithm for all-pair shortest paths computation is based on Dynamic Programming paradigm.
Question 81
Let X be a random variable with PDF given by

The value of constant c is
A
1.5
B
2.5
C
3.5
D
4.5
Question 81 Explanation: 


Question 82
For a Poisson Distribution, if mean(m) = 1, then P(1) is
A
1.5
B
e
C
2/e
D
1/e
Question 82 Explanation: 
Question 83
On a positive edge-triggered S-R flip-flop, the outputs reflect the input condition when
A
The clock pulse is LOW
B
The clock pulse is HIGH
C
The clock pulse transitions from LOW to HIGH
D
The clock pulse transitions from HIGH to LOW
Question 83 Explanation: 
On a positive edge-triggered S-R flip-flop, the outputs reflect the input condition when the clock pulse transitions from LOW to HIGH.
On a negative edge-triggered S-R flip-flop, the outputs reflect the input condition when the clock pulse transitions from HIGH to LOW.
On a positive level-triggered S-R flip-flop, the outputs reflect the input condition when the clock pulse is HIGH.
On a negative level-triggered S-R flip-flop, the outputs reflect the input condition when the clock pulse is LOW.
Question 84
Research ethics do not include
A
Honesty
B
Subjectivity
C
Integrity
D
Objectivity
Question 84 Explanation: 
Research ethics provides guidelines for the responsible conduct of research. In addition, it educates and monitors scientists conducting research to ensure a high ethical standard. The following is a general summary of some ethical principles: Honesty:Honestly report data, results, methods and procedures, and publication status. Do not fabricate, falsify, or misrepresent data.
Objectivity:Strive to avoid bias in experimental design, data analysis, data interpretation, peer review, personnel decisions, grant writing, expert testimony, and other aspects of research.
Integrity:Keep your promises and agreements; act with sincerity; strive for consistency of thought and action.
Carefulness:Avoid careless errors and negligence; carefully and critically examine your own work and the work of your peers. Keep good records of research activities.
Openness:Share data, results, ideas, tools, resources. Be open to criticism and new ideas.
Respect for Intellectual Property:Honor patents, copyrights, and other forms of intellectual property. Do not use unpublished data, methods, or results without permission. Give credit where credit is due. Never plagiarize.
Confidentiality:Protect confidential communications, such as papers or grants submitted for publication, personnel records, trade or military secrets, and patient records.
Responsible Publication:Publish in order to advance research and scholarship, not to advance just your own career. Avoid wasteful and duplicative publication.
Responsible Mentoring:Help to educate, mentor, and advise students. Promote their welfare and allow them to make their own decisions.
Respect for Colleagues:Respect your colleagues and treat them fairly.
Social Responsibility:Strive to promote social good and prevent or mitigate social harms through research, public education, and advocacy.
Non-Discrimination:Avoid discrimination against colleagues or students on the basis of sex, race, ethnicity, or other factors that are not related to their scientific competence and integrity.
Competence:Maintain and improve your own professional competence and expertise through lifelong education and learning; take steps to promote competence in science as a whole.
Legality:Know and obey relevant laws and institutional and governmental policies.
Animal Care:Show proper respect and care for animals when using them in research. Do not conduct unnecessary or poorly designed animal experiments.
Human Subjects Protection:When conducting research on human subjects, minimize harms and risks and maximize benefits; respect human dignity, privacy, and autonomy.
Ref:
https://libguides.library.cityu.edu.hk/researchmethods/ethics
Question 85
In the experimental design, the dependent variable is
A
The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed
B
The one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other
C
A measure of the extent to which personal values affect research
D
An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined
Question 86
Research objectives falls into a number of categories that include
A
planning to get answers for what, why & where type of questions
B
formulate, concept, and planning for research methods
C
exploratory, descriptive, diagnostic and experimentation research
D
considering the logic behind the methods we use in the context of the research
Question 87
If a study is “reliable”, this means that
A
It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted
B
The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions
C
The findings can be generalized to other social settings
D
The methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated
Question 88
What is a research design?
A
A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
B
A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
C
The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph
D
A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data
Question 89
Which of the following statements is true for TCP protocol?
A
TCP is a connection-less unreliable protocol. [Option ID = 11080]
B
TCP is a connection-less reliable protocol. [Option ID = 11079]
C
TCP is a connection-oriented reliable protocol. [Option ID = 11077]
D
TCP is a connection-oriented unreliable protocol. [Option ID = 11078]
Question 89 Explanation: 
TCP is a connection-oriented reliable protocol. [Option ID = 11077]
Question 90
The file space allocation of Unix Operating System is [Question ID = 2773] 
A
Linked [Option ID = 11090]
B
Single level indexed [Option ID = 11091]
C
Multi-level Indexed [Option ID = 11092]
D
Contiguous [Option ID = 11089]
Question 90 Explanation: 
Multi-level Indexed [Option ID = 11092]
Question 91
The worst-case time complexity of searching an element out of n elements is [Question ID = 2754]
A
θ(n) for complete binary tree and BST while θ(log n) for AVL tree
B
θ(n log n) for complete binary tree, θ(n) for BST and θ(log n) for AVL.
C
θ(n) for complete binary tree while θ(log n) for BST and AVL tree.
D
θ(log n) for complete binary tree, BST and AVL tree
Question 91 Explanation: 
θ(n) for complete binary tree and BST while θ(log n) for AVL tree
Question 92
This examination paper has 100 multiple-choice questions of one mark each, with each question having four choices only one of which is correct. Each incorrect answer fetches -0.25 mark. Suppose you choose all your answers randomly with uniform probability. Then the expected mark you obtain is [Question ID = 2759]
A
6.25 [Option ID = 11036]
B
0 [Option ID = 11033]
C
37.5 [Option ID = 11035]
D
17.5 [Option ID = 11034]
Question 92 Explanation: 
6.25 [Option ID = 11036]
Question 93
Suppose we are given pointers to first  and last nodes of a singly linked list containing n elements (where each node contains pointer to the next node). Which of the following operations cannot be performed in time independent on the length of the linked list? [Question ID = 2753]
A
Insert a new element as the last element. [Option ID = 11012]
B
Insert a new element as the first element. [Option ID = 11011]
C
Delete the first element. [Option ID = 11009]
D
Delete the last element. [Option ID = 11010]
Question 93 Explanation: 
Delete the last element. [Option ID = 11010]
Question 94
A CPU has 32 bit address lines and 16 bit datalines. The maximum primary memory addressing capacity of the CPU is [Question ID = 2768]
A
4 MB [Option ID = 11072]
B
2 GB [Option ID = 11070]
C
64 KB [Option ID = 11069]
D
4 GB [Option ID = 11071]
Question 94 Explanation: 
4 GB [Option ID = 11071]
Question 95
Which of the following inter-process communication mechanism is most efficient in an operating system? [Question ID = 2772]
A
Semaphore [Option ID = 11087]
B
Shared memory [Option ID = 11085]
C
Message Passing [Option ID = 11086]
D
Message queue [Option ID = 11088]
Question 95 Explanation: 
Shared memory [Option ID = 11085]
Question 96
In a QAM Modulation scheme, the baud-rate is 4 kilobaud/second. The lowest carrier frequency is 102 KHz. The bandwidth of the channel is 1 MHz. The number of digital channels created would be [Question ID = 2769]
A
300 [Option ID = 11076]
B
250 [Option ID = 11075]
C
200 [Option ID = 11073]
D
225 [Option ID = 11074]
Question 96 Explanation: 
225 [Option ID = 11074]
Question 97
To reduce thrashing in virtual memory, which of the following data structures is most suitable? [Question ID = 2774]
A
Queue [Option ID = 11096]
B
Array [Option ID = 11094]
C
Hashing [Option ID = 11095]
D
Stack [Option ID = 11093]
Question 97 Explanation: 
Stack [Option ID = 11093]
Question 98
III. In the context of Project Tiger, many observers have noted that the country is now home to approximately two-thirds of the tigers in the world. But many have sounded a note of caution and said a lot more effort is required before we can declare tiger populations to be robust over the long term in India. These efforts usually mean increasing vigilance against poaching of tigers and their prey, expanding existing tiger reserves. However, there is an opposing group of public intellectuals that considers social justice to be of paramount importance in India. In their estimation, forests are as much cultural and social places as they are a habitat for wildlife. Forests are home to one in eight Indians, and tiger conservation has come at a terrible human cost; tribals have been forced out of forests, uprooted from their social and cultural context, deprived of education, development and livelihoods, plunged into poverty, and remained either unwilling or unable to integrate into the mainstream. Conservation of the tiger, they say, should not be at the cost of the fundamental rights of our citizenry. In the last two decades or so, elected governments in India have sanctioned the cutting down of forests to build highways, flattened forests for coal and other minerals, and drowned out forests for dams, significantly devastating wildlife and forest dwellers alike. These sanctions are accompanied by statements of reassurance that it is possible to balance economic development with ecological and social concerns. Notwithstanding these platitudes, both conservationists and social justice activists feel short-changed by a government set on accelerating swiftly towards the edge of ecological destruction. The great game playing out in the forests of our country continues. The tiger, forests, and forest dwellers will remain pawns in this great game. It remains to be seen if conservationists and social justice activists can reconcile their differences to collaboratively call out the conductor before it is curtains. 'a lot more effort is required' to save the tiger, says the author. What kind of 'effort' is required? [Question ID = 53375]
A
Providing congenial environment for wildlife to flourish. [Option ID = 93488]
B
Ensuring they get their prey easily. [Option ID = 93487]
C
Saving tigers from being hunted, as also preserving their habitat. [Option ID = 93486]
D
All of these [Option ID = 93489]
Question 98 Explanation: 
Saving tigers from being hunted, as also preserving their habitat. [Option ID = 93486]
Question 99
I. Generating clean renewable electricity is crucial for India where nearly 300 million people—about a quarter of its population—live without access to electricity. Today, India is one of the lowest per capita consumers of electricity in the world; even when people are connected to the electricity grid, they face frequent disruptions. Add to that the projected economic growth and the increase in population, and the demand for energy in India is expected to double by 2040. According to Onno Ruhl, World Bank Country Director in India, with around 300 days of sunshine every year, India has among the best conditions in the world to harness solar energy. The rapid expansion of solar power can improve the quality of life for millions of Indians, especially for its poorest citizens. It can also create thousands of jobs in the solar industry and underpin progress in all areas of development, helping the country fulfill its dream of becoming the 'India of the future'. But Energy storage systems play a vital role to enhance capacity firming and smoothing the variable and intermittent power output from solar plants. The need for Energy Storage is thus indispensable in lieu of growing share of solar power in India's energy basket. With the year on year declining price trend of solar and energy storage technologies, the time is not very far when not only commercial and industrial customers but also residential customers would become prosumers where they will produce and consume the electricity in-house and this will be possible with the hybrid solution of solar and storage. Another market, which will grow in the near future, will be second life of the battery where the batteries (after few modifications) from the electric vehicles after their life can be used for the solar applications which will further reduce the solution cost of solar plus storage. Mark the statement that is NOT true: [Question ID = 53373]
A
Both commercial and residential power users could become producer and consumers of solar power in the near future [Option ID = 93481]
B
Solar power will be the major source of power in the near future. [Option ID = 93479]
C
Solar power could be a driver of progress in all areas of development [Option ID = 93480]
D
Even today people face frequent power disruptions. [Option ID = 93478]
Question 99 Explanation: 
Solar power will be the major source of power in the near future. [Option ID = 93479]
Question 100
I. Generating clean renewable electricity is crucial for India where nearly 300 million people—about a quarter of its population—live without access to electricity. Today, India is one of the lowest per capita consumers of electricity in the world; even when people are connected to the electricity grid, they face frequent disruptions. Add to that the projected economic growth and the increase in population, and the demand for energy in India is expected to double by 2040. According to Onno Ruhl, World Bank Country Director in India, with around 300 days of sunshine every year, India has among the best conditions in the world to harness solar energy. The rapid expansion of solar power can improve the quality of life for millions of Indians, especially for its poorest citizens. It can also create thousands of jobs in the solar industry and underpin progress in all areas of development, helping the country fulfill its dream of becoming the 'India of the future'. But Energy storage systems play a vital role to enhance capacity firming and smoothing the variable and intermittent power output from solar plants. The need for Energy Storage is thus indispensable in lieu of growing share of solar power in India's energy basket. With the year on year declining price trend of solar and energy storage technologies, the time is not very far when not only commercial and industrial customers but also residential customers would become prosumers where they will produce and consume the electricity in-house and this will be possible with the hybrid solution of solar and storage. Another market, which will grow in the near future, will be second life of the battery where the batteries (after few modifications) from the electric vehicles after their life can be used for the solar applications which will further reduce the solution cost of solar plus storage. How will the 'second life of the battery' benefit the consumers? (Question ID = 53379)
A
People can have a mobile solar power production source. [Option ID = 93502]
B
The use of electric vehicle batteries for solar plus storage will reduce solar power costs. [Option ID = 93503]
C
All of these [Option ID = 93505]
D
Used car batteries will be used for solar applications. [Option ID = 93504]
Question 100 Explanation: 
The use of electric vehicle batteries for solar plus storage will reduce solar power costs. [Option ID = 93503]
Question 101
I. Generating clean renewable electricity is crucial for India where nearly 300 million people—about a quarter of its population—live without access to electricity. Today, India is one of the lowest per capita consumers of electricity in the world; even when people are connected to the electricity grid, they face frequent disruptions. Add to that the projected economic growth and the increase in population, and the demand for energy in India is expected to double by 2040. According to Onno Ruhl, World Bank Country Director in India, with around 300 days of sunshine every year, India has among the best conditions in the world to harness solar energy. The rapid expansion of solar power can improve the quality of life for millions of Indians, especially for its poorest citizens. It can also create thousands of jobs in the solar industry and underpin progress in all areas of development, helping the country fulfill its dream of becoming the 'India of the future'. But Energy storage systems play a vital role to enhance capacity firming and smoothing the variable and intermittent power output from solar plants. The need for Energy Storage is thus indispensable in lieu of growing share of solar power in India's energy basket. With the year on year declining price trend of solar and energy storage technologies, the time is not very far when not only commercial and industrial customers but also residential customers would become prosumers where they will produce and consume the electricity in-house and this will be possible with the hybrid solution of solar and storage. Another market, which will grow in the near future, will be second life of the battery where the batteries (after few modifications) from the electric vehicles after their life can be used for the solar applications which will further reduce the solution cost of solar plus storage. Why is the author optimistic that soon residential customers would become prosumers? [Question ID = 53377]
A
People are fast being drawn to the cheaper power source of solar energy. [Option ID = 93494]
B
Falling prices and better storage techniques will tempt people to be prosumers of solar energy. [Option ID = 93495]
C
Hybrid solution of solar and storage will make this possible. [Option ID = 93496]
D
All of these. [Option ID = 93497]
Question 102
A
Empties the input queue Q. [Option ID = 93491]
B
Reverses the input queue Q. [Option ID = 93493]
C
Doubles the number of elements in the input queue Q. [Option ID = 93492]
D
Keeps the input queue Q as it was before the function call. [Option ID = 93490]
Question 102 Explanation: 
Reverses the input queue Q. [Option ID = 93493]
Question 103
A
B
C
D
Question 103 Explanation: 
Question 104
Let R be the set of real numbers and let T: R3 —> R4 be defined as T(x,y,z)= (x + y + z,x + 2y — 3z,2x +3y — 2z, 3x + 4y - z). Then rank of the linear transformation T is
A
3
B
4
C
1
D
2
Question 104 Explanation: 
2
Question 105
I. Generating clean renewable electricity is crucial for India where nearly 300 million people—about a quarter of its population—live without access to electricity. Today, India is one of the lowest per capita consumers of electricity in the world; even when people are connected to the electricity grid, they face frequent disruptions. Add to that the projected economic growth and the increase in population, and the demand for energy in India is expected to double by 2040. According to Onno Ruhl, World Bank Country Director in India, with around 300 days of sunshine every year, India has among the best conditions in the world to harness solar energy. The rapid expansion of solar power can improve the quality of life for millions of Indians, especially for its poorest citizens. It can also create thousands of jobs in the solar industry and underpin progress in all areas of development, helping the country fulfill its dream of becoming the 'India of the future'. But Energy storage systems play a vital role to enhance capacity firming and smoothing the variable and intermittent power output from solar plants. The need for Energy Storage is thus indispensable in lieu of growing share of solar power in India's energy basket. With the year on year declining price trend of solar and energy storage technologies, the time is not very far when not only commercial and industrial customers but also residential customers would become prosumers where they will produce and consume the electricity in-house and this will be possible with the hybrid solution of solar and storage. Another market, which will grow in the near future, will be second life of the battery where the batteries (after few modifications) from the electric vehicles after their life can be used for the solar applications which will further reduce the solution cost of solar plus storage. ‘India has among the best conditions in the world to harness solar energy’ How? [Question ID = 2740]
A
It has 300 days of sunshine in a year. [Option ID = 10957]
B
All of these [Option ID = 10960]
C
One-fourth of its population live without access to electricity [Option ID = 10959]
D
Its per capita consumption of power is among the lowest in the world. [Option ID = 10958]
Question 105 Explanation: 
It has 300 days of sunshine in a year. [Option ID = 10957]
Question 106
I. Generating clean renewable electricity is crucial for India where nearly 300 million people—about a quarter of its population—live without access to electricity. Today, India is one of the lowest per capita consumers of electricity in the world; even when people are connected to the electricity grid, they face frequent disruptions. Add to that the projected economic growth and the increase in population, and the demand for energy in India is expected to double by 2040. According to Onno Ruhl, World Bank Country Director in India, with around 300 days of sunshine every year, India has among the best conditions in the world to harness solar energy. The rapid expansion of solar power can improve the quality of life for millions of Indians, especially for its poorest citizens. It can also create thousands of jobs in the solar industry and underpin progress in all areas of development, helping the country fulfill its dream of becoming the 'India of the future'. But Energy storage systems play a vital role to enhance capacity firming and smoothing the variable and intermittent power output from solar plants. The need for Energy Storage is thus indispensable in lieu of growing share of solar power in India's energy basket. With the year on year declining price trend of solar and energy storage technologies, the time is not very far when not only commercial and industrial customers but also residential customers would become prosumers where they will produce and consume the electricity in-house and this will be possible with the hybrid solution of solar and storage. Another market, which will grow in the near future, will be second life of the battery where the batteries (after few modifications) from the electric vehicles after their life can be used for the solar applications which will further reduce the solution cost of solar plus storage. Why is the need for Energy Storage indispensable? [Question ID = 2741]
A
Supply of conventional power is not reliable. [Option ID = 10961]
B
Even when people are connected to the electricity grid, they face frequent disruptions. [Option ID = 10962]
C
Presently, solar power supply is variable and intermittent. [Option ID = 10963]
D
Solar power may soon be a dominant player in the energy supply market. [Option ID = 10964]
Question 106 Explanation: 
Presently, solar power supply is variable and intermittent. [Option ID = 10963]
Question 107
A
13
B
3
C
13/3
D
1
Question 108
A
θ(n) for func1 and θ(2n) for func2
B
θ(n) for both func1 and func2
C
θ(n) for func2 and θ(2n) for func1
D
θ(2n) for both func1 and func2
Question 108 Explanation: 
θ(n) for func1 and θ(2n) for func2
Question 109
A
1
B
-2
C
0
D
-1
Question 110
The point (2,1) to the curve (x-2)2=y(y-1)2 is
A
a cusp
B
not even a double point
C
a conjugate point
D
a node
Question 111
A
0
B
3
C
2
D
1
Question 112
[Question ID = 2763]
A
Bool = 1 + bool [Option ID = 11049]
B
1 – bool [Option ID = 11052]
C
1 % bool [Option ID = 11050]
D
bool – 1 [Option ID = 11051]
Question 113
[Question ID = 2726]
A
1/2
B
1
C
3/(4π)
D
5/(2π)
Question 114
The minimum number of comparisions required to determine if a given integer x appears more than n/2 times in sorted array of n integers is [Question ID = 2755]    
A
θ(1)
B
θ(n log n)
C
θ(log n)
D
θ(n)
Question 115
Consider a hash table of size seven , with starting index zero , which uses a hash function (2x+5) mod 7 with open addressing and collisions resolved using linear probing. After inserting a set of values into the table, suppose the current content of the hash table at respective locations (starting from zero) is 14,11.e,e,10,21,4 Where r denotes an empty location. What can be a possible order in which the entries are into the hash table? [Question ID = 2751]
A
11, 4, 14, 21, 10 [Option ID = 11004]
B
4, 21, 14, 11, 10 [Option ID = 11001]
C
4, 21, 11, 14, 10 [Option ID = 11002]
D
4, 11, 21, 14, 10 [Option ID = 11003]
Question 116
[Question ID = 2725]
A
0
B
-1
C
1
D
13!
Question 117
The area enclosed by the curves x2+y2=1 and (x-1)2+y2=1 is [Question ID = 2727]
A
B
C
D
Question 118
Given an array of n distinct integers not necessarily sorted, let T (n) denote the time taken for the most efficient algorithm to find an element of the array which is neither the minimum nor the maximum. Which of the following statements is true? [Question ID = 2756]
A
T(n)=θ(n log n)
B
T(n)=θ(1)
C
T(n)=θ(n)
D
T(n)=θ(log n)
Question 119
The value of λ, for which the vectors (1,2,1),(2,λ,4),(4,5,6) over the field of real numbers are linearly dependent is [Question ID = 2729]
A
4
B
1
C
3
D
2
Question 120
A
None of the above [Option ID = 10932]
B
C
D
Question 121
A
f is neither one-one nor onto. [Option ID = 11043]
B
f is both one-one and onto. [Option ID = 11044]
C
f is onto but not one-one. [Option ID = 11042]
D
f is one-one but not onto. [Option ID = 11041]
Question 122
A
infinity [Option ID = 11048]
B
13 [Option ID = 11046]
C
10000 [Option ID = 11047]
D
13.28 [Option ID = 11045]
Question 123
Question ID = 2732]
A
3< k <4 [Option ID = 10928]
B
-1< k <1 [Option ID = 10925]
C
2< k <3 [Option ID = 10927]
D
1< k <2 [Option ID = 10926]
Question 124
A man speaks truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a fair cubical die and reports that it is a 4, then the probability that it is actually a 4 is [Question ID = 2735]
A
1/4 [Option ID = 10939]
B
1/8 [Option ID = 10940]
C
3/4 [Option ID = 10937]
D
3/8 [Option ID = 10938]
Question 125
[Question ID = 2764]
A
Hello Hi [Option ID = 11053]
B
Hello Hello [Option ID = 11054]
C
Hi Hello [Option ID = 11055]
D
Hi Hi [Option ID = 11056]
Question 126
The contents of urns I, II, HI are as follows Urn I: 1 white, 2 black and 3 red balls Urn II: 2 white, 1 black and 1 red ball Urn III: 4 white, 5 black and 3 red balls One urn is chosen at random and two balls drawn. They happen to be one white and one red. The probability that they come from urn III is
A
33/118 [Option ID = 10934]
B
55/118 [Option ID = 10935]
C
15/59 [Option ID = 10933]
D
2/11 [Option ID = 10936]
Question 127
While adding three 1-bit numbers, X, Y, and Z, which of these is the correct expression for the carry? (. stands for logical AND, and + stands for logical OR, and ⊕ stands for XOR) [Question ID = 2767]
A
X ⊕ Y ⊕ Z [Option ID = 11067]
B
X.Y+ X.Z+Y.Z [Option ID = 11066]
C
X.Y.Z
D
X + Y +Z
Question 128
The equation x3 - 3x + 1 = 0 possesses [Question ID = 2736]
A
exactly two roots between 0 and 1
B
all the three roots between 0 and 1
C
exactly one root between 0 and 1
D
No root between 0 and 1
Question 129
What is the output of the following C++ code segment (assuming that the space occupied by an int variable is 2 and a pointer variable is 4)? int a[] = {43, 56, 12, 61, 39), *ap = a; cout << (ap[4] - ap[1]) << " << (&zap[4] - &ap[1]) << " " << (*(ap + 4) - *(ap + 1)); [Question ID = 2765]
A
5 3 5 [Option ID = 11058]
B
-17 6 -17 [Option ID = 11059]
C
-17 3 -17 [Option ID = 11060]
D
5 6 5 [Option ID = 11057]
Question 130
Consider the following C-like pseudocode which operates on a linked list struct element{ int data; struct element *leftchild; struct element *rightchild; } int func(struct element *ptr){ int value = 0; if (ptr!=NULL){ if(ptr→leftchild 1= NULL){ value=1 + func(ptr→leftchild); } if(ptr→rightchild != NULL){ value = max(value, 1 + func(ptr→rightchild)); } } return value; } The value returned by func when a pointer to the root of a non-empty tree is passed as argument is
A
the number of leaf nodes in the tree. [Option ID = 11008]
B
the number of total nodes in the tree. [Option ID = 11006]
C
the number of internal nodes in the tree. [Option ID = 11007]
D
the height of the tree (height is one plus the maximum distance of any leaf node from the root) [Option ID = 11005]
Question 131
III. In the context of Project Tiger, many observers have noted that the country is now home to approximately two-thirds of the tigers in the world. But many have sounded a note of caution and said a lot more effort is required before we can declare tiger populations to be robust over the long term in India. These efforts usually mean increasing vigilance against poaching of tigers and their prey, expanding existing tiger reserves. However, there is an opposing group of public intellectuals that considers social justice to be of paramount importance in India. In their estimation, forests are as much cultural and social places as they are a habitat for wildlife. Forests are home to one in eight Indians, and tiger conservation has come at a terrible human cost; tribals have been forced out of forests, uprooted from their social and cultural context, deprived of education, development and livelihoods, plunged into poverty, and remained either unwilling or unable to integrate into the mainstream. Conservation of the tiger, they say, should not be at the cost of the fundamental rights of our citizenry. In the last two decades or so, elected governments in India have sanctioned the cutting down of forests to build highways, flattened forests for coal and other minerals, and drowned out forests for dams, significantly devastating wildlife and forest dwellers alike. These sanctions are accompanied by statements of reassurance that it is possible to balance economic development with ecological and social concerns. Notwithstanding these platitudes, both conservationists and social justice activists feel short-changed by a government set on accelerating swiftly towards the edge of ecological destruction. The great game playing out in the forests of our country continues. The tiger, forests, and forest dwellers will remain pawns in this great game. It remains to be seen if conservationists and social justice activists can reconcile their differences to collaboratively call out the conductor before it is curtains. What does the statement ‘The tiger, forests, and forest dwellers will remain pawns in this great game’ imply? [Question ID = 2748]
A
All of these [Option ID = 10992]
B
The two groups are hurting each other’s interests. [Option ID = 10989]
C
Wild animals, forest dwellers and ecology are the sufferers in the quarrel between the two groups. [Option ID = 10991]
D
The government is exploiting the differences between the two groups to further its agenda. [Option ID = 10990]
Question 132
III. In the context of Project Tiger, many observers have noted that the country is now home to approximately two-thirds of the tigers in the world. But many have sounded a note of caution and said a lot more effort is required before we can declare tiger populations to be robust over the long term in India. These efforts usually mean increasing vigilance against poaching of tigers and their prey, expanding existing tiger reserves. However, there is an opposing group of public intellectuals that considers social justice to be of paramount importance in India. In their estimation, forests are as much cultural and social places as they are a habitat for wildlife. Forests are home to one in eight Indians, and tiger conservation has come at a terrible human cost; tribals have been forced out of forests, uprooted from their social and cultural context, deprived of education, development and livelihoods, plunged into poverty, and remained either unwilling or unable to integrate into the mainstream. Conservation of the tiger, they say, should not be at the cost of the fundamental rights of our citizenry. In the last two decades or so, elected governments in India have sanctioned the cutting down of forests to build highways, flattened forests for coal and other minerals, and drowned out forests for dams, significantly devastating wildlife and forest dwellers alike. These sanctions are accompanied by statements of reassurance that it is possible to balance economic development with ecological and social concerns. Notwithstanding these platitudes, both conservationists and social justice activists feel short-changed by a government set on accelerating swiftly towards the edge of ecological destruction. The great game playing out in the forests of our country continues. The tiger, forests, and forest dwellers will remain pawns in this great game. It remains to be seen if conservationists and social justice activists can reconcile their differences to collaboratively call out the conductor before it is curtains. What is the stand of ‘an opposing group of public intellectuals’ on conservation of tigers? [Question ID = 2746]
A
All of these [Option ID = 10984]
B
Tiger conservation has come at a terrible human cost. [Option ID = 10983]
C
There are enough of tigers in the country and no further efforts need be made to protect them. [Option ID = 10982]
D
Rights of tribals should get primacy. [Option ID = 10981]
Question 133
III. In the context of Project Tiger, many observers have noted that the country is now home to approximately two-thirds of the tigers in the world. But many have sounded a note of caution and said a lot more effort is required before we can declare tiger populations to be robust over the long term in India. These efforts usually mean increasing vigilance against poaching of tigers and their prey, expanding existing tiger reserves. However, there is an opposing group of public intellectuals that considers social justice to be of paramount importance in India. In their estimation, forests are as much cultural and social places as they are a habitat for wildlife. Forests are home to one in eight Indians, and tiger conservation has come at a terrible human cost; tribals have been forced out of forests, uprooted from their social and cultural context, deprived of education, development and livelihoods, plunged into poverty, and remained either unwilling or unable to integrate into the mainstream. Conservation of the tiger, they say, should not be at the cost of the fundamental rights of our citizenry. In the last two decades or so, elected governments in India have sanctioned the cutting down of forests to build highways, flattened forests for coal and other minerals, and drowned out forests for dams, significantly devastating wildlife and forest dwellers alike. These sanctions are accompanied by statements of reassurance that it is possible to balance economic development with ecological and social concerns. Notwithstanding these platitudes, both conservationists and social justice activists feel short-changed by a government set on accelerating swiftly towards the edge of ecological destruction. The great game playing out in the forests of our country continues. The tiger, forests, and forest dwellers will remain pawns in this great game. It remains to be seen if conservationists and social justice activists can reconcile their differences to collaboratively call out the conductor before it is curtains. Why do both conservationists and social justice activists feel cheated? [Question ID = 2747]
A
Development projects have not cared for the rights of tribals living in forests. [Option ID = 10986]
B
Government policies have devastated wildlife and forest dwellers alike. [Option ID = 10987]
C
Government policies have ignored the need for tiger conservation. [Option ID = 10985]
D
They fail to understand whose interests the government is guarding. [Option ID = 10988]
Question 134
III. In the context of Project Tiger, many observers have noted that the country is now home to approximately two-thirds of the tigers in the world. But many have sounded a note of caution and said a lot more effort is required before we can declare tiger populations to be robust over the long term in India. These efforts usually mean increasing vigilance against poaching of tigers and their prey, expanding existing tiger reserves. However, there is an opposing group of public intellectuals that considers social justice to be of paramount importance in India. In their estimation, forests are as much cultural and social places as they are a habitat for wildlife. Forests are home to one in eight Indians, and tiger conservation has come at a terrible human cost; tribals have been forced out of forests, uprooted from their social and cultural context, deprived of education, development and livelihoods, plunged into poverty, and remained either unwilling or unable to integrate into the mainstream. Conservation of the tiger, they say, should not be at the cost of the fundamental rights of our citizenry. In the last two decades or so, elected governments in India have sanctioned the cutting down of forests to build highways, flattened forests for coal and other minerals, and drowned out forests for dams, significantly devastating wildlife and forest dwellers alike. These sanctions are accompanied by statements of reassurance that it is possible to balance economic development with ecological and social concerns. Notwithstanding these platitudes, both conservationists and social justice activists feel short-changed by a government set on accelerating swiftly towards the edge of ecological destruction. The great game playing out in the forests of our country continues. The tiger, forests, and forest dwellers will remain pawns in this great game. It remains to be seen if conservationists and social justice activists can reconcile their differences to collaboratively call out the conductor before it is curtains. Mark the statement that is NOT true [Question ID = 2749]
A
Conservationists and social justice activists need to come together to fight the government before it is too late. [Option ID = 10996]
B
The Government has declared its intention to pursue economic development even at the cost of ecology. [Option ID = 10995]
C
India has the largest number of tigers in the world. [Option ID = 10993]
D
According to one group, both wildlife and tribal dwellers have equal right over forests. [Option ID = 10994]
Question 135
Consider a weighted graph where every edge has weight exceeding w. Suppose we determine the shortest path from a source s to a destination t  in the graph. Consider the following statements. I. If we decrease the weight of every edge in the graph by w, the shortest path between s and t does not change. II. If we multiply the weight of every edge in the graph by some positive quantity c, the shortest path between s and t does not change. Then [Question ID = 2758]
A
Statement I is false but statement II is true. [Option ID = 11030]
B
Statement I is true but statement II is false. [Option ID = 11029]
C
Both the statements are true. [Option ID = 11031]
D
Both the statements are false. [Option ID = 11032]
Question 136
Which of these is a disadvantage of DRAM memory? [Question ID = 2766]
A
It requires periodic refreshing. [Option ID = 11063]
B
None of these [Option ID = 11064]
C
It is made of silicon. [Option ID = 11062]
D
Memory is stored off-chip. [Option ID = 11061]
Question 137
An Ethernet frame is 32 bytes long. How many extra bytes should be added to the frame before transmission? [Question ID = 2771]
A
32 bytes [Option ID = 11082]
B
48 bytes [Option ID = 11083]
C
64 bytes [Option ID = 11084]
D
16 bytes [Option ID = 11081]
Question 138
The number of 4 digit even numbers where all the digits are distinct is (Note that the most significant digit of these numbers cannot be zero). [Question ID = 2760]
A
2296 [Option ID = 11040]
B
2240 [Option ID = 11039]
C
2520 [Option ID = 11037]
D
2620 [Option ID = 11038]
Question 139
What is the maximum number of regions that the plane R2 can be partitioned into using 10 lines?
Hint: Let A(n) be the maximum number of partitions that can be made by n lines. Observe that A(0) = 1, A(2) = 2, A(2) = 4 etc. Come up with a recurrence equation for A(n).
A
25
B
50
C
55
D
56
E
1024
Question 140
A
a
B
b
C
c
D
d
E
e
Question 141
The figure below describes the network of streets in a city where Motabhai sells pakoras from his cart. The number next to an edge is the time (in minutes) taken to traverse the corresponding street.

At present the cart is required to start at point s and, after visiting each street at least once, reach point t. For example, Motabhai can visit the streets in the following order
s − a − c − s − e − c − d − a − b − d − f − e − d − b − t − f − d − t
in order to go from s to t. Note that the streets b, d and d, f are both visited twice in this strategy. The total time taken for this trip is 440 minutes [which is, 380 (the sum of the traversal times of all streets in the network) + 60 (the sum of the traversal times of streets {b, d} and {d, f })].
Motabhai now wants the cart to return to s at the end of the trip. So the previous strategy is not valid, and he must find a new strategy. How many minutes will Motabhai now take if he uses an optimal strategy?
Hint: s, t, b and f are the only odd degree nodes in the figure above.
A
430
B
440
C
460
D
470
E
480
Question 142
Consider a discrete-time system which in response to input sequence x[n] (n integer) outputs the sequence y[n] such that

Suppose |α| < 1. Is the system linear, time-invariant, bounded input bounded output (BIBO) stable?
A
Linear, time-invariant, BIBO stable
B
Non-linear, time-invariant, BIBO stable
C
Linear, time-variant, BIBO unstable
D
Non-linear, time-variant, BIBO stable
E
Cannot be determined from the information given
Question 143
For all values of r > 0, the area of the set of all points outside the unit square whose Euclidean distance to the unit square is less than r is:
A
a
B
b
C
c
D
d
E
e
Question 144
If L and ~L (complement of L) are recursive enumerable, then L is
A
regular
B
context free
C
context sensitive
D
recursive
Question 144 Explanation: 
If L is recursively enumerable that means a TM accepts all strings in L. ~L is recursively enumerable means that a TM accepts all strings in ~L.So we can always decide if a string is in L or not. Since we can always decide so it is recursive.
Question 145
If transition is not defined on the current state and the current tape symbol, then the machine
A
halts
B
does not halt
C
goes into loop forever
D
None of the above
Question 145 Explanation: 
If transition is not defined in any state,then the state may be final or non final state.In both case it is said that the machine halts.If in final state there is no transition then we say machine halts and we say string accepted or if in non-final state there is no transition then we say machine halts and we say string is rejected.
Question 146
A language L may not be accepted by a Turing machine if
A
it is recursively enumerable
B
L can be enumerated by some Turing machine
C
it is recursive
D
None of the above
Question 146 Explanation: 
A language L may not be accepted by a Turing machine if L is not recursively enumerable. But note that if L is recursively enumerable then it will be definitely accepted by TM.
Question 147
The variable which produces an epsilon is called
A
empty
B
terminal
C
non-terminal
D
nullable
Question 147 Explanation: 
The variable which produces an epsilon is called nullable variable.
Question 148
The construction time for DFA having m nodes from an equivalent NFA is
A
O(m2)
B
O(2m)
C
O(m)
D
O(log m)
Question 148 Explanation: 
The construction time for a DFA from an NFA is O(2^m) where m is the number of nodes in NFA because if no. of nodes in NFA is m then DFA can have upto 2^m states.
Question 149
Which of the following is true about a file?
A
It is an abstract data type
B
It is usually non-volatile
C
It is a logical storage unit
D
All of the above
Question 149 Explanation: 
File is logical storage unit with set of physical blocks
Question 150

Consider a fully associative cache with 8 cache blocks (numbered 0-7) and the following sequence of memory block requests:

4, 3, 25, 8, 19, 6, 25, 8, 16, 35, 45, 22, 8, 3, 16, 25, 7

If LRU replacement policy is used, which cache block will have memory block 7?
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
Question 150 Explanation: 
Question 151
Which of the following is the address generated by the CPU?
A
Physical address
B
Absolute address
C
Logical address
D
None of the above
Question 151 Explanation: 
The address generated by the CPU is a logical address, whereas the address actually seen by the memory hardware is a physical address
Question 152
What is interprocess communication?
A
Communication within the process
B
Communication between two processes
C
Communication between two threads of same process
D
None of the mentioned
Question 152 Explanation: 
Inter process communication is a set of programming interface which allow a programmer to coordinate activities among various program processes which can run concurrently in an operating system.
Question 153
Which of the following storage units has the highest access time?
A
Magnetic disk
B
Floppy disk
C
Cache
D
Swapping device
Question 153 Explanation: 
Among the given devices magnetic disk has the highest access time.
Question 154
Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of connection-oriented networking?
A
Quality of service
B
No priority service
C
Bandwidth utilization
D
All of the above
Question 155
PID is used by the system to identify
A
a process
B
file name
C
i-node
D
All of the above
Question 155 Explanation: 
A PID (i.e., process identification number) is an identification number that is automatically assigned to each process when it is created on a Unix-like operating system. A process is an executing (i.e., running) instance of a program. Each process is guaranteed a unique PID, which is always a non-negative integer.
Question 156
In which switching, multiplexing is used?
A
Packet switching
B
Circuit switching
C
Data switching
D
All of the above
Question 156 Explanation: 
points. Circuit switching method is also called a connection oriented network. Two nodes must be physically and logically connected to each other to create a circuit switching network.
Question 157
The purpose of subnetting is
A
it divides one large network into several smaller ones
B
it divides network into network classes
C
it speeds up the speed of network
D
None of the above
Question 157 Explanation: 
Subnetting divides a network into smaller sections. It can have a number of purposes including easier network management and more organized networks, as well as various security and performance gains
Question 158
The network mask for a class C network is
A
255.255.255.1
B
255.255.255.0
C
255.255.255.254
D
255.255.255.255
Question 158 Explanation: 
In class C network first 24 bit is network id and next 8 bit is host id.
So in network mask of class C first 24 bit will have binary 1’s and next 8 bits will have binary 0’s.
So therefore network mask of class C will be 255.255.255.0
Question 159
Which is not true about an AVL tree of n nodes?
A
Average space complexity is O(n)
B
Average space complexity is O(log (n))
C
Worst space complexity is O(n2)
D
Average insert complexity is O(log (n))
Question 159 Explanation: 
The space complexity of an AVL tree is O(n) in both the average and the worst case because the AVL tree is balanced BST and will require space almost equal to the space required by complete binary tree which is O(n). But the average space complexity can never be O(logn) since no. of elements are n.
Also time complexity for inserting an element in AVL tree is O(logn) since the tree is balanced binary search tree whose height is O(logn).
Question 160
The logical relationship among data items is defined by
A
data structure
B
data relationship
C
storage structure
D
data operation
Question 161
One generally uses which of the following data structures to recollect some past happening/event?
A
Array
B
Queue
C
Stack
D
Link
Question 162
The time complexity of inserting a node in a doubly linked list is
A
O(n2 log(n))
B
O(n log (n))
C
O(log (n))
D
O(n)
Question 162 Explanation: 
Strictly speaking an insertion is simply O(1). The other answers mostly correctly state that the complexity is O(n) if you need to search for the position in which to insert the new node
Question 163
Which of the following is not an application of priority queue?
A
Huffman code
B
Interrupt handling in operating system
C
Undo operation in text editors
D
Bayesian spam filter
Question 163 Explanation: 
Huffman coding need priority queue to extract nodes with minimum frequency.
Interrupt handling requires priority queue to serve the highest priority interrupt first.
Undo operation in text editors uses stack.
Bayesian spam filter also uses priority queue.
Question 164
The inverse of function f(x) = (x2 + 1)3 is
A
(y1/3 - 1)1/2
B
(y1/3 - 1)2
C
(y1/2 - 1)1/3
D
(y1/6 - 1)
Question 164 Explanation: 
Question 165
The domain of the function f(x) = x1/2 is
A
(-∞, +∞)
B
(2, ∞)
C
(-∞, 1)
D
(0, ∞)
Question 165 Explanation: 
The value of x under the square root can never be negative. So the domain of the function will always be greater than or equal to 0,i.e. (0, ∞).
Question 166
A function f is defined from set A to set B. A and B have m and n (m≤n) elements, respectively. Then the number of one-to-one functions is
A
nCm × m!
B
nCm × n!
C
mCn × m!
D
mCn × n!
Question 166 Explanation: 
For the function f to be one-one no. of elements in A must be less than or equal to B. And yes it is given that m<=n. So the no. of one-to-one function will be nCm × m!, because we will select m elements from set B which will have nCm ways and then each elements from selected elements of B can be mapped to one elements each in A which will have m! Ways and therefore making total no. of one-to one functions possible is nCm × m!.
Question 167
Floor (3.7) + Ceil (6.5) is equal to
A
11
B
10
C
9
D
8
Question 167 Explanation: 
Floor(x) means the greatest integer value less than equal to x. Whereas ceil(x) means the least integer value greater than or equal to x. Hence the value of Floor (3.7) + Ceil (6.5) is Floor (3.7) + Ceil (6.5) = 3+7 = 10
Question 168
Let A be defined as {{Φ}, {Φ, {Φ}}}. Then the power set of A has the number of elements is
A
10
B
8
C
6
D
4
Question 168 Explanation: 
The no. of elements in A is 2 which is {Φ} and {Φ, {Φ}}. So the no. of elements in the power set of A will be 2^2 = 4
Question 169
Let f(x) be defined as 3x2 + x3 log(x). Then f(x) is
A
O(x2)
B
O(x3)
C
O(x4)
D
O(x)
Question 169 Explanation: 
For given f(x) = 3x2 + x3 log(x) the correct answer will be will be O( x3 log(x)) but since it is not given so we have to take greater than this which will be O(x4) according to options given
Question 170
In relational model, the relations are viewed as
A
tuples
B
attributes
C
tables
D
rows
Question 170 Explanation: 
In relational model the relations are viewed as tables.
Question 171
In an E-R diagram, an entity set is represented by a/an
A
ellipse
B
rectangle
C
diamond box
D
circle
Question 171 Explanation: 
An entity is an object or component of data. An entity is represented as rectangle in an ER diagram.
Question 172
The database level closest to the users is
A
external
B
internal
C
physical
D
conceptual
Question 172 Explanation: 
Three levels of database architecture
Physical or Internal Level. It is the Internal Level and is the physical storage of a database. ...
Conceptual or Logical Level. It represents the complete content of the database i.e. the records and relationships. ...
External or View Level. External Level as the name suggests, is what the end users view.
Question 173
Let R1 and R2 be two relations. The UNION operation on R1 and R2 will give
A
all tuples of R1
B
all tuples of R2
C
all tuples of R1 and R2
D
all tuples of R1 and R2 having common columns
Question 173 Explanation: 
The UNION operation on R1 and R2 will give all tuples present in R1 and R2 .
Question 174
A primary key combined with a foreign key creates
A
parent-child relationship between tables that connect them
B
many to many relationship between tables that connect them
C
Network model between tables that connect them
D
None of the above
Question 174 Explanation: 
A primary key combined with a foreign key creates parent-child relationship between tables that connect them. The table which is referred table will be a parent table and the referring table will be a child table with foreign key which will be referring to the primary key of referred table.
Question 175
Which is/are integer constant(s)?
A
Decimal integer constant
B
Octal integer constant
C
Hexadecimal constant
D
All of the above
Question 175 Explanation: 
All are the examples of the integer constants only
Question 176
Suppose an expression contains assignment, relational and arithmetic operators and has no parenthesis. Then their order of evaluation is
A
arithmetic, relational, assignment
B
arithmetic, assignment, relational
C
relational, assignment, arithmetic
D
assignment, arithmetic, relational
Question 176 Explanation: 
The precedence of the assignment,relational and arithmetic operators is
Arithmetic > Relational > assignment
Question 177
In an assignment statement a=b, which of the following is correct?
A
The variables a and b are same
B
The value of b is assigned to variable a; later if the value of b changes, it will affect the value of a
C
The value of b is assigned to variable a; later if the value of b changes, it will not affect the value of a
D
The value of variable a is assigned to variable b and the value of b is assigned to variable a
Question 177 Explanation: 
In the assignment statement a=b , the value of b is assigned to the variable ‘a’ ,and since the variable ‘a’ and ‘b’ are independent so later if the values of b changes it will not affect the value of ‘a’.
Question 178
The operators && and || are used to
A
compare two numeric values
B
compare two Boolean values
C
combine two numeric values of short
D
combine different types of values
Question 178 Explanation: 
Among all options , Option-D is the most suitable one.The logical operators can be used with variables,constants and expressions and so on
Question 179
Which of the following functions need not to have return statement in its body?
A
int a(char *s)
B
float *b()
C
void c(int y[], int n)
D
short d(long x)
Question 179 Explanation: 
Void functions are created and used just like value-returning functions except they do not return a value after the function executes. A void function performs a task, and then control returns back to the caller--but, it does not return a value
Question 180
The rank of any general 100×1000 matrix cannot be greater than
A
1000
B
500
C
10
D
100
Question 180 Explanation: 
The rank of any general m x n matrix cannot be grater than min(m,n). Hence the rank of 100×1000 cannot be greater than min(100,1000) = 100.
Question 181
The number of solutions of is
A
0
B
1
C
infinite
D
None of the above
Question 181 Explanation: 
Question 182
The determinant is
A
0
B
2
C
6
D
24
Question 182 Explanation: 
The determinant of the given matrix will be
1(18-12) - 1(9-4) +1(3-2)
=6-5+1 = 2
Question 183
Consider the group S<sub>3</sub> of all permutations of 3 letters. Which of the following properties does it satisfy?
A
Finitely generated
B
Cyclic
C
Abelian
D
Simple
Question 184
The remainder obtained after x<sup>4</sup> + x<sup>2</sup> + 1 is divided by x<sup>2</sup> + x + 1 is
A
1
B
x
C
x2 - x + 1
D
0
Question 184 Explanation: 
Question 185
Which of the following sets is a subgroup of the additive group of real numbers?
A
Positive real numbers
B
Non-negative real numbers
C
Even integers
D
Odd integers
Question 185 Explanation: 
For a set to be group four conditions must be satisfied closure,associativity,identity element,inverse element.
Lets check option wise
A)For addition inverse of a element will be its negative but in this option no negative elements are present ,hence not the group.

B)Same reason as option A
C)Yes this is the group because it satisfies closure, associativity,identity element is also present as ‘0’ because 0 is an even number, inverse of elements is also present since in this all even integers are present either positive or negative.Hence all the four conditions are satisfied.
D)For addition 0 is the identity element but in this only odd integers are present which do not contain 0.Hence not the group.
Question 186
Consider the function f(x) = |x|, x∈R (set of real numbers). It is
A
differentiable everywhere
B
continuous everywhere
C
differentiable at 0 only
D
None of the above
Question 187
A
B
C
D
Question 188
The function is
A
discontinuous
B
differentiable
C
non-differentiable
D
None of the above
Question 189

The points where



is discontinuous are
A
x = n, n is an integer
B
x = (2n+1), n is an integer
C
x = 2n, n is an integer
D
x = (2n+1) /2, n is an intege
Question 190
A
B
C
D
Question 191
A
-19/17
B
19/17
C
9/17
D
-9/17
Question 192
The order of convergence of Regula falsi method is
A
1.618
B
1.321
C
1.931
D
2.012
Question 193
The numerical integration using the Simpson’s rule for which step size h has error of order
A
h
B
h2
C
h3
D
1
Question 194
Parrot : Cage :: Man : ?
A
Home
B
Motor car
C
Prison
D
Forest
Question 194 Explanation: 
Parrot is captured in Cage in same way Man is captured in Prison.
Question 195
UTS : FDC :: WVU : ?
A
YWV
B
WXY
C
UVX
D
HGF
Question 195 Explanation: 
Ist term is related to IIIrd term when read in reverse order as STU - UVW. Same is the case with IInd and IVth terms as-CDF - FGH.
Question 196
RAP, MAP, HOT, FUN, ?
A
HNP
B
CAT
C
PGD
D
STN
Question 196 Explanation: 
a, e, i, o, u are vowels and there is a vowel consonant relationship in every group of the series.
Question 197
A/2, B/4, C/6, D/10,?
A
E/16, F/26
B
E/12, F/16
C
E/12, F/14
D
D/10, E/10
Question 197 Explanation: 
In the series in every term there is alphabet in numerator which is increased by 1 from previous term and the denominator is the sum of denominators of previous two elements. So the first next term will be E/(6+10) =E/16 and the second next term will be F/(10+16) =F/26.
Question 198
In a code language 251 means ‘you are good’, 137 means ‘we are bad’, 359 means ‘good and bad’. Find the code for ‘and’
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
9
Question 198 Explanation: 
Number 251 and 137 have digit 1 in common and the corresponding sentences have ‘are ’ word in common. So till here we can conclude that code for ‘are ’ is 1. Now number 137 and 359 have digit 3 in common and the corresponding sentences have ‘bad’ word in common.So from this we can conclude that code for ‘bad’ is 3. Now number 251 and 359 have digit 5 in common and the corresponding sentences have ‘good’ word in common.So from this we can conclude that code for good is 5. Now we need code for ‘and’ which is present in sentence ‘good and bad’ whose corresponding number is 359. Sice we know the code for ‘good’ and ‘bad’ which is 5 and 3 .So definitely the code for ‘and’ will be 9
Question 199
ADG, GJM,?
A
NOP
B
MPS
C
MOQ
D
WTV
Question 199 Explanation: 
The words in series start from the letter with which the previous word ends and also there is a 2 letter gap sequentially in each word. So the next word in the series will be MPS
Question 200
11, 33, 55, 77,?
A
99
B
88
C
121
D
165
Question 200 Explanation: 
The given sequence is arithmetic sequence with common difference 22.Hence the next element will be 99, since 99-77=22
Question 201
If 3×6 = 18, 5×3 = 16, 8×2 = 20, find the value of 4×6=?
A
15
B
18
C
20
D
23
Question 201 Explanation: 
(3 + 6) x 2 = 18,
(5 + 3)x 2 = 16,
(8 + 2) x 2 = 20
So,
(4+6)x 2= 20
Question 202
Pen is to poet as needle is to
A
thread
B
tailor
C
button
D
sewing
Question 202 Explanation: 
Pen is used by the poet to write the poetry .In a similar way needle is used by the tailor to sew the clothes.
Question 203

Statement: Should the education be made by the Govt. free of charge?

Reason A: Yes, it will help in universalization of education in the country.

Reason B: No, there will be budgetary deficit creating some new problems.
A
only A is strong
B
only B is strong
C
Both are strong
D
None is strong
Question 204
In hypothesis testing, the level of significance of a test is the probability of
A
committing a type I error
B
committing a type II error
C
not committing a type I error
D
not committing a type II error
Question 205
The _____ test is not used to compare the parameters (like mean, variance, proportion etc.) of two different samples
A
z
B
t
C
x2
D
F
Question 206
In hypothesis testing, the power of a test is the probability of
A
committing a type I error
B
committing a type II error
C
not committing a type I error
D
not committing a type II error
Question 206 Explanation: 
The probability of not committing a Type II error is called the power of a hypothesis test
Question 207
The choice of t-test is done when a _____ sample is taken from a population with _____ variance.
A
large, known
B
small, unknown
C
large, unknown
D
small, known
Question 207 Explanation: 
t-test is based on t-distribution and is considered an appropriate test for judging the significance of a sample mean or for judging the significance of difference between the means of two samples in case of small sample(s) when population variance is not known (in which case we use variance of the sample as an estimate of the population variance)
Question 208
A
B
C
D
Question 209
A
B
C
D
Question 210
A
0.68
B
0.83
C
0.95
D
1
Question 211
Given that X is a random variable with first moment 10 and second moment 90, what is its standard deviation?
A
100
B
√90
C
√10
D
10
Question 212
The mean of the binomial probability distribution is 857.6 and the probability is 64%, then the number of values of the binomial distribution is
A
1040
B
1340
C
1240
D
1140
Question 212 Explanation: 
The mean of the binomial probability distribution is = np
where n=no. of values and p=probability = 0.64
So given,np=857.6
n*0.64=857.6
n=857.6/0.64 = 1340
Question 213
Tail or head, one or zero, and girl or boy are examples of
A
complementary events
B
non-functional events
C
non-complementary events
D
functional events
Question 213 Explanation: 
Complementary events happen when there are only two outcomes, like getting a job, or not getting a job. In other words, the complement of an event happening is the exact opposite: the probability of it not happening.The complementary events cannot occur simultaneously, means they are mutually exclusive events.
Like if in a coin tail occurs then head is not there or if head occurs then tail is not there. Similarly for a binary no. if a digit is 0 it cant be one or if a digit is 1 it cant be 0.
Similarly for a child if a child is boy it cannot be a girl or if the child is a girl it cannot be a boy.
So the events given in the questions are complementary events.
Question 214
Condition for negative exponential distribution considering mean (μ) is that
A
μ must be less than zero
B
μ must be greater than one
C
μ must be greater than zero
D
μ must be smaller than two
Question 215
A bag contains 5 black and 10 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is white?
A
1/2
B
2/3
C
3/4
D
4/5
Question 215 Explanation: 
Probability that the ball drawn is white is = C(10,1) / C(15,1) = 10/15 = 2/3
Question 216
Which of the following is a class indication of quality of a research journal?
A
Impact factor
B
h-index
C
g-index
D
i10-index
Question 216 Explanation: 
Impact factor is an indication of the quality of a research journal
Question 217
The number of significant digits in the number 2.0400×102 is
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 217 Explanation: 
2.0400×10^2 = 204.00 = 204(because 0’s after decimal point is not required)
Therefore no. of significant digits are 3
Question 218
The independent variables that are not related to the purpose of the study but may affect the dependent variable are termed as
A
extraneous variables
B
inductive variables
C
intrinsic variables
D
extrinsic variables
Question 218 Explanation: 
Independent variables that are not related to the purpose of the study, but may affect the dependent variable are termed as extraneous variables
Question 219
Primary data can be collected by conducting survey. In which of the following ways is/are the survey conducted by?
A
Interview
B
Observation
C
Questionnaire
D
All of the above
Question 220
Truncation error in the number 5.217 truncated to 5.21 is
A
0.0013%
B
0.013%
C
0.13%
D
1.3%
Question 220 Explanation: 
Truncation error will be
(5.217-5.21)/5.217*100 = 0.13%
Question 221
Absolute error in a measurement value of a physical quantity is
A
difference between measured value and its true value
B
ratio of measured value and true value
C
measured value plus true value
D
difference between measured and true values divided by true value
Question 221 Explanation: 
The magnitude of the difference between the individual measurement and the true value of the quantity is called the absolute error of the measurement. The arithmetic mean of all the absolute error is taken as the mean absolute error of the value of the physical quantity.
Question 222
Relative error in a physical quantity is
A
difference between measured value and true value
B
ratio of absolute error and the measured value of the physical quantity
C
ratio of measured value and true value
D
ratio of true value and measured value
Question 222 Explanation: 
The relative error is the ratio of the mean absolute error Δamean to the mean value amean of the quantity measured.
Question 223
Type-I error means
A
rejection of hypothesis which should have been accepted
B
accepting the hypothesis which should have been rejected
C
accepting the hypothesis which should have been accepted
D
rejection of hypothesis which should have been rejected
Question 224
Which of the following is not a formal experimental design?
A
Completely randomized
B
Randomized block
C
Factorial
D
Roman square
Question 225
Statistical constants of the population are called
A
statistics
B
parameters
C
variables
D
proportions
Question 225 Explanation: 
The statistical constants of the population are referred as Parameters and the. statistical constants of the Sample are referred as Statistics
Question 226
Statistical measures of the sample are called
A
parameters
B
statistics
C
variables
D
proportions
Question 226 Explanation: 
A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter while measure based on a sample is known as statistic.
Question 227
Data obtained in Census survey is
A
free from sampling errors
B
free from non-sampling errors
C
free from biased errors
D
free from all errors
Question 228
Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
A
Convenience sampling
B
Quota sampling
C
Judgement sampling
D
Stratified sampling
Question 228 Explanation: 
Quota sampling is a non-probability sampling technique in which researchers look for a specific characteristic in their respondents, and then take a tailored sample that is in proportion to a population of interest
Question 229
Which of the following is not an informal experimental design?
A
Before-and-after without control
B
Before-only with control
C
Before-and-after with control
D
After-only with control
Question 229 Explanation: 
Informal experimental designs.
(1)Before and after without control design.
(2)After only with control design.
(3)Before and after with control design.
Question 230
Type-II error means
A
rejection of hypothesis which should have been accepted
B
rejection of hypothesis which should have been rejected
C
accepting the hypothesis which should have been rejected
D
accepting the hypothesis which should have been accepted
Question 231
Principle of randomization provides
A
better estimation of experimental error
B
better estimation of sampling error
C
protection against experimental error
D
protection against sampling error
Question 231 Explanation: 
The Principle of Randomization provides protection, when we conduct an experiment, against the effect of extraneous factors by randomization. In other words, this principle indicates that we should design or plan the experiment in such a way that the variations caused by extraneous factors can all be combined under the general heading of “chance.” For instance, if we grow one variety of rice, say, in the first half of the parts of a field and the other variety is grown in the other half, then it is just possible that the soil fertility may be different in the first half in comparison to the other half. If this is so, our results would not be realistic. In such a situation, we may assign the variety of rice to be grown in different parts of the field on the basis of some random sampling technique i.e., we may apply randomization principle and protect ourselves against the effects of the extraneous factors (soil fertility differences in the given case). As such, through the application of the principle of randomization, we can have a better estimate of the experimental error.
Question 232
Principle of local control
A
eliminates experimental error
B
eliminates variability caused by extraneous factor from experimental error
C
eliminates variability caused by sampling
D
eliminates variability caused by any kind of factor
Question 232 Explanation: 
The Principle of Local Control is another important principle of experimental designs. Under it the extraneous factor, the known source of variability, is made to vary deliberately over as wide a range as necessary and this needs to be done in such a way that the variability it causes can be measured and hence eliminated from the experimental error. This means that we should plan the experiment in a manner that we can perform a two-way analysis of variance, in which the total variability of the data is divided into three components attributed to treatments (varieties of rice in our case), the extraneous factor (soil fertility in our case) and experimental error. In other words, according to the principle of local control, we first divide the field into several homogeneous parts, known as blocks, and then each such block is divided into parts equal to the number of treatments. Then the treatments are randomly assigned to these parts of a block. Dividing the field into several homogenous parts is known as ‘blocking’. In general, blocks are the levels at which we hold an extraneous factor fixed, so that we can measure its contribution to the total variability of the data by means of a two-way analysis of variance. In brief, through the principle of local control we can eliminate the variability due to extraneous factor(s) from the experimental error.
Question 233
Which of the following is a type of factorial design?
A
Heterogeneous factorial design
B
Simplex factorial design
C
Simple factorial design
D
Homogeneous factorial design
Question 234
In the context of hypothesis testing, which of the following options is the meaning of the statement “Test the hypothesis at 10% level of significance”?
A
The null hypothesis H0 would be rejected when the sampling result has a less than 0.1 probability occurrence when H0 is true
B
The risk of rejecting the alternative hypothesis is 10%
C
The percentage of type I error is 10%
D
The probability of a false negative is 0.1
Question 235
To conduct an experimental hypothesis-testing research, the group that is exposed to certain new or specific conditions is called _____ group.
A
control
B
subject
C
object
D
experimental
Question 236
Sampling design refers to the procedure adopted by a researcher to select items from _____
A
examples
B
samples
C
universe
D
pool
Question 237
Which one of the following is not a type of research design?
A
Descriptive and diagnostic research design
B
Exploratory research design
C
Hypothesis-testing research design
D
Confirmatory research design
Question 238
Which of the following types of data is not numerical in nature?
A
Interval
B
Nominal
C
Ordinal
D
Ratio
Question 239
Ranking and rating are important _____ techniques.
A
sampling
B
measurement
C
scaling
D
testing
Question 240
Which of the following is not a sample design?
A
Chance
B
Quota
C
Random
D
Focus
Question 241
The principle of replication, principle of randomization and principle of local control are three principles of ______.
A
sampling
B
measurement
C
ranking
D
experimental design
Question 242
The cost of _____ involved in sampling analysis determines the selection of the sampling procedure
A
computers
B
data preprocessing
C
data storage devices
D
drawing incorrect inference from the selected data
Question 243
Recursively enumerable languages are not closed under
A
concatenation
B
complement
C
union
D
homomorphism
Question 243 Explanation: 
Recursively enumerable languages are closed under concatenation,union,homomorphism but not closed under complementation
Question 244
Let L be a language that can be recognized by a finite automaton. The language LR consisting of reverse of the elements of L is a
A
regular language
B
context-free language
C
context-sensitive language
D
recursive language
Question 244 Explanation: 
The language that can be recognized by a finite automata is called regular language.And regular language is closed under reversal
Question 245

Consider the following context-free grammar:

S → XY, X → aX | bX | a, Y → Ya | Yb | a

A string generated by this grammar has
A
at least one b
B
no consecutive a’s or b’s
C
at least two a’s
D
last symbol as a
E
None of the above
Question 245 Explanation: 
Let's check option wise,
Option a is false because string “aa” is generated by the given grammar which does not contain b’s.
Option b is false because string “aa” is generated by the given grammar which contains consecutive a’s.
Option d is false because string “aba” contains the last symbol as ‘a’ but not generated by the grammar.
Option c is also false because string “aba” contains two a’s but not generated by the grammar.
Question 246
The basic logic of pumping lemma can be considered as a good example of
A
recursion
B
iteration
C
pigeonhole principle
D
divide-and-conquer
Question 246 Explanation: 
The pigeonhole principle states that if you have fewer holes than objects then at least one holes has multiple objects in it.It states that put one object in each hole and then there must exist at least one hole which must have more than one object.
In the theory of formal languages in computability theory, a pumping lemma or pumping argument states that, for a particular language to be a member of a language class, any sufficiently long string in the language contains a section, or sections, that can be removed, or repeated any number of times, with the resulting string remaining in that language. The proofs of these lemmas typically require counting arguments such as the pigeonhole principle. Hence, the logic of pumping lemma is a good example of the pigeonhole principle.
Question 247
Which of the following scheduling algorithms is non-preemptive?
A
Round-robin
B
First in, first out
C
Multilevel queue scheduling
D
Multilevel queue scheduling with feedback
Question 247 Explanation: 
First-in-first-out scheduling algorithms are non preemptive scheduling algorithms because in this the process is served according to first come first served manner.
Question 248
The part of machine level instruction, which tells central processor what has to be done, is
A
address
B
locator
C
operation code
D
flip-flop
Question 248 Explanation: 
An opcode (abbreviated from operation code), also known as instruction machine code, is the portion of a machine language instruction that specifies the operation to be performed. Beside the opcode itself, most instructions also specify the data they will process, in the form of operands.
Question 249
Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
A
Dispatcher
B
Interrupt
C
Scheduler
D
None of the above
Question 249 Explanation: 
The process is selected by the scheduler and then it is the dispatcher who gives the control of the CPU to the process selected by the scheduler
Question 250
Which of the following is the locality of reference used in OS?
A
Memory is the locality in the system
B
Cache memory is local memory
C
Main memory is local memory
D
Control moves from one locality to another during the execution
Question 250 Explanation: 
Cache operation is based on the principle of locality of reference. There are two ways with which data or instruction is fetched from main memory and get stored in cache memory. These two ways are the following:
->Spatial locality
->Temporal locality
Question 251
The database does not have the component
A
user data
B
metadata
C
reports
D
indexes
Question 251 Explanation: 
Component of database includes indexes, data dictionary, metadata, description. But reports are not components. It is generated by user according to their need.
Question 252
Data duplication is affected by normalization in the way it
A
eliminates
B
reduces
C
increases
D
does not affect at all
Question 252 Explanation: 
Database normalization is the process of structuring the relational database in accordance with the series of so called normal forms in order to reduce data redundancy and improve data integrity.
Question 253
There are no multivalued attributes and also no partial dependencies in a relation. The relation is in
A
first normal form
B
second normal form
C
third normal form
D
fourth normal form
Question 253 Explanation: 
A relation is in 2NF or second normal form if there is no partial dependencies in a relation.
Question 254
Relational algebra is related to
A
metalanguage
B
data definition language
C
procedural query language
D
non-procedural query language
Question 254 Explanation: 
Relational algebra is procedural query language.
Question 255
Which of the following operations can be applied on arrays?
A
Updation
B
Addition
C
Deletion
D
All of the above
Question 255 Explanation: 
An array is collection of items stored at contiguous memory locations. The idea is to store multiple items of same type together. This makes it easier to calculate the position of each element by simply adding an offset to a base value, i.e., the memory location of the first element of the array
All of the above given operations can be applied on arrays.
Question 256
The binary search of n data elements needs at most the comparisons
A
log2(n) - 1
B
log2(n)+ 1
C
log2(n) - 2
D
log2(n) - 4
Question 257
Which is not true for a B-tree of order m?
A
Leaf nodes must be at the same level
B
All the key values within a node must be in ascending order
C
All non-leaf nodes must have at least m/2 children
D
A non-leaf node with (n-1) keys must have n numbers of children
Question 257 Explanation: 
Option c is false because if non leaf node is root node then it can have atleast two children
Question 258
Which is not true about the graphs, assuming number of nodes/vertices as n?
A
They can be represented by using adjacency list
B
They can be represented by using adjacency matrix
C
They can be represented by using incidence matrix
D
Addition of a node has complexity O(n)
Question 258 Explanation: 
Question 259
A program written in C is converted into machine language using
A
interpreter
B
compiler
C
editor
D
loader
Question 259 Explanation: 
A compiler takes the program code (source code) and converts the source code to a machine language module (called an object file).
Question 260
Consider the following statements inC: int arr[10];
A
arr and &arr[0] point to the address of first element
B
arr[0] is equivalent to *arr
C
Both (a) and (b) are correct
D
Either (a) or (b) is correct
Question 260 Explanation: 
Option a is correct. Option b is correct because arr[i] is equivalent to *(arr+i).
Question 261

#include

long int mNumber(int n);

int main( )

{

scanf(“%d”, &n)

printf(“%d”, mNum(n));

return 0;

}

long int mNum(int n);

{

return n * mNum(n-1);

}



Consider the above program, if a user enters input 5, the output will be
A
120
B
nNum(5)
C
4!
D
Cannot be computed
Question 261 Explanation: 
The output cannot be computed because there is no terminating condition in the function mNum(), and so the function will fall into infinite loop whatever value is given;
Question 262

Main ( )

{

printf(“\no borrow from”);

printf(“\bablu or”);

printf(“\rohit”);

}



The output is
A
no borrow from bablu or rohit
B
no bablu rohit borrow or from
C
Both are correct depending on the process
D
None of the above
Question 262 Explanation: 
The output is ohitrrow froablu or
Question 263
The software interrupts in 8085 are in numbers
A
5
B
8
C
12
D
16
Question 263 Explanation: 
There are 8 software interrupts in 8085 microprocessor.
Question 264
To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside a critical section is
A
7
B
5
C
3
D
1
Question 264 Explanation: 
Race condition occurs if more than one processes is inside the critical section. So to avoid race condition only 1 process should be allowed inside the critical section.
Question 265
Stack pointer in 8085 is
A
a 16-bit register microprocessor used to indicate the beginning of stack memory
B
a register used to decode and execute 16-bit arithmetic expression
C
first memory location used to store a subroutine address
D
a register used to flag bits
Question 265 Explanation: 
For 8085: Stack pointer is a special purpose 16-bit register in the Microprocessor, which holds the address of the top of the stack.
Question 266
Which determines the address of I/O interface?
A
Register select
B
Chip select
C
Both of the above
D
None of the above
Question 267
The network layer does not have the functionality
A
routing
B
inter-networking
C
congestion control
D
error correction
Question 267 Explanation: 
Routing, inter-networking and congestion control are the functionality of network layer but error correction is not the functionality of network layer.
Question 268
An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called
A
socket
B
pipe
C
port
D
named pipe
Question 268 Explanation: 
An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called the socket.
Question 269
Transport layer protocol is associated to
A
application to application
B
process to process
C
node to node
D
end to end
Question 269 Explanation: 
Transport layer protocol is associated to end to end communication
Network layer protocol is associated to process to process or host to host communication.
Data link layer protocol is associated to node to node communication.
Question 270
A packet travels from one end system to another end system. The delay occurring in travelling the packet is
A
propagation delay
B
queuing delay
C
transmission delay
D
All of the above
Question 270 Explanation: 
When a packet has to travel from one end system to another, it first faces the queuing delay when there are multiple packets which are to be sent, then it faces the transmission delay to convert the packet into bits to be transmitted, and then it faces the propagation delay to propagate the bits through.
Question 271
A packet travels from one end system to another end system. The delay occurring in travelling the packet is
A
propagation delay
B
queuing delay
C
transmission delay
D
All of the above
Question 271 Explanation: 
When a packet has to travel from one end system to another, it first faces the queuing delay when there are multiple packets which are to be sent, then it faces the transmission delay to convert the packet into bits to be transmitted, and then it faces the propagation delay to propagate the bits through.
Question 272
A function f(x) is defined as f(x) = x - [x], where [∙] represents the greatest integer function (GIF). Then
A
f(x) will be integral part of x
B
f(x) will be fractional part of x
C
f(x) will always be zero
D
f(x) will always be non-zero
Question 272 Explanation: 
The value of x can be any real no. but [x] will be only integral part of x. Hence x - [x] will be always fractional part of x.
Question 273
Let f and g be functions from the set of integers to itself, defined by f(x) = (x + 1)2 and g(x) = x2 + 1. Then the function f∘g is
A
(x^2+2)^2
B
(x^2+1)^2
C
(x^2+1)^2 (x^2+1)
D
None of the above
Question 273 Explanation: 
Question 274
The variance of the binomial distribution with parameters n and p is given by
A
p
B
np
C
p(1 - p)
D
np(1 - p)
Question 274 Explanation: 
The mean of the binomial distribution is np and the variance of binomial distribution is np(1-p).
Question 275
The mean of the exponential distribution with parameter λ is given by
A
λ
B
1/λ
C
λ2
D
λ(1 - λ)
Question 275 Explanation: 
The mean of the exponential distribution is 1/λ .
Question 276
The ratio of the mean to the variance of the Poisson distribution with parameter λ is given by
A
λ
B
1/λ
C
1
D
1 - λ
Question 276 Explanation: 
The mean and variance of the poisson distribution is same and it is λ . So the ratio of mean to variance will be λ/λ = 1.
Question 277
Which of the following distributions has the property of being memoryless?
A
Normal
B
Bernoulli
C
Binomial
D
Exponential
Question 277 Explanation: 
The memoryless property (also called the forgetfulness property) means that a given probability distribution is independent of its history. Any time may be marked down as time zero.
If a probability distribution has the memoryless property the likelihood of something happening in the future has no relation to whether or not it has happened in the past. The history of the function is irrelevant to the future.
The exponential distribution has the property of being memoryless.
Question 278
In the beta distribution, the expected value of the random variable x is calculated as
A
E(x) = m /(m-n)
B
E(x) = m /(m+n)
C
E(x) = n /(m+n)
D
E(x) = n/(m*n)
Question 278 Explanation: 
In probability theory and statistics, the beta distribution is a family of continuous probability distributions defined on the interval [0, 1] parameterized by two positive shape parameters, denoted by α and β, that appear as exponents of the random variable and control the shape of the distribution.
The expected value (mean) (μ) of a Beta distribution random variable X with two parameters α and β is a function of only the ratio β/α of these parameters:
Question 279
Process in which the trials are statistically independent and each trial of event has only two outcomes is classified as
A
Bayes process
B
functional process
C
independent limited process
D
Bernoulli process
Question 279 Explanation: 
In the theory of probability and statistics, a Bernoulli trial (or binomial trial) is a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted.
Question 280
The expected value of the random variable x of gamma distribution is
A
E(x)=pq/μ
B
E(x)=μ/np
C
E(x)=n/μ
D
E(x)=α/μ
Question 281
If we toss a biased coin that has P(H) = 2P(T), then the probability of coming head is
A
0
B
1/2
C
1/3
D
2/3
Question 281 Explanation: 
Question 282
The covariance cov(X, Y) of two independent random variables X and Y is
A
0
B
1
C
-1
D
var(X) var(Y)
Question 282 Explanation: 
The covariance cov(X,Y) of two independent random variables X and Y is 0.
Question 283
A set of all possible outcomes of an experiment is called
A
combination
B
sample point
C
compound event
D
sample space
Question 283 Explanation: 
The set of all possible outcomes for an experiment is called a sample space.
Question 284
Classroom communication must be
A
teacher-centric
B
student-centric
C
general-centric
D
textbook-centric
Question 284 Explanation: 
Classroom communication must be student centric because teacher should come to the class for teaching to student. He does not take general or his personal topics. He has to find the need of students. Teacher should also check abilities, interests, and learning styles. On this basis, he has to communicate to his students.
Question 285
The type of communication that a teacher has in the class is termed as
A
interpersonal
B
mass communication
C
group communication
D
face-to-face communication
Question 285 Explanation: 
The term "group communication" refers to the messages that are exchanged by group members. These messages, whether verbal or nonverbal, are important to groups because it is through the exchange of messages that group members participate, maintain the group identity, determine goals, motivate participation, and do the many things that keep the group intact
Question 286
Interaction inside the class should generate
A
argument
B
information
C
ideas
D
controversy
Question 286 Explanation: 
When you as teacher gives the opportunity to your students to talk and interact, you should not allow to give argument. . So, he should motivate students for generating new ideas.
Question 287
The best method of teaching is to
A
initiate discussion and participate
B
import information
C
ask students to read books
D
suggest good reference material
Question 288
Teacher’s most precious asset is
A
his/her job
B
student’s faith
C
prejudice
D
books
Question 289
The most important thing in the behaviour of a teacher is
A
dominance
B
discipline
C
sympathy
D
patience
Question 290
Which of the following is not research?
A
Exploratory research study
B
Descriptive research study
C
Diagnostic research study
D
Populistic research study
Question 291
Successful teacher is one who can
A
teach subject text properly
B
describe the subject
C
encourage the students
D
help in evaluation
Question 292
The number of significant digits in the number 4.3700×10Ms-2 is
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 292 Explanation: 
4.3700×(10^-2) = 0.043700 =0.0437 = .0437 . Hence the no. of significant digits in the given no. is 4.
Question 293
The research that aims at finding the solutions for an intermediate problem faced by a society, industry or business organization can be closely related to
A
applied research
B
fundamental research
C
conceptual research
D
primary research
Question 293 Explanation: 
Applied research aims at finding a solution for an immediate problem facing a society, or an industrial/business organisation
Question 294
Round-off error in the number 6.436 rounded off to 6.44 is
A
0.0062%
B
0.062%
C
0.62%
D
6.2%
Question 294 Explanation: 
Question 295
ANOVA stands for
A
Analysis of Vector
B
Analysis of Validation
C
Analysis of Variance
D
Analysis of Variability
Question 295 Explanation: 
Analysis of variance, a statistical method in which the variation in a set of observations is divided into distinct components.
Question 296
A good research should be
A
logical
B
replicable
C
systematic
D
All of the above
Question 296 Explanation: 
To qualify as good research, the process must have certain characteristics and properties: it must, as fair as possible, be controlled, rigorous, systematic, valid and verifiable, empirical and critical.
Question 297
A good research investigating the reasons for human behaviour could be closely termed as
A
quantitative research
B
qualitative research
C
fundamental research
D
simulation research
Question 297 Explanation: 
The aim of a qualitative research project may vary with the disciplinary background, such as a psychologist seeking in-depth understanding of human behavior and the reasons that govern such behavior for example. Qualitative methods are best for researching many of the why and how questions of human experience, in making a decision for example (not just what, where, when, or "who"); and have a strong basis in the field of sociology to understand government and social programs
Question 298
Through the principle of replication, the accuracy of experiments
A
is increased
B
is decreased
C
is not affected
D
may decrease or increase
Question 298 Explanation: 
According to the Principle of Replication, the experiment should be repeated more than once. Thus, each treatment is applied in many experimental units instead of one. By doing so the statistical accuracy of the experiments is increased. ... The entire experiment can even be repeated several times for better results.
Question 299
Given E(x) = 5 and E(Y) = -3, then E(3X + 2Y) is
A
3
B
5
C
9
D
-2
Question 299 Explanation: 
E(3X + 2Y) = 3E(X) + 2E(Y) = 3*5 + 2*-3 = 15 - 6 = 9
Question 300
Which of the following inequalities is useful for interpreting variances?
A
Chebyshev
B
Statutory
C
Testory
D
All of the mentioned
Question 300 Explanation: 
Chebyshev's inequality is useful for interpreting variances.
Question 301
The weight of persons in a city is a random variable of type
A
discrete random variable
B
continuous random variable
C
mixed-type random variable
D
None of the above
Question 301 Explanation: 
Continuous random variables have numeric values that can be any number in an interval. For example, the (exact) weight of a person is a continuous random variable. Foot length is also a continuous random variable. Continuous random variables are often measurements, such as weight or length.
Question 302
Which of the following is not a type of research design?
A
Confirmatory research design
B
Descriptive and diagnostic research design
C
Exploratory research design
D
Hypothesis-testing research design
Question 303
A
0
B
∞
C
1
D
f(x) + 1
Question 303 Explanation: 
Question 304
Consider a B+ tree in which the maximum number of keys in a node is 5. What is the minimum number of keys in a non-root node?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 305
Which of the following sorting algorithms has the lowest worst case complexity?
A
Merge sort
B
Bubble sort
C
Quick sort
D
Selection sort
Question 306
The postfix expression for the infix expression A + B * (C + D)/ F + D * E is
A
AB + CD + *F / D + E *
B
ABCD + *F / + DE* +
C
A*B + CD / F*DE ++
D
A + *BCD / F*DE ++
Question 307
Consider the process of inserting an element into a Max Heap, where the Max Heap is represented by an array. Suppose, we perform binary search on the path from the new leaf to the root for finding the position of newly inserted element, the number of comparisons performed is
A
O(log2 n)
B
O(log2 log2 n)
C
O(n)
D
O(n log2 n)
Question 308

The following program
       
main ()

        { printf(“%u”, main);}

is
A
printing a garbage number
B
giving an execution error
C
printing of starting address of the main function
D
having an infinite loop
Question 309

Consider the following program fragment

int v=3, *pv=&v;

printf(“%d, %d”, v, *pv);

The output will be
A
an error message
B
3, address of v
C
3, 3
D
None of above
Question 310
The operation of a staircase switch best explains the
A
or operation
B
and operation
C
exclusive nor operation
D
exclusive or operation
Question 311
The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is
A
block
B
dispatch
C
wakeup
D
None of the above
Question 312

What is the correct matching for the following pairs?

(A) Disk Scheduling (I) Round robin

(B) Batch Processing (II) SCAN

(C) Time sharing (III) LIFO

(D) Interrupt Processing (IV) FIFO
A
A-III, B-IV, C-II and D-I
B
A-IV, B-III, C-II and D-I
C
A-II, B-IV, C-I and D-III
D
A-II, B-I, C-IV and D-III
Question 313
A system has 3 processes and is sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a maximum of 2 units then, deadlock
A
can never occur
B
may occur
C
has to occur
D
all of the above
Question 314

A process refers to 5 pages, A, B, C, D and E in the order

A→B→C→D→A→B→E→A→B→C→D→E. If the page replacement algorithm is FIFO, the number of pages transfers with an empty internal store of 3 frames are:
A
8
B
10
C
9
D
7
Question 315
In an entity relationship, y is the dominant entity and x is the subordinate entity. Which of the following is a correct statement?
A
Operationally, if y is deleted, so is x
B
Operationally, if x is deleted, so is y
C
Operationally, if x is deleted, y remains the same
D
x is existence dependent on y
Question 316

Given the functional dependencies

X → W; X → Y; X → Z; Z → PQ

Which of the following does not hold?
A
X → Z
B
X → WY
C
W → Z
D
None of the above
Question 317
If P and Q are predicates and P is the relational algebra expression, then which of the following equivalences are not valid?
A
B
C
D
Question 318
Which one of the following statements is false?
A
Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF
B
Any relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF
C
A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in a 3NF relation
D
A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in a BCNF relation
Question 319
(100000)2 is Hexadecimal is:
A
10
B
20
C
80
D
100
Question 320
If negative numbers are stored in 2’s complement form, the range of numbers that can be stored in 8 bits is
A
-128 to +128
B
-127 to +128
C
-128 to +127
D
-127 to +127
Question 321
Which of the following is the minimum error code?
A
Octal code
B
Binary code
C
Gray code
D
Excess-3 code
Question 322
Microprogram is
A
the name of a source program in microcomputer
B
a primitive form of macros used in assembly language programming
C
a program of very small size
D
the set of instructions indicating the primitive operations in a system
Question 323
How many flip-flop circuits are needed to divide by 16?
A
2
B
4
C
8
D
16
Question 324
Let A be a set having ‘n’ elements. The number of binary operations that can be defined on A is:
A
nn2
B
2nn
C
n2n
D
22n
Question 325
Which of the following logic families is well suited for high speed operation?
A
TTL
B
ECL
C
MOS
D
CMOS
Question 326
You need 500 subnets, each with about 100 usable host addresses per subnet. What mask will you assign using a Class B network address?
A
255.255.255.252
B
255.255.255.128
C
255.255.255.0
D
255.255.254.0
Question 327
What is route poisoning?
A
It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stop the regular updates
B
It is information received from a router that can not be sent back to the originating router
C
It prevent regular update message from reinstating a route that has just come up
D
It describes when a router sets metrics for a downed link to infinity
Question 328
What is the smiley (emoticons) used for “Big nose” in E-mail?
A
: - )
B
; - )
C
: + )
D
< : - )
Question 329
Which of the following modes are valid when a switch port is used as a VLAN trunk?
A
Blocking
B
Desirable
C
Transparent
D
Learning
Question 330
Consider the set of real numbers with the binary relation R = {(i,j) : ij ≤ 0}. Which one of the following statements about R is true?
A
R is reflexive
B
R is symmetric
C
R is transitive
D
None of the above
Question 331
Which one of the following is a cyclic group?
A
Rational numbers under addition
B
nth roots of unity under multiplication
C
Non-zero real numbers under multiplication
D
Complex numbers under addition
Question 332
The number of relations on a set with n elements which are reflexive is
A
B
C
D
Question 333
Which of the following is a graph that is acyclic but not connected?
A
Tree
B
Forest
C
Spanning Tree
D
None of the above
Question 334
The minimum time delay between the initiations of two independent memory operations is called
A
access time
B
cycle time
C
transfer rate
D
latency time
Question 335

The number of errors in the following shell script is/are

echo How are you?

read $ answer
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 336
A
8/3
B
C
D
Question 337
A
B
C
D
Question 338
A
log (cos x) + C
B
log (sec x + tan x) + C
C
log |cos x| + C
D
log |sin x + tan x| + C
Question 339
A
2/15
B
1/24
C
1/120
D
∞
Question 340
The order of in the multiplicative group of invertible 2×2 matrices is:
A
1
B
2
C
4
D
8
Question 341
Let a, b be arbitrary elements of an abstract group G. Which of the following statements is always TRUE in general?
A
a b = b a
B
C
D
Question 342
Which of the following sets is a subgroup of the multiplicative group of non-zero real numbers?
A
Positive real numbers
B
Non-negative real numbers
C
Positive integers
D
Non-negative rational numbers
Question 343
The remainder obtained after x<sup>5</sup> + x + 1 is divided by x<sup>2</sup> + x + 1 is:
A
1
B
x
C
x + 1
D
0
Question 344
Given that a 200×100 matrix has rank 10, its nullity is:
A
90
B
110
C
210
D
190
Question 345
The rank of any general 300×100 matrix cannot be greater than
A
1
B
100
C
200
D
300
Question 346
The number of solutions of   is
A
0
B
1
C
Infinite
D
None of the above
Question 347
Clockwise rotations by 45∘ in the two dimensional plane is given by
A
B
C
D
Question 348
Which of these is NOT the name of a method to compute a numerical solution of ODEs?
A
Euler
B
Simpson
C
Runge-Kutta
D
Milne
Question 349
Which of these has the fastest speed of convergence to the root of a polynomial equation?
A
Newton-Raphson
B
Regula-falsi
C
Secant
D
Bisection
Question 350
Peta is a prefix to denote multiplication by 2 to the power of
A
20
B
30
C
40
D
50
Question 351
The worst case running time of Bubble sort is
A
O(n)
B
O(log n)
C
O(n2)
D
O(n log n)
Question 352
Which of the following is not a general objective of research?
A
To gain familiarity with a phenomenon
B
To describe characteristics of a particular individual, group, or situation
C
To make decision to determine the policies
D
To test a hypothesis of a casual relationship between variables
Question 353
Research related to survey and fact-finding enquiries of different kind is called
A
Descriptive research
B
Analytical research
C
Conceptual research
D
Fundamental research
Question 354
The research approach that involves construction of an artificial environment within which relevant information and data can be generated is called
A
Experimental approach
B
Inferential approach
C
Qualitative approach
D
Simulation approach
Question 355
Non-probabilistic sampling is also known as
A
Judgement sampling
B
Artificial sampling
C
Inconvenience sampling
D
Random sampling
Question 356
Which of the following is not a formal experimental design?
A
Randomized block design
B
Factorial design
C
Latin square design
D
Latin cubic design
Question 357
Which of the following is not a part of research design?
A
Sampling design
B
Judgement design
C
Operational design
D
Observational design
Question 358
Which of the following is not a group of research process?
A
Methods that are used for collection of data
B
Methods that are used for establishing between the data and unknowns
C
Methods that are used to evaluate the accuracy of the results
D
Methods that are used in publishing research
Question 359
Which of the following is not a part of research process?
A
Hypothesis testing
B
Sample design
C
Reviewing of research articles
D
Literature survey
Question 360
Independent variables that are not part of the study, but may effect the dependent variable are termed as
A
Control variables
B
Extraneous variables
C
Confounded variables
D
Internal variables
Question 361
Predictive statement that relates an independent variable to a dependent variable is called
A
Research hypothesis
B
Research proposition
C
Research predicate
D
Research principle
Question 362
Which of the following is not a basic principle of experimental design?
A
Principle of Replication
B
Principle of Randomization
C
Principle of Error control
D
Principle of Local control
Question 363
In an experimental hypothesis testing when a group is exposed to usual conditions, it is known as
A
Experimental group
B
Control group
C
Special group
D
Usual group
Question 364
Replication in experimental design is introduced
A
To increase the protection against the effects of extraneous
B
To increase the standard deviation of the study
C
To increase the consistency of study
D
To increase the precision of study
Question 365
Sampling error does not include
A
Frame error
B
Chance error
C
Data collection error
D
Response error
Question 366
Any characteristic or Measure of population is known as
A
Parameter
B
Statistic
C
Estimate
D
Approximation
Question 367
Which of the following is the correct statement?
A
Sampling error is directly related to sample size
B
Sampling error is not related to sample size
C
Sampling error inversely related to sample size
D
Sampling error is multiple of sample size
Question 368
Research methodology is a
A
way to systematically perform research operations
B
way to systematically carry out the research
C
way to systematically publish the research work
D
way to systematically analyse the results of the research
Question 369
Which of the following is not an informal experimental design?
A
Before-and-after without control
B
Before-and-after with control
C
Before-only with control
D
After-only with control
Question 370
A
B
C
D
Question 371
In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he/she attempts all 75 questions and obtains 125 marks, how many questions does he/she attempt correctly?
A
35
B
38
C
40
D
42
Question 372
There are five different houses, A to E, in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle?
A
A
B
D
C
B
D
E
Question 373
If the first ten letters of the alphabet are written in the reverse order, followed by the rest of the alphabet from left to right, which of the following letters will be the 7th to the left of the 12th letter from the right?
A
B
B
H
C
C
D
I
Question 374
If every alternate letter starting from B of the alphabet are written in small letters and the rest are written in capital letters, how will “computer” be written?
A
COMpUtEr
B
COmputEr
C
CoMPUtEr
D
COmPuTEr
Question 375
If every alternate letter starting from B of the alphabet are written in small letters and the rest are written in capital letters, how will “computer” be written?
A
COMpUtEr
B
COmputEr
C
CoMPUtEr
D
COmPuTEr
Question 376
Which one of the following interchange of operations will make the equation 12 ÷ 2 - 6 × 3 + 8 = 16 correct?
A
+ and ×
B
+ and ÷
C
+ and -
D
÷ and ×
Question 377
The probability P(|X-μ |⩽2σ) where X is a random variable following Normal distribution with mean μ  and variance σ2 is approximately:
A
0.65
B
0.95
C
0.99
D
1
Question 378
Which of the OSI layers does synchronization and dialog control?
A
Data link layer
B
Network layer
C
Session layer
D
Transport layer
Question 379
The sampling rate for an analog signal with frequencies 1000 to 8000Hz.
A
4000 samples per second
B
8000 samples per second
C
12000 samples per second
D
16000 samples per second
Question 380

Consider the network as shown in figure. Suppose that it uses flooding as the routing algorithm. If a packet sent by A to H has a maximum hop count of 2. The number of packets that are generated are, assume, no duplicate is discarded


A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
Question 381
A network of the Internet has a subnet mask 255.255.240.0. What is the maximum number of hosts it can handle?
A
1
B
4
C
6
D
16
Question 382
Which of the following is non-adaptive routing?
A
Flooding routing
B
Distance vector routing
C
Hierarchical routing
D
Link state routing
Question 383
The bridge operates at the layer
A
Application layer
B
Transport layer
C
Network layer
D
Data link layer
Question 384
What is the bit rate of 16-QAM signal that have the baud rate 8 baud per second
A
8 bits per second
B
16 bits per second
C
24 bits per second
D
32 bits per second
Question 385
Which statement is true for Nyquist Theorem?
A
The sampling rate must be equal to the highest frequency
B
The sampling rate must be equal the lowest frequency
C
The sampling rate must be at least two times the lowest frequency
D
The sampling rate must be at least two times the highest frequency
Question 386
In frequency modulation, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing in
A
Amplitude of the modulating signal
B
Frequency of the modulating signal
C
Phase of the modulating signal
D
Amplitude and phase for the modulating signal
Question 387
What causes Thrashing in the memory management scheme?
A
High computing activity
B
High I/O activity
C
Low I/O activity
D
None
Question 388
Which of the following is the property of the reentrant code?
A
it can modify itself
B
it cannot modify itself
C
it cannot be shared
D
None of the above
Question 389
The function of the ALU in the CPU is
A
It transfers data to primary memory
B
It decodes the instructions of the program
C
It performs logical operations
D
It stores intermediate data
Question 390
The number of entries required in FAT table of a disk with capacity of 30MB, given block size as 512b and block per cluster as 4, is
A
30 × 29
B
30 × 211
C
30 × 215
D
30 × 27
Question 391
In which of the memory allocation, the algorithm First Fit, Best Fit and Worst Fit are used?
A
Contiguous allocation
B
Linked allocation
C
Indexed allocation
D
All of the above
Question 392
What will happen to average turnaround time in a Round Robin CPU scheduling, if the time quantum is increased?
A
It will decrease
B
It will increase
C
It will remain constant
D
It will vary irregularly
Question 393
What is the use of Dirty bit in memory management?
A
To keep track of the wrong page
B
To keep track of the corrupt data in page
C
To keep track of least frequently used page
D
To keep track of the modified page
Question 394
The correct syntax of copy constructor for a given class X in C++ is
A
X(X& object)
B
X(X object)
C
X(X* object)
D
X(&X object)
Question 395
What is meant by pure virtual function?
A
Function which does not have definition of its own
B
Function which does have definition of its own
C
Function which does not have any return type
D
None of the mentioned
Question 396
Which one of the following statement is not true for static member function
A
Static member functions do not have this pointer
B
Static member function cannot be virtual
C
Static member function can not be declared const, volatile, or const volatile
D
Static member functions can be called using object name
Question 397

What does the following statement mean?

int (*fp)(char*)
A
pointer to a pointer
B
pointer to an array of chars
C
pointer to function taking a char* argument and returns an int
D
function taking a char* argument and returning a pointer to int
Question 398
Which of the following statements is true about continue statement?
A
It terminates the loop
B
It terminates the current iteration of the loop
C
It can be used or as a switch body
D
None of these
Question 399
Which of the following is a correct way to declare two integer pointers a and b?
A
int* a,b
B
int *a, int *b;
C
int *a, *b
D
None of these
Question 400
The method used to pass an array to a function is:
A
Value
B
Reference
C
Cannot be passed to functions
D
None of these
Question 401
The size occupied by a string literal constant in the memory is:
A
One more than the number of characters in the string
B
Same as the number of characters in the string
C
One less than the number of characters in the string
D
None of these
Question 402
Which one of the following is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record?
A
Candidate key
B
Sub key
C
Super key
D
Foreign key
Question 403
Every table with two single valued atomic attributes is in
A
1NF, 2NF, 3NF
B
1NF, 2NF but not in 3NF
C
Only in 1NF
D
Only in 2NF
Question 404
Which normal form simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and repetitive group?
A
1NF
B
2NF
C
3NF
D
All of the mentioned
Question 405
From following, which is not considered to be a computer peripheral device
A
disk drive
B
keyboard
C
CPU
D
monitor
Question 406
______ is used to store data in registers
A
JK flip flop
B
RS flip flop
C
D flip flop
D
None of the mentioned
Question 407
Which of the following is an approach of control unit design:
A
Parallel programming
B
Micro programming
C
Java programming
D
None of the above
Question 408
In a stack, if a user tries to remove an element from empty stack it is called
A
Underflow
B
Empty collection
C
Overflow
D
Garbage Collection
Question 409
A queue is a
A
FIFO (First In First Out) list
B
LIFO (Last In First Out) list
C
Ordered array
D
Linear tree
Question 410
What is the time complexity of inserting a node in a doubly linked list?
A
O(nlogn)
B
O(logn)
C
O(n)
D
O(1)
Question 411
In a binary search tree, which of the following traversal would print the numbers in the ascending order?
A
Level-order traversal
B
Pre-order traversal
C
Post-order traversal
D
In-order traversal
Question 412
We need a binary tree which is height balanced because
A
to avoid formation of skew trees
B
to save memory
C
to attain faster memory access
D
to simplify storing
Question 413
Quicksort can be categorized into the class
A
Brute Force technique
B
Divide and conquer
C
Greedy algorithm
D
Dynamic programming
Question 414
For a given Moore Machine and Input = ‘101010’, the output would be of length:
A
|length|+1
B
|length|
C
|length-1|
D
Cannot be predicted
Question 415
A Language for which no DFA exists is a
A
Regular Language
B
Non-Regular Language
C
May be Regular
D
Cannot be said
Question 416
Concatenation of R with Ф outputs
A
R
B
Ф
C
R.Ф
D
None of the mentioned
Question 417
Given Grammar: S➝A, A➝aA, A➝e, B➝bA. Which among the following productions are Useless productions?
A
S➝A
B
A➝aA
C
A➝e
D
B➝bA
Question 418
Every grammar in Chomsky Normal Form is:
A
regular
B
context sensitive
C
context free
D
all of the mentioned
Question 419
The value of n if Turing machine is defined using n-tuples:
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
5
Question 420
A
Tautology
B
Contradiction
C
Contingency
D
None of the mentioned
Question 421
The set of positive integers is
A
Infinite
B
Finite
C
Subset
D
Empty
Question 422
Let C and D be two sets, then C - D is equivalent to
A
C’ ∩ D
B
C’ ∩ D’
C
C ∩ D’
D
None of the mentioned
Question 423
Let the sequence be 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 ……. Then this sequence is
A
An arithmetic progression
B
A geometric progression
C
A harmonic progression
D
None of the mentioned
Question 424
A matrix having one row and many columns is known as
A
Row matrix
B
Column matrix
C
Diagonal matrix
D
None of the mentioned
Question 425
The value of 155 mod 9 is
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 426
A function is said to be ______ if and only if f(a) = f(b) implies that a = b for all a and b in the domain of f.
A
One-to-many
B
One-to-one
C
Many-to-many
D
Many-to-one
Question 427
Integration of (Sin(x) + Cos(x))ex is
A
-ex Cos(x)
B
ex Sin(x)
C
-ex Tan(x)
D
ex (Sin(x)+Cos(x))
Question 428
A
sin x - cos x + c
B
sin 2x - cos x + c
C
sin x + cos 2x + c
D
sin x + cos x + c
Question 429
A
B
C
D
Question 430
A
π/2
B
π/4
C
π/8
D
π/16
Question 431
A
30(3/4)
B
20(2/5)
C
30(5/4)
D
20(3/4)
Question 432
The value of △log f(x) is
A
B
C
D
Question 433
A
B
C
D
Question 434
In the Gauss elimination method for solving a system of linear algebraic equations, triangularization leads to
A
Diagonal matrix
B
Lower triangular matrix
C
Upper triangular matrix
D
Singular matrix
Question 435
Order of convergence of regula-Falsi method is
A
1.321
B
1.618
C
2.231
D
2.312
Question 436
The system of linear equations (4d -1)x + y + z = 0 -y + z = 0 (4d - 1)z = 0 has a non-trivial solution, if d equals
A
½
B
¼
C
¾
D
1
Question 437

The Eigen values of the matrix:



are
A
1, 2, 2
B
1, 1, -2
C
2, 1, 2
D
-2, 1, -1
Question 438
The Eigen values of a skew-symmetric matrix are
A
negative
B
real
C
absolute value of 1
D
purely imaginary or zero
Question 439
What are the coordinates of the vector (-1,3,1) of V3 relative to the ordered basis B={(2,1,0), (2,1,1), (2,2,1)}
A
B
C
D
Question 440
The range of the linear transformation T: V2 ➝ V3 defined by T(x1,x2) = (x1,x1 + x2,x2) is
A
[(0,1,0), (0,1,1)]; 2
B
[(1,1,0), (0,1,0)]; 2
C
[(1,1,0), (0,1,1)]; 2
D
[(0,1,0), (1,1,0)]; 2
Question 441
A
3log 2
B
-3log 3
C
2log 2
D
3log 3
Question 442
A
B
C
D
Question 443
A
9/25
B
-9/25
C
9/28
D
3/25
Question 444
In a group (G,0), the equations a0x=b, y0a=b, where a,b∈G have
A
Unique solutions in G
B
Infinity solutions in G
C
No solution in G
D
None of above
Question 445
If (G, .) is a group such that a2 = e, ∀a ∈ G, then G is
A
Semi group
B
Abelian group
C
Non-abelian group
D
None of above
Question 446
The set of all real numbers under the usual multiplication operation is not a
A
multiplication is not a binary operation
B
multiplication is not associative
C
identity element does not exist
D
zero has no inverse
Question 447
In the group G = {2, 4, 6, 8} under multiplication modulo 10, the identity element is
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
Question 448
If R = {(1,2), (2,3), (3,3)} be a relation defined on A = {1, 2, 3}, then R.R (=R2) is
A
R itself
B
{(1,2), (1,3), (3,3)}
C
{(1,3), (2,3), (3,3)}
D
{(2,1), (1,3), (2,3)}
Question 449
The binary relation S=Φ (empty set) on set A = {1,2,3} is
A
neither reflexive nor symmetric
B
symmetric and reflexive
C
transitive and reflexive
D
transitive and symmetric
Question 450
Which of the following sets are null sets?
A
{0}
B
Ø
C
{ }
D
Both (b) & (c)
Question 451
The set of all Equivalence classes of a set A of cardinality C
A
has the same cardinality as A
B
forms a partition of A
C
is of cardinality 2*C
D
is of cardinality C2
Question 452
The set of all nth roots of unity under multiplication form a/an
A
semigroup with identity
B
commutative semigroups with identity
C
group
D
abelian group
Question 453
The admission ticket for an Art Gallery bears a password which is changed after every clock hour based on set of words chosen for each day. The following is an illustration of the code and steps of rearrangement for subsequent clock hours.
The Time is 9 a.m. to 3 p.m. Day’s first password:
First Batch - 9 a.m. to 10 a.m.
is not ready cloth simple harmony burning
Second Batch - 10 a.m. to 11 a.m.
ready not is cloth burning harmony simple
Third Batch - 11 a.m. to 12 noon
cloth is not ready simple harmony burning
Fourth Batch - 12 noon to 1 p.m.
not is cloth ready burning harmony simple
Fifth Batch - 1 p.m. to 2 p.m.
ready cloth is not simple harmony burning and so on.
If the password for 11 a.m. to 12 noon was - “soap shy miss pen yet the she”, what was the password for the First Batch?
A
pen miss shy soap she the yet
B
shy miss pen soap yet the she
C
soap pen miss shy she the yet
D
miss shy soap pen she the yet
Question 453 Explanation: 
cloth is not ready simple harmony burning
Soap shy miss pen yet the she
is not ready cloth simple harmony burning
shy miss pen soap yet the she
Question 454
There are 6 boxes numbered 1, 2, …...., 6. Each box is to be filled up either with a red or a green ball in such a way that at least 1 box contains a green ball and the boxes containing green balls are consecutively numbered. The total number of ways in which this can be done is:
A
18
B
19
C
20
D
21
Question 454 Explanation: 

1G 5R → 6 ways
2G 4R → 5 ways
3G 3R → 4 ways
4G 2R → 3 ways
5G 1R → 2 ways
6G 0R → 1 way
Total = 21 ways
Question 455
If a cube with length, height and width equal to 10 cm, is reduced to a smaller cube of height, length and width of 9 cm then reduction in volume is:
A
172 cm2
B
729 cm2
C
271 cm2
D
None of the options
Question 455 Explanation: 
= 103 - 93
= 271 cm3
Question 456
If 09/12/2001 (DD/MM/YYYY) happens to be Sunday, then 09/12/1971 would have been a:
A
Wednesday
B
Tuesday
C
Saturday
D
Thursday
Question 456 Explanation: 
In 30 years there are 22 non leap years and 8 leap years are there.
for every non leap year 1 odd day. and for leap year 2 odd days.
total no.of odd days = (22*1) + ( 8 * 2) = 38.
odd days = 38/7 = 3.
sunday - 3 = Thursday.
Note: Might be you did sunday + 3 = wednesday. ( here we need to calculate 30 day previous day )
Question 457
Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.
A
B
C
D
Question 458
What is the value of k for which the following system of equations has no solution:
2x - 8y = 3 and kx + 4y = 10
A
-2
B
1
C
-1
D
2
Question 458 Explanation: 
2X - 8Y = 3
KX + 4Y = 10
(a1 / a2) = (b1 / b2) ≠ (c1/c2)
2/K = (-8/4)
K= -1
Question 459
A player rolls a die and receives the same number of rupees as the number of dots on the face that turns up. What should the player pay for each roll if he wants to make a profit of one rupee per throw of the die in the long run?
A
₹ 2.50
B
₹ 2
C
₹ 3.50
D
₹ 4
Question 460
Gopal went to a fruit market with certain amount of money. With this money he can buy either 50 oranges or 40 mangoes. He retains 10% of the money for taxi fare. If he buys 20 mangoes, then the number of oranges he can buy with balance amount is:
A
25
B
20
C
18
D
6
Question 460 Explanation: 
50 0range = 40 Mangoes = X
Orange = X/50
Mangoes = X/40
→ X - 0.1 X - 20 M
→ X - 0.1 X - (20*(X/40))
→ 0.4 X
→ 0.4 * 50 Oranges
= 20 Oranges
Question 461
Number of letters repeated in the given word ‘MEASUREMENTS’ are indicated in front of each alternative. Identify the correct alternative.
A
M2E2A2S2U1R1N1T1
B
M2E3A1S1U2R1N2T1
C
M2E2A1S2U1R1N1T1
D
M2E3A1S2U1R1N1T1
Question 461 Explanation: 
Verify the options by counting the number of characters and matching with the subscript of the every character.
M2E3A1S2U1R1N1T1
Question 462
If X says that his mother is the only daughter of Y’s mother, then how is Y related to X?
A
Brother
B
Son
C
Uncle
D
Father
Question 463
A solid cube of each side 8 cm, has been painted red, blue and black on pairs of opposite faces. It is then cut into cubical blocks of each side 2 cm. How many cubes have no face painted?
A
0
B
4
C
8
D
12
Question 463 Explanation: 
8 → 3 face painted
24 → 2 face painted
24 → 1 face painted
8 → No face painted
Question 464
Find out the alternative figure which contains the given figure as its part.
A
B
C
D
Question 465
Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
A
B
C
D
Question 466
A university library budget committee must reduce exactly five of eight areas of expenditure - I, J, K, K, M, N, O and P - in accordance with the following conditions:
If both I and O are reduced, P is also reduced.
If L is reduced, neither N nor O is reduced.
If M is reduced, J is not reduced.
Of the three areas J, K and N exactly two are reduced.
If both K and N are reduced, which one of the following is a pair of areas neither of which could be reduced?
A
I, L
B
J, L
C
J, M
D
I, J
Question 466 Explanation: 

L i X reduced, Neither N or O are reduced.
K, N are reduced → J can’t be red.
So, the correct answer is J and L
Question 467
Which of these statements reflects a contrast between two flowers?
A
This tulip is as colourful as a rose.
B
This tulip does not smell as bad as a daffodil.
C
This tulip turns towards light just like sunflower.
D
This tulip is grown in bunches, like a lotus.
Question 468
Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.
EJO, TYD, INS, XCH, …….?
A
NRW
B
MRW
C
MSX
D
NSX
Question 468 Explanation: 
Question 469
Choose which of the following will be sufficient to find: What time did the bus leave today?
Statements:
The bus normally leaves on time.
The scheduled departure is at 12:30.
A
I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B
II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C
Either I or II is sufficient
D
Neither I nor II is sufficient
Question 470
In the following question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some pigeons are eagles.
All eagles are sparrows.
Some sparrows are not pigeons.
Conclusions:
Some sparrows are pigeons.
All pigeons are sparrows.
All eagles are pigeons.
A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Only III follows
D
Both I and III follows
Question 470 Explanation: 
Question 471
Find the odd one out in the given series:
ZA, RS, DE, JK, PR, LM, YZ, NO
A
JK
B
LM
C
ZA
D
PR
Question 471 Explanation: 
Question 472
In an office, 30% of the employees were women and 70% of the employees were above the age of 40 years, out of which 60% are men. Find the percentage of women employees who are above 40 years out of the total number of women employees.
A
96%
B
93.33%
C
70.44%
D
80.66%
Question 472 Explanation: 
30% Employee → Women
70% Employee → greater than 40 → 60% Men AND 40% Women
70% → Men
Percentage of women( > 40 out of total women) = [(0.4*0.7Employee)/0.3Employee]*100
= (28/3)*10
= 93.33%
Question 473
What is the next number
16, 30, 54, 88, 132
A
186
B
188
C
190
D
206
Question 473 Explanation: 
Question 474
Three squares are there as shown on the three sides of the triangle; find the area of the triangle from the respective areas of the squares.
A
15√5
B
12√5
C
2√5
D
1
Question 474 Explanation: 

S=(a+b+c)/2
=(7+8+9)/2
=12
√(S(S-a)(S-b)(S-c))
√(12(5)(4)(3)
12√5
Question 475
Two tapes A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. The tank can be emptied by a third tap C in 6 minutes. If A and B are kept open for 5 minutes in the beginning and then C is opened along with A and B being kept open, the time taken to empty the tank is:
A
60 minutes
B
45 minutes
C
30 minutes
D
75 minutes
Question 475 Explanation: 
A → 12 min = 1/12
B → 15 min = 1/15
C → 6 min = -(⅙)
=((1/12)+(1/15))*5
=((15+12)/(12*15))*5
=27/36
=¾

= (1/12) + (1/15) - (⅙)
= (15+12-(15*2))/15*12
= -3 / (15*12)
= -(1/60)
1 Tank → 60 min
¾ Tank → 45 min
Question 476
In a group of 24 members, each member drinks either tea or coffee or both. If 15 of them drink tea and 18 drink coffee, find the probability that a person selected from the group drinks both tea and coffee.
A
1/8
B
3/8
C
5/24
D
None of the options
Question 476 Explanation: 
n(μ)=24
n(T)=15
n(C)=18
n(T U C) = n(T) + n(C) - n(T ∩ C)
24 = 15+18-n(T∩C)
n(T∩C)=33-24
=9
n(T ∩ C) / n(μ) = 9/24
=3/8
Question 477
Arjun by car takes double the time taken by bus to travel from Delhi to Agra. What is the Speed of the Bus if the Speed of Car is 40 km/hr?
A
40 km/hr
B
60 km/hr
C
80 km/hr
D
30 km/hr
Question 477 Explanation: 
Tcar = 2TBus Dcar = DBus Scar = DBus / 2TBus = SBus / 2 SBus = 2 Scar = 2 * 40 = 80 kmph
Question 478
Directions for question number 33 to 35:
Read the following information carefully and then solve the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.
There are two married couples among them.
C is the mother of A and F.
E is the father of D.
A is the grandson of B.
The total number of female members in the family is three.

Q33. How is B related to F?
A
Sister
B
Grandmother
C
Wife
D
Data inadequate
Question 478 Explanation: 

B is grandmother of F
Question 479
Directions for question number 33 to 35:
Read the following information carefully and then solve the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.
There are two married couples among them.
C is the mother of A and F.
E is the father of D.
A is the grandson of B.
The total number of female members in the family is three.
Q34. How is F related to A?
A
Brother
B
Daughter
C
Son
D
None of the options
Question 479 Explanation: 

F is not related to A
Question 480
Directions for question number 33 to 35:
Read the following information carefully and then solve the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.
There are two married couples among them.
C is the mother of A and F.
E is the father of D.
A is the grandson of B.
The total number of female members in the family is three.
Q35. Which of the following pairs is one of the married couples?
A
E - F
B
B - D
C
E - B
D
A - F
Question 480 Explanation: 

The pairs are E-B and D-C
Question 481
Directions for question number 36 to 37:
Consists of a question and two statements, labelled (1) and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements, plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts.
Q36. How is R related to S?
Statement (1):
T, the wife of R’s only brother C does not have any siblings.
Statement (2):
S is T’s brother-in-law’s wife.
A
Only Statement (1) is required for answering the question
B
Only Statement (2) is required for answering the question
C
Both Statement together are required to answer the question
D
Answer cannot be ascertained with the given information
Question 482
Directions for question number 36 to 37:
Consists of a question and two statements, labelled (1) and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements, plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts.
Q37. What is the Standard Deviation (SD) of the four numbers A, B, C, D?
Statement (1):
The sum of A, B, C and D is 24.
Statement (2):
The sum of the squares of A, B, C and D is 224.
A
Only Statement (1) is required for answering the question
B
Only Statement (2) is required for answering the question
C
Both Statement together are required to answer the question
D
Answer cannot be ascertained with the given information
Question 482 Explanation: 
Standard Deviation of A,B,C,D
I) Σ(A,b,C,D) = 24
II) A2 + B2 + C2 + D2 = 224
μ = 24/4 = 6
S.D = √(Σ(X-μ)2)/4
= √(A2 + μ2 - 2Aμ + B2 + μ2 -2μB + C2 + μ2 - 2μC + D62 + μ2 - 2μD) / 4
= √(A2 + B2 + C2 + D2 + 4μ2 - 2μ ( A+B+C+D)/4)
= √(224 + 4 * 24^2 - 2*24 (4*24))/4
Combining I and II
= √-808
Question 483
Directions for question number 38 to 40:
Answer the following questions on the basis of the directions given below:
Directions: For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following:
I. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
II. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
III. (A) is true but (R) is false.
IV. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q38. Assertion (A):
Ventilators are provided near the roof.
Reason (R):
Conduction takes place better near the roof.
A
I
B
II
C
III
D
IV
Question 484
Directions for question number 38 to 40:
Answer the following questions on the basis of the directions given below:
Directions: For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following:
I. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
II. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
III. (A) is true but (R) is false.
IV. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q39. Assertion (A):
Salt is added to cook food at higher altitudes.
Reason (R):
Temperature is lower at higher altitudes.
A
I
B
II
C
III
D
IV
Question 485
Directions for question number 38 to 40:
Answer the following questions on the basis of the directions given below:
Directions: For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following:
I. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
II. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
III. (A) is true but (R) is false.
IV. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q40. Assertion (A):
Moon cannot be used as a satellite for communication.
Reason (R):
Moon does not move in the equatorial plane of the Earth.
A
I
B
II
C
III
D
IV
Question 486
Directions - Question number 41 and 42 are based on the diagram given below: In a class there are 40 students who play at least one game out of Football, Cricket and Badminton.

Q41. What percentage of students play only one game?
A
50%
B
60%
C
65%
D
70%
Question 486 Explanation: 

X(μ)= 40
X(μ)= 9+6+8+4+2+7+X(C ∩ F ∩ B)
40= 36 + X(C ∩ F ∩ B)
X(C ∩ F ∩ B) = 40=36
= 4
According to given data, Percentage of students who play only one game.
= [X(only C) + X(only F) + X(only B)] / X(μ)
= [(9 + 8 +7)/40]*100
= (24/40)*100
= 60%
Question 487
Directions - Question number 41 and 42 are based on the diagram given below: In a class there are 40 students who play at least one game out of Football, Cricket and Badminton.

Q42. What percentage of students play all the three games?
A
4%
B
5%
C
8%
D
10%
Question 487 Explanation: 

X(μ)= 40
X(μ)= 9+6+8+4+2+7+ X(C ∩ F ∩ B)
40= 36 + X(C ∩ F ∩ B)
X(C ∩ F ∩ B) = 40=36
= 4
According to given data, Percentage of X(C ∩ F ∩ B)
= [ X(C ∩ F ∩ B) / X(μ) ]*100
= (4/40)*100
=10%
Question 488
A wire frame model is
A
visual presentation of an electronic representation of a 3D physical object
B
exploits hidden line removal via cutting planes
C
allows visualization of the underlying design structure of a 3D model
D
all the above
Question 489
____________ is the assurance that the application will perform its intended function with the required precision over an extended period of time
A
Compatibility
B
Reliability
C
Maintainability
D
portability
E
Update it
Question 490
What is the proper way of defining a class named A so that it cannot be subclassed?
A
class A{ }
B
abstract final class A { }
C
class A {final;}
D
final class A { }
Question 491
__________ is the enforcement of a clear separation between the abstract properties of a data type and the concrete details of its implementation.
A
Control Abstraction
B
Data Abstraction
C
Abstract Data Type (ADT)
D
None of the above
Question 492
Logic Programming is the
A
Use of mathematical logic for computer programming
B
Use of computer programming for mathematical logic
C
Both (1) and (2)
D
Neither (1) nor (2)
Question 492 Explanation: 
Logic programming is a computer programming paradigm in which program statements express facts and rules about problems within a system of formal logic
Question 493
A famous quote of Niklaus Wirth states: Algorithm+Data Structure=?
A
Source Code
B
Program
C
Software
D
Programming Language
Question 493 Explanation: 
Algorithms + Data Structures = Programs is a 1976 book written by Niklaus Wirth covering some of the fundamental topics of computer programming, particularly that algorithms and data structures are inherently related. For example, if one has a sorted list one will use a search algorithm optimal for sorted lists.
Question 494
Which of the following devices should get higher priority in assigning Interrupts?
A
Hard disk
B
Floppy Disk
C
Printer
D
Keyboard
Question 494 Explanation: 
The device operating at highest speed should be given the highest priority. So among the given devices hard disk operates at the highest speed and should get the highest priority..
Question 495
The two phase commit (2PC) protocol is resilient to
A
Deadlock
B
Site and link failures
C
Dependencies
D
Starving
Question 495 Explanation: 
The protocol achieves its goal even in many cases of temporary system failure (involving either process, network node, communication, etc. failures), and is thus widely used
Question 496
Name of the data structure maintained by a Distributed File System (DFS) to map the mount points to appropriate storage devices
A
Page Table
B
Mount Table
C
Mount Tree
D
Mount List
Question 496 Explanation: 
Mount mechanisms allow the binding together of different file namespaces to form a single hierarchical namespace. The Unix operating system uses this mechanism. A special entry, known as a mount point, is created at some position in the local file namespace that is bound to the root of another file name space. From the users point of view a mount point is indistinguishable from a local directory entry and may be traversed using standard path names once mounted. File access is therefore location transparent for the user but not for the system administrator. The kernel maintains a structure called a mount table which maps mount points to appropriate file systems. Whenever a file access path crosses a mount point, this is intercepted by the kernel, which then obtains the required service from the remote server.
Question 497
Monitor in Computer Science stands for
A
Monitor and keyboard
B
Name coined for early Operating System
C
A solution for Critical Section Problem (CSP)
D
All the above
Question 497 Explanation: 
Monitor is a solution for critical section problems.
A monitor is a synchronization construct that allows threads to have both mutual exclusion and the ability to wait (block) for a certain condition to become false. Monitors also have a mechanism for signaling other threads that their condition has been met
Question 498
In Computer Science jargon, kilo means ___________
A
1000
B
210
C
1024
D
Both (2) and (3)
Question 498 Explanation: 
In computer science jargon , kilo means 2^10 or 1024.
Question 499
Which of the following is a functional programming language?
A
List
B
APL
C
Haskell
D
All the above
Question 499 Explanation: 
Functional programming languages are specially designed to handle symbolic computation and list processing applications. Functional programming is based on mathematical functions. Some of the popular functional programming languages include: Lisp, Python, Erlang, Haskell, Clojure,APL,, etc.
Question 500
The printing speed of a printer is measured by
A
PPM
B
bsp
C
MB
D
dpi
Question 500 Explanation: 
The speed of early printers was measured in units of characters per minute (cpm) for character printers, or lines per minute (lpm) for line printers. Modern printers are measured in pages per minute (ppm).
Question 501
Which is true with respect to Remote Procedure Call (RPC) mechanism?
A
Based on subroutine –call model
B
Unblocked version is also possible
C
Alternative to message-passing model
D
All the above
Question 501 Explanation: 
Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is a protocol that one program can use to request a service from a program located in another computer on a network without having to understand the network's details. A procedure call is also sometimes known as a function call or a subroutine call. RPC uses the client-server model.
Question 502
The Stored Program concept is proposed by
A
Pascal
B
Niklaus Wirth
C
Von Neumann
D
None of the above
Question 502 Explanation: 
The idea was introduced in the late 1940s by John von Neumann, who proposed that a program be electronically stored in binary-number format in a memory device so that instructions could be modified by the computer as determined by intermediate computational result
Question 503
BNF notation in introduced by
A
Booth and Niklaus Wirth
B
John Backus and Peter Naur
C
Booth and Peter Naur
D
John Backus and Niklaus Wirth
Question 503 Explanation: 
Full form of BNF is Backus Naur Form ,which is a notation technique for context-free grammars .So clearly option 2 is the correct answer.
Question 504
Select the correct statement from the following
A
YACC is a top-down parser and creates an LALR parsing table
B
YACC is a bottom-up parser and creates an LALR parsing table
C
YACC is a bottom-up parser and creates an LL parsing table
D
YACC is a top-down parser and creates an LL parsing table
Question 505
An increase in afforestation, a slight decrease in deforestation and the natural expansion of forests have reduced the net loss of forest from an average of 8.3 million hectares annually in the 1990s to an average of __________million hectares annually between 2000 and 2010.
A
5.5
B
5.2
C
6.5
D
6.2
Question 506
When was the Ethics Committee of the Rajya Sabha constituted?
A
4th March 1997
B
27th April 1997
C
7th April 1997
D
15th March 1997
Question 507
There were movements, such as the ______________ Movement, with a bid to keep Andhra Pradesh united in recent times.
A
Samaikyandhra
B
Vishalandhra
C
Vandeandhra
D
Jai Andhra
Question 508
Which option represents the pair of wildlife sanctuary and elephant reserve in Andhra Pradesh.
A
Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary and Theppakadu Elephant Reserve
B
Koundinya Sanctuary and Rayala Elephant Reserve
C
Similipal-Kuldiha-Hadgarh Sanctuary and Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve
D
Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary and Singhbhum Elephant Reserve
Question 509
The enrolment in primary education in developing regions of the world reached __________% in 2015, up from 83% in 2000.
A
85
B
86
C
89
D
91
Question 510
The Prime Minister is appointed by the___________, who also appoints other ministers on the advice of Prime Minister.
A
President
B
Members of Parliament
C
Electoral college
D
Vice-President
Question 511
The International Conclave On "Globalizing Indian Thought" was held from January 16-18, 2020 at:
A
Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad
B
Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
C
Indian Institute of Technology, Chennai
D
Indian Institute of Management, Kozhikode
Question 512
The _________State Disaster Management Authority has bagged the SKOCH Award, 2018 for its achievements in the field of disaster management.
A
Chhattisgarh
B
Odisha
C
Uttarakhand
D
Uttarakhand
Question 513
The Ministry of External Affairs, India is setting up a New, Emerging and Strategic Technologies (NEST) division. This will act as the nodal division within MEA for collaboration with foreign partners in the field of:
A
cognitive cloud computing
B
robotic process automation
C
cryptocurrency trade
D
5G and artificial intelligence
Question 514
In 2020, the World Economic Forum has launched a global initiative to grow, restore and conserve _______around the world, in a bid to restore biodiversity and help fight climate change.
A
1 trillion trees
B
2 billion trees
C
2 trillion trees
D
1 billion trees
Question 515
Union Minister for Railways and Commerce Piyush Goyal has announced that the entire network of railways in the country will run on electricity by__________.
A
2025
B
2024
C
2022
D
2023
Question 516
Which river of the following traverses through Andhra Pradesh?
A
Bhima
B
Pennar
C
Palar
D
Dindi
Question 517
The Government of India Act______ allowed for some elected representation.
A
1909
B
1907
C
1906
D
1908
Question 518
Corangi or Coringa is a beautiful Mada or __________Forest, where the river Godavari joins the backwaters of Bay of Bengal.
A
Montane
B
Mangrove
C
Tropical Thorn
D
Deciduous
Question 519
In 1952, who was elected as the Chief Minister of the Hyderabad State in its first democratic election?
A
Dr. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
B
Sri Kasu Bramhananda Reddy
C
Dr. Burgula Ramakrishna Rao
D
Sri Damodaram Sanjivaiah
Question 520
Mahatma Gandhi was born as Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi on 2nd October_________.
A
1869
B
1870
C
1868
D
1867
Question 521
The plateau region in the south western portion of Andhra Pradesh part of the Deccan (peninsular India), and commonly called Rayalaseema, is composed of the __________rock.
A
gabbro
B
schist
C
shale
D
gneissic
Question 522
The World Tsunami Awareness Day is celebrated annually on:
A
6th November
B
4th November
C
5th November
D
7th November
Question 523
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) Organised/is going to organise — in January 2020 — an awareness camp for the _______exports in Agra.
A
tomato
B
potato
C
guava
D
mango
Question 524
The Indian Government has intensified Mission Indradhanush 2.0 across the country. What does this mission aim to achieve?
A
Drought prevention
B
Universal vaccination
C
Adequate earthquake warning
D
Pollution control
Question 525
In January 2020, which Indian defence force signed an MoU with the Geological Survey of India?
A
Indian Navy
B
Indian Army
C
Indian Coast Guard
D
Indian Air Force
Question 526
A _______________ is a time-stamped series of immutable records of data that is managed by a cluster of computers not owned by any single entity.
A
quantum computing
B
blockchain
C
biometric security
D
serverless computing
Question 527
In terms of area, which is the largest district of Andhra Pradesh?
A
Guntur
B
Anantapur
C
Cuddapah
D
Chittoor
Question 528
On 22 January 2020, the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry has set up_________________.
A
National Startup Advisory Council
B
Foreign Trade Policy Council
C
National Trade Policy Council
D
National Trade Policy Council
Question 529
On 13 January 2020, the World Future Energy Summit was held at:
A
Berlin
B
Abu Dhabi
C
Dublin
D
Copenhagen
Question 530
Since 1991, the size of the Indian economy in terms of GDP at market prices has increased by almost ___________times.
A
fifteen
B
fourteen
C
twelve
D
thirteen
Question 531
The liver and skeletal muscle in the body mainly stores _________________, which is used as a source of energy.
A
Morphogen
B
Pathogen
C
Pepsinogen
D
Glycogen
Question 532
The Telangana state was inaugurated formally on __________2014.
A
June 3rd
B
June 5th
C
June 4th
D
June 2nd
Question 533
The policy of annexation devised by the British East India Company was called:
A
Regulation of Ascension
B
Transfer of Rule
C
Social Assimilation
D
Doctrine of Lapse
Question 534
In January 2020, the Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA), India, launched ________ — an annual one-month-long fuel conservation mega campaign.
A
Muktva
B
Prarakshita
C
Saksham
D
Samrakshana
Question 535
Cycas beddomei, the living fossil, is endemic to which of the following regions?
A
Bandipur Sanctuary
B
Sri Venkateswara National Park & Sanctuary
C
Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
D
Gir Wildlife Sanctuary
Question 536
The Department of Electronics, set up within the Prime Minister's Office, foresaw the potential for India's exports in ________even in the mid-1970s.
A
digital electronics
B
software
C
passive components
D
analogue electronics
Question 537
The second five-year plan in India and the _____________(long considered the economic constitution of India) paved the way for the development of the public sector and ushered in the licence Raj.
A
Commercial Policy Resolution, 1954
B
Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956
C
Agricultural Policy Resolution, 1955
D
Public Policy Resolution, 1953
Question 538
Indian Army Day is celebrated on _________every year as it is on this historic day that General KM Cariappa became the first Indian to take charge of the Indian Army in 1949.
A
January 27
B
January 10
C
January 25
D
January 15
Question 539
When is the International Mother Earth Day celebrated?
A
20th April
B
21st April
C
19th April
D
22nd April
Question 540
The dominant or preponderant position of one state over others in the international system is called:
A
Demagogue
B
Gerrymander
C
Hegemony
D
Caucus
Question 541
How many national parks are found in the state of Andhra Pradesh?
A
4
B
6
C
3
D
5
Question 542
When is the International World Wildlife day celebrated?
A
3rd March
B
1st March
C
4th March
D
2nd March
Question 543
What is the Agenda 21 set by the United Nations?
A
Comprehensive plan of action for global human impact on the environment
B
Comprehensive education plan to share knowledge on energy consumption
C
A united effort to curb felling of trees at a global scale
D
A series of talks about global warming
Question 544
Which of the following waterfalls is found in the Nagari Valley, Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh?
A
Mallela Theertham
B
Kuntala Falls
C
Kailasakona Falls
D
Pochera Falls
Question 545
The Finance Ministry of India, in January 2020, said that now GST taxpayers can file their ________returns in a staggered manner.
A
GSTR-2A
B
GSTR-5
C
GSTR-3B
D
GSTR-4 / CMP-08
Question 546
On______________, the newly-elected Constituent Assembly formed an interim government of India, which existed till 15th August 1947.
A
1st September 1946
B
25th September 1946
C
2nd September 1946
D
18th August 1946
Question 547
As part of the British law in India, an act was enacted that stated that 'any person protesting or criticizing the British Government could be arrested without due trial'. Which act is being mentioned here?
A
Charter Act of 1786
B
Pitt's India Act of 1784
C
Sedition Act of 1870
D
Regulating Act of 1773
Question 548
The Indian Space Research Organisation’s satellite GSAT-30 was successfully launched on 17 January 2020 from Kourou launch base. What is the main function of this satellite?
A
Search and rescue
B
Navigation
C
Telecommunication
D
Space exploration
Question 549
In 1998, which Indian Economist and Philosopher received the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences?
A
T N Srinivasan
B
Kaushik Basu
C
Amartya Sen
D
Arvind Subramanian
Question 550
Identify the Middle East country that — in January 2020 — announced multiple-entry tourist visas to people of all nationalities to be valid for 5 years.
A
Israel
B
Iran
C
Saudi Arabia
D
United Arab Emirates
Question 551
_______________is the ability of a quantum system to be in multiple states at the same time until it is measured.
A
Superposition
B
Interposition
C
Redisposition
D
Reposition
Question 552
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A
Harendra Coomar Mookerjee
B
B. R. Ambedkar
C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D
V. T. Krishnamachari
Question 553
As per the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, Hyderabad was decided to be the joint capital of the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for __________years following which it shall belong to Telangana.
A
12
B
11
C
13
D
10
Question 554
____________and palm trees fringe the coastal plain of Andhra Pradesh.
A
Mangrove swamps
B
Lignum bogs
C
Salt marshes
D
Paddleweed mires
Question 555
Telangana comprises of ________ districts of Telugu origin from north-western Andhra Pradesh.
A
12
B
9
C
10
D
13
Question 556
India has successfully achieved the complete phasing out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, which is a chemical used by _________and one of the most potent ozone depleting chemical after Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
A
Foam manufacturing enterprises
B
furniture manufacturing enterprises
C
textile Industry
D
transportation industry
Question 557
Vishwa Hindi Diwas is celebrated every year on _______in order to promote the language world-wide.
A
January 20
B
January 10
C
January 15
D
January 25
Question 558
___ is the first Asian woman to get a PhD in Economics from Harvard back in 1960, and is best known as a critique of India’s erstwhile planned economy.
A
Gita Gopinath
B
Anshula Kant
C
Jayati Ghosh
D
Padma Desai
Question 559
India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. Who first painted the image of Bharat Mata?
A
Nandalal Bose
B
Jamani Roy
C
Abanindranath Tagore
D
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Question 560
The Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System (RIMES) for Africa and Asia, a 45-nation international organisation on disaster warning, has termed______, the severe cyclonic storm that devastated Odisha in October 2018, as ‘rarest cyclone’.
A
Vayu
B
Hudhud
C
Mekunu
D
Titli
Question 561
____________is a large freshwater lake located between the deltas of Krishna and Godavari rivers.
A
Loktak
B
Pulicat
C
Wular
D
Kolleru
Question 562
According to the Henley Passport Index, which country's passport is rated as number one with which its citizens can access maximum number of destinations without a prior visa?
A
South Korea
B
Singapore
C
Japan
D
Germany
Question 563
The Gazette of India No 6 dated ____________2014 notified the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 (Act 6 of 2014), upon receiving the President of India’s assent.
A
04th March
B
02nd March
C
01st March
D
03rd March
Question 564
When is the 'international day of education' celebrated?
A
24th January
B
23rd January
C
26th January
D
25th January
Question 565
Andhra Pradesh originally came into existence in _________as a result of the demand of the Andhras for a separate state.
A
1954
B
1953
C
1956
D
1955
Question 566
One of the United Nation's Millennium goals is to eradicate extreme poverty and hunger globally; today more than half of the extreme poor in the world live in______________.
A
Asia-Pacific
B
Sub-Saharan Africa
C
Oceania
D
Central America
Question 567
The Union Home Ministry has issued an alert to all states warning them about the vulnerability in the Android operating system that allows malware applications to pose as legitimate apps and access user data of all kind. What is the name of this malware?
A
SpyEye
B
Shylock
C
StrandHogg
D
Zeus
Question 568
The ___________offer instant access to Google assistant with real-time translation of 40 different languages.
A
Tran Buds
B
Babel Buds
C
Hear Buds
D
Pixel Buds
Question 569
As per the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014, there shall be allocated 25 seats to the successor State of Andhra Pradesh, and ______seats to the successor State of Telangana, in the House of the People.
A
15
B
16
C
18
D
17
Question 570
The First Carnatic war in India was fought between the _________ and the ______________ forces.
A
French and Portuguese
B
British and French
C
Mughal and British
D
British and Mongol
Question 571
The First Carnatic war in India was fought between the _________ and the ______________ forces.
A
French and Portuguese
B
British and French
C
British and Mongol
D
Mughal and British
Question 572
In January 2019, the Coast Guards of India and Japan conducted their disaster control, search and rescue exercises off the coast of _________in Japan.
A
Yoron
B
Yugawara
C
Yamada
D
Yokohama
Question 573
Name the homologous series with an -OH functional group.
A
Hydroxyl group
B
Haloalcohol group
C
Hydroxide group
D
Hydride group
Question 574
Which country wants to replicate the highly successful Ujjwala model of giving out cooking gas (LPG) connections to the needy, and has signed an agreement with the state-owned Indian Oil Corp (IOC)?
A
Algeria
B
Libya
C
Ghana
D
Nigeria
Question 575
Conservationists working with the Great Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros species have welcomed the birth of a rhino calf at the ______National Park in January 2020.
A
Kaziranga
B
Manas
C
Gir
D
Jim Corbett
Question 576
The territories of Telangana State have been specified in section ____ of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014
A
3
B
2
C
4
D
5
Question 577
In 1883, there was a furore over the attempt by the government to introduce the __________ Bill. The bill provided for the trial of British or European persons by Indians, and sought equality between British and Indian judges in the country.
A
Stokes
B
Ilbert
C
Curzon
D
Bentinck
Question 578
The state of _______________has come out with a unique flood hazard atlas on the basis of historic flood inundation captured through satellite imagery over the period from 2001 to 2018, which is expected to help the state manage floods more efficiently.
A
Gujarat
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Odisha
D
Kerala
Question 579
In order to be chosen as a member of Parliament, a person must be a citizen of India and not less than ________ years of age in the case of Rajya Sabha.
A
35
B
40
C
30
D
25
Question 580
With effect from April 2018, the Government of India decided to enhance its contribution in the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) from 75% to ______.
A
80%
B
90%
C
110%
D
100%
Question 581
The _____________based in the cloud are bringing Artificial Intelligence to a far broader audience.
A
machine-learning tools
B
virtual reality tools
C
natural language processing tools
D
Multi experience tools
Question 582
How many wildlife sanctuaries are found in the state of Andhra Pradesh?
A
14
B
11
C
12
D
13
Question 583
The smallest bone in the human body is:
A
Stapes
B
Malleus
C
Incus
D
Mandible
Question 584
Identify the Indian freedom fighter who was also called the ‘Lion of Punjab’, and who played an important role in the Swadeshi Movement. He is also famous for his slogan ‘Go back Simon’.
A
Aurobinda Ghosh
B
Lala Lajpat Rai
C
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D
Bipan Chandra Pal
Question 585
The most important legacy of the Rajiv Gandhi government in India was the background research on __________, which was carried out within the Prime Minister's Office, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, and the Ministry of Finance.
A
economic autarky
B
economic arbitrage
C
economic liberalisation
D
economic appreciation
Question 586
In January 2020, a delegation led by the Ambassador of________ called on the Union Minister of State, Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region, Dr Jitendra Singh.
A
Sri Lanka
B
Japan
C
Bangladesh
D
China
Question 587
5th Asia Pacific Broadcasting Union (ABU) Media Summit on Climate Action and Disaster Preparedness was held in 2019 at __________.
A
Pokhara
B
Kathmandu
C
Bharatpur
D
Lalitpur
Question 588
On 23 January 2020, India celebrated 123rd birth anniversary of:
A
Shyamji Krishna Varma
B
Kali Charan Banerjee
C
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D
Subhash Chandra Bose
Question 589
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, India reported that a total of 43 flights and 9,156 passengers have been screened for _________illness till January 21, 2020. .
A
Ebola virus
B
Marburg virus
C
Hantaviruses
D
Novel Coronavirus (nCoV)
Question 590
International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction began in 1989, after a call by the United Nations General Assembly for a day to promote a global culture of risk-awareness and disaster reduction. This day is observed on every:
A
14th October
B
11th October
C
12th October
D
13th October
Question 591
Who was the first Finance Minister of independent India?
A
CD Deshmukh
B
John Mathai
C
R. K. Shanmukham Chetty
D
T.T.Krishnamachari
Question 592
Who is the head of the Indian National Disaster Management Authority?
A
Minister of environment, forest and climate change
B
Prime Minister
C
Defence Minister
D
Vice President
Question 593
In October 2018, Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that a national award in the name of __________will be given every year to police personnel who do excellent work in rescue and relief operations during any kind of disaster.
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Mother Teresa
C
Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 594
India is unanimously chosen as the ___________of Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR) for the fiscal year 2020.
A
Member of Consultative Council (CC)
B
Premier member of the Board (PM)
C
Member of Supervisory Council (SC)
D
Co-chair of the Consultative Group (CG)
Question 595
What is any non-living component of an ecosystem that affects the population of another organism or its environment?
A
Prebiotic Factor
B
Anabiotic Factor
C
Abiotic Factor
D
Symbiotic Factor
Question 596
The Indian Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of not more than __________members.
A
253
B
251
C
252
D
250
Question 597
In its 70th year of inception, Election Commission of India has decided to institute an Annual Lecture Series as a tribute to the first Chief Election Commissioner of India ______________.
A
Nagendra Singh
B
S. P. Sen Verma
C
Kalyan Sundaram
D
Shri Sukumar Sen
Question 598
Protected ecosystems covered 15.2% of land and __________% of coastal marine areas worldwide by 2014.
A
8.6
B
8.5
C
8.4
D
8.7
Question 599
Other than the districts from Andhra Pradesh, Telangana consists of a region called ____________with 13 districts.
A
Sangareddy
B
Mulugu
C
Medak
D
Seemandhra
Question 600
NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) has discovered its first approximately ___________in its star’s habitable zone, the range of distances where conditions may be just right to allow the presence of liquid water on the surface.
A
Moon-size satellite
B
Earth-size planet
C
Jupiter-size planet
D
Neptune-size planet
Question 601
Identify the leader of the Indian independence movement who belonged to the extremist faction, and who was also called the ‘Father of Indian Unrest’.
A
Subhas Chandra Bose
B
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C
Bhagat Singh
D
Surya Sen
Question 602
The maximum strength of the House (Lok Sabha) envisaged by the Constitution is:
A
551
B
554
C
552
D
553
Question 603
The Indian banking sector has come a long way since independence, more so since the nationalisation of 14 major banks in 1969 and of ______ banks in 1980.
A
3
B
5
C
6
D
4
Question 604
A Concession Agreement for completing the 6.5-kilometre long Z-Morh tunnel in Jammu and Kashmir was signed in January 2020; what is the estimated cost of this project?
A
₹3,580 crore
B
₹5,490 crore
C
₹1,579 crore
D
₹2,379 crore
Question 605
___________was the first state formed on the linguistic basis in India.
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Karnataka
C
Telangana
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 606
India’s first Union budget was presented in the Parliament on:
A
24th November 1945
B
25th November 1946
C
26th November 1947
D
27th November 1948
Question 607
In 1780, who started “The Bengal Gazette or Calcutta General Advertiser”, which was seized in 1872 because of its outspoken criticism of the Government?
A
James Augustus Hickey
B
Peter Read
C
Messer B Messinck
D
James Silk Buckingham
Question 608
In the honour of 200th birth anniversary of______, the World Health Organization has designated the year 2020 as the “Year of Nurse and Midwife"
A
Elizabeth Grace Neill
B
Florence Nightingale
C
Clara Barton
D
Margaret Sanger
Question 609
India’s first five-year plan, launched in 1951, focused on:
A
mining
B
finished goods
C
agriculture and irrigation
D
services
Question 610
In the early 1960s, at a time when most distinguished development economists were talking about the virtues of import substitution, it was ________who has pointed out, through a detailed empirical analysis, that trade would be an important factor for the development of a less developed country such as India.
A
Kaushik Basu
B
Manmohan Singh
C
Bimal Jalan
D
Amartya Sen
Question 611
After the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 was Passed, India got its _________ state in Telangana.
A
27th
B
26th
C
28th
D
29th
Question 612
When was the Aam Aadmi Party launched?
A
2014
B
2012
C
2013
D
2015
Question 613
India's Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, in the 1980's, was able to move the telecommunications sector in the direction of ________orientation.
A
electronic sector
B
private sector
C
digital sector
D
service sector
Question 614
In January 2020, India and __ discussed setting up of a Maritime Research Coordination Centre.
A
Sri Lanka
B
Singapore
C
Bangladesh
D
Australia
Question 615
The Indian Institute of Technology Hyderabad's (IIT-H's) Centre for Healthcare Entrepreneurship (CfHE) Fellow _________has launched a ‘vaccination on wheels clinic’ in Pune in December 2019, in collaboration with the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
A
Aravind Sarangapaani
B
Sachin Vinayak Bhat
C
Jignesh Patel
D
Vishnu Mahathi Avadhanam
Question 616
A deficiency of vitamin B3 can result in a condition called:
A
Beriberi
B
Scurvy
C
Rickets
D
Pellagra
Question 617
Which is the first Indian state to implement agricultural land leasing?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Uttarakhand
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 618
The __________of 1853 renewed the authority of the East India Company and allowed it to retain possession of its Indian territories to be “held in trust for Her Majesty (Queen Victoria) and her heirs and successors”, until the Parliament should otherwise decide; hence no specific time was allotted to the Company to retain its powers and authority.
A
Charter Act
B
Negotiable Instruments Act
C
Regulating Act
D
Indian Contract Act
Question 619
The __ is celebrated on 9 January to commemorate the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa on that day in 1915?
A
Vaapasee Barath Divas
B
Palatav Barath Divas
C
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas
D
Aaavrithi Bharatiya Divas
Question 620
The National Voters' Day is celebrated on __________ every year to mark the foundation day of Election Commission of India (ECI).
A
25th January
B
29th January
C
10th January
D
27th January
Question 621
Which among the following believes that it can generate power at least as inexpensively as standard natural-gas plants and essentially capture all the carbon dioxide released in the process?
A
Enel
B
General Electric Co
C
Net Power
D
Tepco
Question 622
When is the International Day of Forests celebrated globally?
A
19th March
B
20th March
C
22nd March
D
21st March
Question 623
The Indian Statistical Institute was founded on 17 December 1931, by _____________________.
A
Subramanian Swamy
B
CR Rao
C
Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
D
Raj Chandra Bose
Question 624
Who among the following is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?
A
Kanshi Ram
B
Ashok Siddarth
C
Veer Singh
D
Kumari Mayawati
Question 625
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has given its approval for the agreement between the Republic of India and the Federative Republic of _________on mutual legal assistance in criminal matters.
A
China
B
Japan
C
Canada
D
Brazil
Question 626
The Naval Trade License introduced by the Portuguese in India was called:
A
Shellback system
B
Pollywog system
C
Marcent system
D
Cartaz system
Question 627
The world leaders who gathered at the Millennium Summit in 2000 had set a series of time-bound targets with a deadline of ______.
A
2017
B
2015
C
2014
D
2016
Question 628
If there is a sharing of power between the union and the state government, it is called:
A
communism
B
federalism
C
oligarchy
D
fascism
Question 629
On 17 September 1948, the Indian government conducted a military operation called ____________to assimilate the then Hyderabad state into the Indian Union.
A
Operation Pawan
B
Operation Checkmate
C
Operation Vijay
D
Operation Polo
Question 630

A,B,C,D,E,F and G are schools . A,B,C and G are having their branches at New Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata. C,D and E are having their branches at Chennai, Banglore and Hyderabad. C,D,E and F are having their branches at Ahmedabad, Pune and Jaipur. B,F and G are having their branches at Patna and Ranchi. With the information provided, answer the following questions.

Which school is NOT having any branch at Jaipur?
A
B
B
E
C
F
D
C
Question 631

Study the following table carefully to answer the questions.

Total number of students studying in various universities over the years



What is the difference between the total number of students studying in Universities A over the given period and the total number of students studying in University D over the same period ?
A
770
B
670
C
788
D
688
Question 632
A
544
B
564
C
534
D
514
Question 633
Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark(?) in the following series. BEH, DGJ, (?), EJO, GLQ, INS
A
FLR
B
FIL
C
FKO
D
FLS
Question 634

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are schools. A, B, C and G are having their branches at New Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata. C, D and E are having their branches at Chennai, Bangalore and Hyderabad . C, D, E and F are having their branches at Ahmedabad, Pune and Jaipur. B, F and G are having their branches at Patna and Ranchi. With the information provided, answer the following questions.

Which school is having its branches at Kolkata and Patna but not at Chennai?
A
C
B
D
C
A
D
G
Question 635
If 1=1, 2=4, 3= 10 and 4=22, then 5=?
A
39
B
34
C
44
D
46
Question 636

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is to related to the first word.

Fire:Hot:Ice:?
A
Water
B
Cold
C
Coal
D
Wood
Question 638
The empirical relationship among mean , median and mode is:
A
Mean - Median= 3(Median - Mean)
B
Mode - Median= 2(Median - Mean)
C
Mode - Mean= 3(Median - Mean)
D
Mode - Median= 3(Median - Mean)
Question 639
A
1933
B
1851
C
1831
D
1903
Question 640

Find out the missing number in the following table .


A
25
B
10
C
15
D
20
Question 641
A
44 : 21
B
48 : 23
C
28 : 46
D
24 : 23
Question 642
Histogram is a graph of :
A
ogive
B
time series
C
frequently distribution
D
qualitative data
Question 643
A is the sister of B and B is the brother of C. D is the uncle of B's son. How is A related to C?
A
Mother
B
Son
C
Sister
D
Brother
Question 644
Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A
Violin
B
Guitar
C
Flute
D
Mandolin
Question 645
______________ is the average of difference of the values of items from some average of the series.
A
Mean deviation
B
Variance
C
Quartile deviation
D
Standard deviation
Question 646
How many pillars are needed to construct a bridge 500 meter long, if pillars are at a distance of 12(1/2) metres each?
A
40
B
35
C
25
D
41
Question 647
________________ is the value of that variable which divides the total frequency into two equal parts when the series is arranged in ascending or descending order of magnitude.
A
Mode
B
Median
C
Mean
D
Standard deviation
Question 648

Identify the number to complete the series.

2,3,10,15,26,35,_______?
A
48
B
50
C
49
D
46
Question 649
A man started walking from his house towards north. After walking 4km , he turned to his left and walked 3km. Then he walked 4km after turning left. How far is he away from his house?
A
11 km
B
7 km
C
4 km
D
3 km
Question 650
Arrange the following words in the dictionary order and state which word will appear in the last.
A
Torment
B
Torpedo
C
Topaz
D
Torch
Question 651
Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A
Metre
B
Yard
C
Foot
D
Pound
Question 652
In a relative frequency distribution , the total of the relative frequencies is
A
100
B
One
C
Σ X
D
Σf
Question 653

If the statement 'most of the officers are honest' is taken to be true, which of the following pair of statememts can be claimed to be true?

I. All Officers are honest.

II. All Honest persons are officers.

III. Some officers are not dishonest.

IV. Some officers are honest.
A
I & II
B
II & III
C
III & IV
D
IV & I
Question 654
A pie diagram is represented by a :
A
Circle
B
Square
C
Triangle
D
Rectangle
Question 655
What is the output of the following code?
main ( )
{
static float a[ ] = { 13.24,1.5,4.5,5.4,3.5};
float *j,*k;
j=a;
k= a+4;
j= j*2;
k=k/2;
printf ("%f%f". *j, *k);
}
A
13.25,4.5   
B
1.5,3.5 
C
13.24,1.5, 4.5, 5.4, 3.5 
D
Illegal use of pointer in main function
Question 656
Match List I with List II
List-I List II
A Expert system I Decision ree
B Fuzzy system II Scramble
C Operator in genetic algorithm III Inference engine
D Supervised technique IV mycin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
A-IV B-I C-IIl D-II
B
A-III B-IV C-II D-l
C
A-IV B-III C-II D-I
D
A-l B-II C-III D-IV
Question 657
Let R={x | x belongs N, x is multiple of 3 and x <= 100} and S={x|x belongs to N, x is a multiple of 5 and x < 100}. What is the number of elements in (R ^ S)* (S v R)? Where ^ is the intersection and v union.
A
36
B
33
C
20
D
6
Question 658
Which of the following scenarios may lead to an irrecoverable error in a database system?
A
A transaction writes a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
B
A transaction reads a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
C
A transaction reads a data item after it is written by committed transactions
D
A transaction reads a data item after it is written by an uncommitted transaction.
Question 659
The maximum yield length of the following CNF CFG is
S —> AB
A —> CD
B —> e
C —> a
D —> b
A
8
B
7
C
4
D
5
Question 660
Which is not a basic approach to the problem of conflict resolution in a production system?
A
Assigning a preference based on the rule that matched
B
Assigning a preference based the object that matched
C
Assigning a preference based on the action that the matched rule would perform
D
Assigning a preference based on the action that the matched object would perform
Question 661
Match List I with List II
List-I List II
A Physical Layer I transforming the raw bits in the form of frame for transmission
B Data Link Layer II Control and monitoring of subnet
C Network layer III transmission of raw bits over communication channel
D Transport layer IV datagrams transmission data through connection oriented or connectionless using datagram

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
A-III B-II C-I D-IV
B
A-Il B-IIl C-I D-IV
C
A-III B-I C-II D-IV
D
A-II B-IV C-I D-III
Question 662
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: It is possible to create doubly linked list using only one pointer with every node.
Reason R: By storing the XOR of the addresses of the previous and next nodes.
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C
A is true but R is false
D
A is false but R is true
Question 663
Given below are two statements:
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to virtual memory
Statement I: Address translation is performed for every logical address used during the execution of a program
Statement II: A program can execute only when all of its components are loaded in the memory
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
A
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Question 664
Which of the following is used to determine the cost performance index?
A
Budgeted cost of work performed - budget at completion
B
Budgeted cost of work performed / budget at completion
C
Budgeted cost of work performed / Actual cost of work performed
D
Budgeted cost of work performed - Actual cost of work performed
Question 665
Match List I with List II
List-I List II
A Parallel FET I O(n2)
B Iterative FET II O(n)
C Evaluation of polynomial at n points by Horner method III O(lg n)
D Product of two polynomials that are represented in point value form IV O(nlgn)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
A-III B-I C-II D-III
B
A-II B-I C-III D-IV
C
A-III B-IV C-I D-II
D
A-Il B-III C-IV D-I
Question 666
There are M points on one straight line AB and n points on another straight line AC none of them being A. How many triangles can be formed with these points as vertices?
A
mn(m+n-2)
B
(½)mn(m +n-2)
C
(½)mn(m +n-1)
D
mn(m+n -1)
Question 667
Match List I with List II
List-I List II
A PERT I Used for non-repetitive jobs
B Optimistic time II Used for repetitive jobs
C CPM III The shortest possible time to complete the activity if all goes well
D Pessimistic time IV The longest time that an activity takes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
A-IIl B-IV C-II D-I
B
A-IV B-l C-II D-III
C
A-l B-llI C-Il D-ll
D
A-I B-Ill C-II D-IV
Question 668
Match List I with List II
List-I List II
A CDMA I It provides mobile internet connection with faster data transfer rates
B GSM II It allows user to connect to a network or to other devices over wireless channel
C UMTS III Accessing mechanism for multiple transmitters over a single channel
D WiFi IV It is a cellular technology that employs hybrid of FDMA and TDMA

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
A-III B-IV C-II D-I
B
A-III B-IV C-I D-II
C
A-II B-IlI C-IV D-I
D
A-II B-I C-IV D-III
Question 669
Consider the following statements:
S1: LRU page replacement algorithm suffers from the belady's anomaly
S2: Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvations
S3: Stack is shared by all threads in a process
A
S1,S2 and S3 are true
B
S1,S3 false and S2 is true
C
S1,S2 are false and S3 is true
D
S1. S2 and S3 are false
Question 670
Match List I with List II
List-I List II
A Bezier curves I 3 dim objects that have translation rotational symmetry
B B-Splines II Fractal geometry
C Sweep representations III Bias and tension
D Natural objects IV Painting drawing CAD
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
A-IV B-l C-Ill D-II
B
A-Il B-lll C-IV D-I
C
A-IV B-Ill C-I D-Il
D
A-Il B-lV C-I D-Ill
Question 671
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
A virtual memory system uses first-in first-out page replacement policy and allocates a fixed number of frames to a process
Assertion A: Increasing number of page frames allocated to a process sometimes increases the page fault rate.
Reason R: Some programs do not exhibit locality of reference.
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C
A is true but R is false
D
A is false but R is true
Question 672
Consider following statements:
A. A context free language is generated by LR(o) grammar if and only if it is accepted by a deterministic pushdown automata and has prefix property
B. If M1 is the single tape TM simulating multi tape TM M. then time taken by M1 to simulate n moves is (n3)
C. Push down automata behaves like a Turning machine when it has one auxiliary memory.
D. L= {an bn cn: n >=1 } is not context free but context sensitive.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
A, B and C only
B
A,B only
C
C, D only
D
B,C only
E
Question Dropped
Question 673
Consider the following statements.
A. The identity is unique in any monoid.
B. A monoid is a group if there exists inverse of each element of monoid.
C. Semi group has closure,associative and identity properties.
D. Quasi group has closure property.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
A.,B and D only
B
B,C and D only
C
A, B and C only
D
A,C and D only
Question 674
How many integral solutions are there to x +y + z+ w= 29. where x >=1,y >=2,z>=3 and w> 0?
A
2400
B
2600
C
2800
D
3000
Question 675
Let (Z.,+) denote the group of all integers under addition. Then the number of all automorphisms of (Z,.+) 1s
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 676
Southerland Hodgeman method is used on
A
Smooth curves
B
Line segment
C
Convex polygons
D
Concave polygons
Question 677
Consider the following statements:
A. A database design is in BCNF if each member of the set of relation schemas that constitutes the design is in BCNF
B. A BCNF schema can have transitive dependency
C. It is always possible to obatin a 3NF design without sacrificing a lossless join
D. There are multivalued dependencies in 4NF
A
A,B and C only
B
B,C and D only
C
A,B and D only
D
A,C and D only
Question 678
Consider the following table of arrival time and burst time for three processes PO,P1,P2:
 
Process Arrival time Burst time
P0 0 ms 7
P1 1 ms 3
P2 2 ms 7

The pre-emptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is used. Scheduling is carried out only at arrival or completion of a process. What is the average waiting time for the three processes?
A
3 ms
B
3.67 ms
C
4.47 ms
D
4 ms
Question 679
Who among the following won the Dronacharya Award in Gymnastics for the year 2016?
A
Bishweshwar Nandi
B
Lalita Babar
C
Deepa Karmakar
D
Rajendra Pralhad Shelke
Question 680
What type of Energy does “a batsman hitting a ball” use ?
A
Gravitational Energy
B
Frictional Energy
C
Kinetic Energy
D
Potential Energy
Question 681
Which of the following is NOT an example of Biomass Material?
A
Wood
B
Animal Waste
C
Garbage
D
Coal
Question 682
Who has been awarded the 2016 IAAF World Athlete of the year Award in male category for sixth time?
A
Michael Phelps
B
Patrik Sjöberg
C
Usain Bolt
D
Andre De Grasse
Question 683
Mr. Reddy is running for the Vice-President’s post. Which of the following qualities of Mr. Reddy make him an ineligible candidate to contest election for the post of Vice-President of India?
A
Mr. Reddy is qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.
B
Mr. Reddy has completed the age of thirty-five years.
C
Mr. Reddy is the District Commissioner of Guntur, which is an office of profit under the Government of Andhra Pradesh.
D
Mr. Reddy is a citizen of India.
Question 684
Who became the first woman to win the Jnanpith Award in 1976 for her 1965-novel Prathan Pratisruti (The First Promise)?___________________
A
Amrita Pritam
B
Mahasweta Devi
C
Lily Ray
D
Ashapoorna Devi
Question 685
Who is the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Wipro Group?
A
Rishad Premji
B
Azim H. Premji
C
Vishal Sikka
D
Abidali Z. Neemuchwala
Question 686
A physical balance is an example of :
A
Composite Machine
B
Inclined Plane
C
Lever
D
Wedge
Question 687
____ has the largest coal reserves in India.
A
Odisha
B
West Bengal
C
Jharkhand
D
Chhattisgarh
Question 688
Which of the following does the 7th Schedule of the Constitution of India Comprise? i) State List ii) Union List iiI) Concurrent List
A
All (i),(ii) and (iii)
B
Both (i) and (ii)
C
Only (i)
D
Both (ii) and (iii)
Question 689
Who is the current Speaker of Lok Sabha?
A
Meira Kumar
B
S. M. Krishna
C
Sumita Mahajan
D
Mohammad Hamid Ansari
Question 690
Whom did Chandragupta Maurya overthrow to take over the reins of the Magadha Empire?
A
Ajatshatru
B
Dhana Nanda
C
Bimbisara
D
Mahapadma Nanda
Question 691
Which country is the world leader in the population of bovine animals?
A
India
B
USA
C
Denmark
D
Spain
Question 692
Asia's first and longest cycle highway runs between:
A
Mumbai and Pune in Maharashtra
B
Etawah and Agra in Utter Pradesh
C
Hyderabad and Secundrebad in Telengana
D
Bengaluru and Mysuru in Karnataka
Question 693
Which of the following countries first invented the idea of "Gross National Happiness" to use happiness as a measure of Good governance?
A
Great Britain
B
Taiwan
C
Norway
D
Bhutan
Question 694
Who wrote the medieval-era epic poem “Padmavat”?
A
Mulla Daud
B
Abu'l-Fazl ibn Mubarak
C
Malik Muhammad "Jayasi"
D
Amir Khusro
Question 695
What does IDBI in IDBI Bank stand for?
A
Investment Development Board of India
B
Industrial Development Bank of India
C
Infrastructure and Development Board of India
D
Industrial Divestment Board of India
Question 696
Which film won the 70th British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA Award in the Best Special Visual Effects category
A
Manchester by the Sea
B
Lion
C
The Jungle Book
D
LaLa Land
Question 697
Which statement about the Gobi Desert is NOT correct?
A
Gobi is a cold desert.
B
Gobi desert is the most expansive arid region in Asia.
C
Most of Gobi's rain is blocked by the Himalayas.
D
Most of Gobi's rain is blocked by the Himalayas.
Question 698
What does RAM in a computer stands for?
A
Random Access Memory
B
Rapid Action Machine
C
Random Application Mapping
D
Rapid Applied Memory
Question 699
Whom among the following stepped down as the Chariman of International Cricket Council (ICC) on 15th March 2017?
A
Zaheer Abbas
B
David Richardson
C
Shasank Manohar
D
N. Srinivasan
Question 700
Which of the following Governor Generals of India eamed the title , “Maker of the Modern India”?
A
Lord Dalhousie
B
Lord Bentick
C
Lord Canning
D
Lord Mountbatten
Question 701
Who is the chief Justice of India as of February 2017?
A
Justice T. S. Thakur
B
Justice C. S. Karnan
C
Justice H. L. Dattu
D
Justice Jagdish Singh Khehar
Question 702
Who won the Men's Final Australian Open Championship 2017?
A
Stanislas Wawrinka
B
Novak Djokovic
C
Roger Federer
D
Rafael Nadal
Question 703
All executive action of the Government of India is taken in the name of the___________
A
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B
President of India
C
Prime Minister of India
D
Vice President of India
Question 704
Mr. Shiva invested equal amount of money in two private finus which gives 15% simple interest per annum for 3.5 years and 5 years respectively If the difference in their interests is Rs. 270. The amount invested by Mr. Shiva is:
A
Rs. 1500
B
Rs. 1200
C
Rs. 1250
D
Rs 1205
Question 705
Pipe A can fill the tank 2 times fast then pipe B. If pipe A and B together fill the end in 24 minutes, then pipe B alone can fill the tank in:
A
75 minutes
B
70 minutes
C
72 minutes
D
71 minutes
Question 706
A
x = -1
B
x=0
C
x=1
D
x=-2
Question 707
A Flight has to travel between 2 cities A and B, 3000 kam apart. The flight was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30 min. The duration of the flight with original speed is:
A
2.6 hrs
B
2.75 hrs
C
2.25 hrs
D
2.5 hrs
Question 708
A train 130 meters long travelling at 36 km/hr crosses the bridge in 30 sec. Then the length of the bridge is:
A
196 meters
B
170 meters
C
125 meters
D
175 meters
Question 709
If two is added to the denominator of a rational munber it becomes ⅓ and if 4 is added to the numerator it becomes ½ . Then the sum of the numerator and the denominator of the rational number is:
A
-38
B
38
C
-18
D
18
Question 710
Ms. Shivangi invests Rs. 4000 for six months at 20% per annum compounded quarterly. The total amount she gets after 6 months is:
A
Rs. 4401
B
Rs. 4410
C
Rs. 4411
D
Rs. 4440
Question 711
For a positive integer n, 36n- 63n is divisible by:
A
3
B
513
C
500
D
6
Question 712
Due to economic surges the price of eggs reduced to 40%. This enabled a woman to buy 64 more eggs for $50. Then the reduced price per dozen is:
A
$3.5
B
$3.75
C
$3.25
D
$4
Question 713
If x1 and x2 are the roots of the equation x2+2x-15 =0 then the quadratic equation which has the roots 1/x1 and 1/x2 is :
A
-15x2-2x-1 = 0
B
15x2-2x-1 = 0
C
15x2-2x+1 = 0
D
15x2+2x-1 = 0
Question 714
The curved surface area of a hemisphere is 8cm2, then its radius is:
A
1 cm
B
3 cm
C
2.5 cm
D
2 cm
Question 715
If the three sides of the triangle are given as 32 cm, 33 cm and 34 cm then the area of the triangle is:
A
500 cm2
B
480 cm2
C
450 cm2
D
475 cm2
Question 716
If the sum of 2 numbers is 175, their LCM is 300 and HCF is 25, then the difference between 2 numbers is :
A
10
B
25
C
20
D
15
Question 717
The total number of odd factors of 25*33*52 is :
A
12
B
10
C
6
D
15
Question 718
Mr. Vijay rows a boat with the stream in 8km/hr and against the stream in 4 km/hr. In still water, his rate of rowing in km/hr is:
A
1
B
3
C
4
D
2
Question 719
If y exceeds x by 10% then x is less than y by what percent ?
A
9 (1/12)
B
9 (1/13)
C
9 (1/14)
D
9 (1/11)
Question 720
In a chemistry lab two beakers A and B contain 62% and 84% of spirit respectively. If two liters from A is mixed with 4 liters of B, the ratio of spirit and water in the resulting mixture is:
A
58 :19
B
17 :19
C
23 :7
D
17 :21
Question 721
If -5x1 and -1y5, then the minimum value of 2y-3x is :
A
-5
B
-9
C
-8
D
-10
Question 722
The number of terms in the sequence 20, 25, 30,..........,150 is:
A
23
B
22
C
27
D
26
Question 723
An army post with 1800 men has provision of food for 50 days. After 10 days, some of the men go back to the base camp due to injuries. The remaining food is now enough for the next 50 days for the remaining men. What is the number of men who went back the base camp?
A
350 Men
B
360 Men
C
250 Men
D
310 Men
Question 724
The numbers of terms in the sequence 5, 20, 80, 320,......... 81920 is:
A
6
B
7
C
9
D
8
Question 725
Mr. Deep divides Rs. 1833 such that 4 times the 1st share , thrice the 2nd share and twice the third share amount to the same. Then the value of the 2nd share is :
A
Rs. 546
B
Rs. 564
C
Rs. 560
D
Rs. 654
Question 726
A can finish the work in 25 days and B in 25 days . They both work together for 5 days and then B leaves. How many days will A take to complete the remaining work?
A
18 days
B
20 days
C
17 days
D
15 days
Question 727
In a bio gas plant the population of yeast bacteria increases at a rate of 9% per annum, but there is an additional annual increase of 1% in population due to various other inputs in the system. The percentage increase in the yeast population after 2yr is:
A
20%
B
21%
C
25%
D
22%
Question 728
The average of 7 numbers is 29. The average of first three of them is 23 and the last three of them is 42. Then the fourth number is:
A
8
B
9
C
10
D
12
Question 729
Select the one which is different from other three.
A
GHST
B
EVFU
C
KPLO
D
IRJQ
Question 730
What is related to 'Courage' in the same way as 'Kindness' is related to 'Cruelty'?
A
Cowardice
B
Bravery
C
Fear
D
Valour
Question 731
In a certain code language CARPET is writen as FDUSHW. How will MOTHER be coded in that code language?
A
PRWHUK
B
PRWKHU
C
OPUIFS
D
REHTOM
Question 732
Four sets of three statements each are given below. Take these statements to be true even if they look factually absurd. Select one alternative which third statement is implied by the first two statements.
A
All tables are chairs. All cupboards are tables. So, all chairs are cupboards.
B
All J's are K's. All K's are M's. So, all M's are J's.
C
All apples are red. All bananas ore apples. So, all bananas are red.
D
All locks are keys. Some ball are keys. So, all locks are balls.
Question 733

How many triangles are there in the following figure?


A
20
B
28
C
24
D
12
Question 734
Choose the correct alternative that will complete the given number series, 9, 17, 31, 57, ?, 205
A
107
B
102
C
104
D
109
Question 735
Find the odd number pair from the given alternative.
A
46-10
B
42-33
C
25 — 43
D
12—91
Question 736
Find missing number from the given alternatives.

A
42
B
43
C
41
D
45
Question 737
Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror is held on the line X Y?

A
B
C
D
Question 738
'R' is the paternal uncle of 'P'. who is the daughter of and 'N' is the daughter-in-law of 'M'. How is 'R' related to
A
Brother
B
Cousin
C
Son-in-law
D
Son
Question 739
Mother's age is twice her daughter 's age. The son is older than daughter by one year and father is five years older than mother. If son has completed 18 years, find father's age.
A
40 years
B
39 years
C
41 years
D
42 years
Question 740
Select the Related number from the given alternatives, 23 : 34:: 47: ?
A
72
B
65
C
62
D
69
Question 741
Three positions of a cube ate shown below. Which number will be opposite to the face containing 3?

A
1
B
4
C
6
D
5
Question 742
If '+' means 'x', '-'means '÷' , 'x' means '-' and '÷' means '+', then what will be the value of 16÷3 — 6 x 2 + 3 — ?
A
26
B
20
C
16
D
14
Question 743
In a row of boys, Vivek stands thirteenth from the left and Ravi is thirteenth from the right. If they interchange their places. Ravi would be eighteenth from the right. How many boys are there in the row
A
29
B
31
C
30
D
32
Question 744
From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. ORGANISATION
A
GRANT
B
REASON
C
ORGAN
D
STRONG
Question 745
In the given letter series, which one set of letters when sequentially placed in the gaps shall complete it? p_n n m_p m n_m p_m n_m p
A
n p m p n
B
m p n p n
C
m n p n p
D
n m n p p
Question 746
Shyam walked 20 metres towards south. Then he turned to his left and walked 15 metres. He again turned to his left and walked 20 metres. He then turned to his right and walked 10 metre. How far and in which direction is Shyam from the starting point?
A
35 Metres, East
B
25 Metres, East
C
35 Metres, West
D
25 Metres, North
Question 747
Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below. Boys , Students, Athletes
A
B
C
D
Question 748
Seven friends — A. B. C. D, E. F and G are sitting in a circle facing at the centre. 'E' is neighbor of A and D. 'G' is not between 'F' and 'C'. 'F is to the immediate right of 'A'. Who is silting to the right of 'G'?
A
C
B
F
C
D
D
A
Question 749
Alok is older than Malvika. Gyan is older than Malvika but younger than Alok. Kamal is younger than Rashmi and Malvika. Malvika is older than Rashmi. whose age is exactly in the middle of the five?
A
Gyan
B
Malvika
C
Alok
D
Rashmi
Question 750
Select the figure from the alternatives which will complete the pattern in given question figure.

A
B
C
D
Question 751
Identify the word which belongs to the class of given words. Grams, Kilograms, Quintal
A
Yard
B
Tonnes
C
Litre
D
Kilometer
Question 752
Some equations ale solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct value for '?' on that basis. 8 * 6 = 28 11 * 5=96 15 * 7 = ?
A
208
B
105
C
147
D
176
Question 753
Select the related letter from the given alternatives. CXFU : AZBY :: GTNM : ?
A
EVJQ
B
RIIP
C
IRRD
D
EROP
Question 754
In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been underlined. One of them is incorrect. Select the INCORRECT word or phrase from the given options. You can be exempted from games only while you produce a medical certificate.
A
Only while
B
Produce
C
From
D
Can be
Question 755
Select the word that best expresses the meaning of the given word. COMPLIMENT
A
Agree
B
Admire
C
Please
D
Criticize
Question 756
Select the ANTONYM of the given word. PRECIOUS
A
Valued
B
Worthless
C
Loved
D
Costly
Question 757
Select the word that is spelt INCORRECTLY.
A
favaur
B
fauna
C
faucet
D
fault
Question 758
Select the phrase that best expresses the meaning of the underlined word. I am grateful to my teacher who persistently scolded me for poor spelling.
A
pulled me through
B
pulled me up
C
pulled me out
D
pulled me off
Question 759
Select the option that completes the sentence CORRECTLY. My cousin felt annoyed with_____ when he saw what had happened due to his ignorance.
A
himself
B
oneself
C
myself
D
itself
Question 760
Select the phrase that best expresses the meaning of the underline word. It was a serious offence but he was allowed to go with a warning.
A
let down
B
let off
C
let out
D
let aside
Question 761
Find the appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom. A true friend will stand by you through thick and thin.
A
at the last moment
B
in difficult times
C
under all circumstances
D
during summer time
Question 762
Select the option that completes the sentence CORRECTLY Next week I____________to visit my cousin.
A
will intend
B
intended
C
intending
D
intend
Question 763
Select the word that is spelt INCORRECTLY.
A
Excel
B
Excess
C
Access
D
Expell
Question 764
Select the ANTONYM of the given word. STRAIGHT
A
Weak
B
Long
C
Crooked
D
Short
Question 765
Select the option that completes the sentence CORRECTLY. If you have any queries to raise__________ please let me know now.
A
about
B
up
C
no word required
D
along
Question 766
Select the word that best expresses the meaning of the given word. CONCEAL
A
Deceive
B
Hide
C
Free
D
Detest
Question 767
Select the word that best expresses the meaning of the given word. TRANQUIL
A
Calm
B
Silent
C
Active
D
Tired
Question 768
Select the ANTONYM of the given word. DESPAIR
A
Detest
B
Abandon
C
Reject
D
Hope
Question 769
In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been underlined. One of them is incorrect. Select the INCORRECT word or phrases from the given options. A time came when Gautam Buddha began to feel weary with the luxuries surrounding him.
A
Came
B
When
C
Began to
D
with
Question 770
Select the word that is spelt INCORRECTLY.
A
Moltan
B
Molecule
C
Moist
D
molest
Question 771
Select the option that completes the sentence CORRECTLY. I don’t think you will have ____________ difficulty in obtaining your driving license.
A
Some
B
A great deal
C
Many
D
Any
Question 772
In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been underlined. One of them is incorrect. Select the INCORRECT word or phrase from the given options. This is one of the five books that was launched yesterday at the Vigyan Bhawan.
A
One of the
B
This
C
That was
D
at
Question 773
In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been underlined. One of them is incorrect. Select the INCORRECT word or phrase from the given options. If Antarctica has a very cold climate a variety of sea birds is found there
A
Has
B
A Variety
C
Is found
D
if
Question 774
COMPREHENSION PASSAGE: Read the following passage and answer the given questions. A desert is basically a wilderness or a wasteland. There is little moisture and poor soil such as sand gravel or rock. There are few plants to offer shade. Deserts can be described as harsh places. Many are burning hot by day and cold by night. Every continent has deserts. Much of the western United States is a desert. A desert region called The Outback covers Central Australia. The southern tip of South America is largely desert. Northern Africa is covered by the Sahara, a desert as big as the mainland United States. The Arabian Peninsula. between the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, is almost entirely desert. A large part of central Asia, from China to the Caspian Sea, is mostly desert. Deserts coyer 1/8 of our planet. The popular belief is that a desert is dry. hot, waterless and without shelter. But this is not entirely correct. For those who have studied it. the desert can be a beautiful place. It is home to a variety of people. animals and plants that have learnt to live under hot and dry conditions. A desert is not always a flat, unchanging wasteland of dry sand. It may have mountains and hills. It may have an oasis. big or small. An oasis is like a green island in the middle of a desert where a spring of a well gives plants and trees a better chance to grow. All living things need water in order to survive. The few plants and animals that live in deserts have developed the ability to require less water than most plants and animals. Desert plants have adapted to heat and dryness of the desert. Plants such as cacti have special means of storing and conserving water. They often have few or no leaves. Some plants have gotten used to arid environments by growing extremely long roots, allowing them to acquire moisture at or by the water table. The desert animals also have found a way to solve the heat and water problems the dessert environment creates. Camels can drink a lot of water at one time. They can live without water for days together. The reason is they sweat very little. We sweat because we must keep our body temperature constant. We sweat when it gets hot. and this cools the body. Camels can stand a high body temperature. They don't need to sweat and can therefore retain the water they drink for long periods of time. *What is the popular belief about the climatic conditions of a desert?
A
It is a region surrounded by mountains and hills.
B
It is sandy where no rain falls and no vegetation grow.
C
It has vast land which is used for cultivation of flowers
D
A variety of animals and plants live there.
Question 775
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. A desert is basically a wilderness or a wasteland. There is little moisture and poor soil such as sand gravel or rock. There are few plants to offer shade. Deserts can be described as harsh places. Many are burning hot by day and cold by night. Every continent has deserts. Much of the western United States is a desert. A desert region called The Outback covers Central Australia. The southern tip of South America is largely desert. Northern Africa is covered by the Sahara, a desert as big as the mainland United States. The Arabian Peninsula. between the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, is almost entirely desert. A large part of central Asia, from China to the Caspian Sea, is mostly desert. Deserts coyer 1/8 of our planet. The popular belief is that a desert is dry. hot, waterless and without shelter. But this is not entirely correct. For those who have studied it. the desert can be a beautiful place. It is home to a variety of people. animals and plants that have learnt to live under hot and dry conditions. A desert is not always a flat, unchanging wasteland of dry sand. It may have mountains and hills. It may have an oasis. big or small. An oasis is like a green island in the middle of a desert where a spring of a well gives plants and trees a better chance to grow. All living things need water in order to survive. The few plants and animals that live in deserts have developed the ability to require less water than most plants and animals. Desert plants have adapted to heat and dryness of the desert. Plants such as cacti have special means of storing and conserving water. They often have few or no leaves. Some plants have gotten used to arid environments by growing extremely long roots, allowing them to acquire moisture at or by the water table. The desert animals also have found a way to solve the heat and water problems the dessert environment creates. Camels can drink a lot of water at one time. They can live without water for days together. The reason is they sweat very little. We sweat because we must keep our body temperature constant. We sweat when it gets hot. and this cools the body. Camels can stand a high body temperature. They don't need to sweat and can therefore retain the water they drink for long periods of time. *The desert region called ‘ The Outback ‘ is located in :
A
Central Asia
B
South America
C
North America
D
Central Australia
Question 776
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. A desert is basically a wilderness or a wasteland. There is little moisture and poor soil such as sand gravel or rock. There are few plants to offer shade. Deserts can be described as harsh places. Many are burning hot by day and cold by night. Every continent has deserts. Much of the western United States is a desert. A desert region called The Outback covers Central Australia. The southern tip of South America is largely desert. Northern Africa is covered by the Sahara, a desert as big as the mainland United States. The Arabian Peninsula. between the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, is almost entirely desert. A large part of central Asia, from China to the Caspian Sea, is mostly desert. Deserts coyer 1/8 of our planet. The popular belief is that a desert is dry. hot, waterless and without shelter. But this is not entirely correct. For those who have studied it. the desert can be a beautiful place. It is home to a variety of people. animals and plants that have learnt to live under hot and dry conditions. A desert is not always a flat, unchanging wasteland of dry sand. It may have mountains and hills. It may have an oasis. big or small. An oasis is like a green island in the middle of a desert where a spring of a well gives plants and trees a better chance to grow. All living things need water in order to survive. The few plants and animals that live in deserts have developed the ability to require less water than most plants and animals. Desert plants have adapted to heat and dryness of the desert. Plants such as cacti have special means of storing and conserving water. They often have few or no leaves. Some plants have gotten used to arid environments by growing extremely long roots, allowing them to acquire moisture at or by the water table. The desert animals also have found a way to solve the heat and water problems the dessert environment creates. Camels can drink a lot of water at one time. They can live without water for days together. The reason is they sweat very little. We sweat because we must keep our body temperature constant. We sweat when it gets hot. and this cools the body. Camels can stand a high body temperature. They don't need to sweat and can therefore retain the water they drink for long periods of time. * Why was an Oasis been Called ‘green’ island?
A
It has a source of water that supports vegetation.
B
It is surrounded by green hills and mountains.
C
The sand here is conductive for the vegetation.
D
It is in the middle of a vast desert.
Question 777
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. A desert is basically a wilderness or a wasteland. There is little moisture and poor soil such as sand gravel or rock. There are few plants to offer shade. Deserts can be described as harsh places. Many are burning hot by day and cold by night. Every continent has deserts. Much of the western United States is a desert. A desert region called The Outback covers Central Australia. The southern tip of South America is largely desert. Northern Africa is covered by the Sahara, a desert as big as the mainland United States. The Arabian Peninsula. between the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, is almost entirely desert. A large part of central Asia, from China to the Caspian Sea, is mostly desert. Deserts coyer 1/8 of our planet. The popular belief is that a desert is dry. hot, waterless and without shelter. But this is not entirely correct. For those who have studied it. the desert can be a beautiful place. It is home to a variety of people. animals and plants that have learnt to live under hot and dry conditions. A desert is not always a flat, unchanging wasteland of dry sand. It may have mountains and hills. It may have an oasis. big or small. An oasis is like a green island in the middle of a desert where a spring of a well gives plants and trees a better chance to grow. All living things need water in order to survive. The few plants and animals that live in deserts have developed the ability to require less water than most plants and animals. Desert plants have adapted to heat and dryness of the desert. Plants such as cacti have special means of storing and conserving water. They often have few or no leaves. Some plants have gotten used to arid environments by growing extremely long roots, allowing them to acquire moisture at or by the water table. The desert animals also have found a way to solve the heat and water problems the dessert environment creates. Camels can drink a lot of water at one time. They can live without water for days together. The reason is they sweat very little. We sweat because we must keep our body temperature constant. We sweat when it gets hot. and this cools the body. Camels can stand a high body temperature. They don't need to sweat and can therefore retain the water they drink for long periods of time. * Certain plants are able to survive in deserts because they:
A
Have thick stems and few leaves
B
Require less water than animals
C
Have adapted to survive in hot and dry climate
D
Develop especially long roots
Question 778
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. A desert is basically a wilderness or a wasteland. There is little moisture and poor soil such as sand gravel or rock. There are few plants to offer shade. Deserts can be described as harsh places. Many are burning hot by day and cold by night. Every continent has deserts. Much of the western United States is a desert. A desert region called The Outback covers Central Australia. The southern tip of South America is largely desert. Northern Africa is covered by the Sahara, a desert as big as the mainland United States. The Arabian Peninsula. between the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, is almost entirely desert. A large part of central Asia, from China to the Caspian Sea, is mostly desert. Deserts coyer 1/8 of our planet. The popular belief is that a desert is dry. hot, waterless and without shelter. But this is not entirely correct. For those who have studied it. the desert can be a beautiful place. It is home to a variety of people. animals and plants that have learnt to live under hot and dry conditions. A desert is not always a flat, unchanging wasteland of dry sand. It may have mountains and hills. It may have an oasis. big or small. An oasis is like a green island in the middle of a desert where a spring of a well gives plants and trees a better chance to grow. All living things need water in order to survive. The few plants and animals that live in deserts have developed the ability to require less water than most plants and animals. Desert plants have adapted to heat and dryness of the desert. Plants such as cacti have special means of storing and conserving water. They often have few or no leaves. Some plants have gotten used to arid environments by growing extremely long roots, allowing them to acquire moisture at or by the water table. The desert animals also have found a way to solve the heat and water problems the dessert environment creates. Camels can drink a lot of water at one time. They can live without water for days together. The reason is they sweat very little. We sweat because we must keep our body temperature constant. We sweat when it gets hot. and this cools the body. Camels can stand a high body temperature. They don't need to sweat and can therefore retain the water they drink for long periods of time. * Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
A
The Arabian Peninsula between the Persian Gulf and Caspain Sea is entirely desert.
B
In a desert region there is little moisture and poor soil.
C
Camels can retain water for a long time because they do not sweat.
D
About ⅛ area of the earth is covered by deserts.
Question 779
The principle of replacing a function irrespective of the context is called ______
A
Static binding
B
referential transparency
C
orthogonality
D
locality of reference
Question 780
The left hand side of an assignment statement should have ______
A
r-value
B
l-value
C
both r-value and l-value
D
either r-value or l-value
Question 781
The high level computer language PROLOG is categorized as ______
A
Functional language
B
Object oriented language
C
Logic programming Language
D
Scripting language
Question 781 Explanation: 
Prolog is a logic programming language associated with artificial intelligence and computational linguistics. Prolog has its roots in first-order logic, a formal logic. Prolog is well-suited for specific tasks that benefit from rule-based logical queries such as searching databases, voice control systems, and filling templates.
Question 782
Consider a language with following operations for string manipulation: car(s) returns the first character of string ‘s’. cdr(s) returns the suffix of ‘s’ excluding the first character. concat(s1,s2) returns the concatenation of s1 and s1. Which of the following is the output of concat(car(s), car(cdr(s)))) if string s = “PQRS”?
A
PR
B
PRS
C
RSP
D
PQ
Question 782 Explanation: 
concat(car(s), car(cdr(s)))
car(PQRS) = P
cdr(PQRS) = QRS
car(cdr(s)) = car(QRS) = Q
concat(P,Q) = PQ
Question 783
Which of the following options needs to be entered in order to add a value 20 to the shell variable, x?
A
$x=$x+20
B
let x =$x+20
C
let $x=$x+20
D
$x+=20
Question 783 Explanation: 
Option 2 is the correct notation for the addition of 20 in shell variable x,
Also if we want to add some values which is not constant literals then we will enter it as
x=$x + $y
where y is variable holding some value.
Question 784
Which of the following can be used to prevent improper authentication due to password exposure?
A
Trapdoor
B
One-Time Password
C
Trojan Horse
D
Anti-virus software
Question 785
Which of the following metric represents the expected life time of a software system?
A
Failure probability
B
Failure density function
C
Mean time to failure
D
Hazard rate
Question 786
Extendible hashing allows the size of the directory to increase and decrease depending on the number and variety of inserts and deletes. Once the directory size changes, the hash function applied to the search key value should also change. So there should be some information in the index as to which hash function is to be applied. This information is provided by ----------------
A
Local depth
B
Global depth
C
Over flow bucket
D
Buddy bucket
Question 787
Which of the following way can be used to keep track of previous client request?
A
Using cookies
B
Using hidden form fields
C
Using URL rewriting
D
All the given options
Question 788
When is the mouseout event fired?
A
When mouse is no longer over an element
B
When mouse is over an element
C
When mouse is hovered
D
None of the given options
Question 789
NFS server is
A
Stateful server
B
Stateless server
C
One whose architecture uses virtual file system(VSF) layer
D
Stateless server and One whose architecture uses virtual file system(VFS) layer
Question 790
Stateless server means
A
It keeps state information pertaining to a client request between such requests
B
It does not keep state information pertaining to a client request between such requests
C
Client binding to server is not required before processing a client request
D
None of the given options
Question 791
In a distributed system location transparency implies
A
Physical identity of the resources is not directly embedded into client’s code
B
Users can not tell where resources are located
C
Users can tell where resources are located
D
Physical identity of the resources is not directly embedded into client’s code and Users cannot tell where resources are located
Question 792
In group communication involving n members, group addressing uses
A
n – 1
B
One multicast
C
One multicast
D
May use any one of the given options
Question 793
The inherent limitation of Distributed Systems is
A
Absence of central controller for synchronization
B
Absence of shared memory
C
Absence of centralized deadlock manager
D
Absence of centralized scheduler
Question 794
Triple Modular Redundancy(TMR) for fault tolerance is characterized by
A
Each device is replicated three times
B
Each voter is a circuit that has three inputs and one output
C
Each device is replicated three times and Each voter is a circuit that has three inputs and one output
D
None of the given options
Question 795
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the data collection maintained in a Data Warehouse?
A
Integrated
B
Subject Oriented
C
Volatile
D
Time-variant
Question 796
Which of the following is an interestingness metric used for data characterization?
A
Typicality weight
B
Recall
C
Confidence
D
Cohesion
Question 797
The Euclidean distance between the pair or data points, X and Y, where X=0.2,0.5,0.6> and Y = 0, 4,0.4,0.1,0.6 > is ------
A
0.09
B
0.2
C
0.3
D
0.5
Question 798
Consider a 4-dimensional dataset with attributes A,B,C,D described in terms of 10,4,50,20 distinct values respectively. assuming that each cell occupied 2 bytes of memory, when is the total memory space required to materialize all possible 3-Dimensional cuboids of the dataset?
A
32,000 bytes
B
33,600 bytes
C
16,800 bytes
D
14,800 bytes
Question 799
Consider an attribute whose value is 48 in a range of 18 to 98. What is its equivalent value in -1 to +1 scale using Min-Max normalization?
A
0.75
B
0.25
C
-0.25
D
-0.625
Question 800
Which of the following metrics is used for building decision tree classifiers from the training set of examples?
A
Euclidean distance
B
Support
C
Information gain
D
Precision
Question 801
Which of the following estimates are represented in the Box-plot of an attribute?
A
Mean, Mode, and Median
B
Mean, Mode, Median, Min and Max
C
Min, Max, quartiles Q1, Q2 and Q3
D
Only quartiles Q1, Q2 and Q3
Question 802
Which of the following clustering algorithms is applicable for grouping nearly 1000 data points into ten mutually exclusive clusters?
A
Agglomerative clustering
B
Divisive clustering
C
DBSCAN
D
K-means clustering
Question 803
Which of the following activation functions is applied for hidden and output layer neurons for building a back propagation classifier using neural network?
A
Sigmoid function
B
Radial Basis Function
C
Poisson regression
D
Gaussian function
Question 804
If T consist of 500000 transactions, 20000 transaction contain bread, 30000 transaction contain jam, 10000 transaction contain both bread and jam. Then the support of bread and jam is ------------------
A
2 Percent
B
20 Percent
C
3 Percent
D
30 Percent
Question 805
Consider the performance of a binary classifier on a test set containing 1100 positive and 700 negative examples. The components of the confusion matrix in terms of TP, PN, FP and TN are 700,400, 200 and 500 respectively. what is the approximate value of classifier accuracy?
A
66.6 Percent
B
63.3 Percent
C
33.3 Percent
D
75 Percent
Question 806

The field that investigates the mechanics of human intelligence is _______.

A
Artificial science
B
Cognitive science
C
Psychology
D
Sociology
Question 807

A1 computing focus on ______ and conventional computing focus on ______ and ______.

A
data, information, knowledge
B
information, data, knowledge
C
knowledge, data, information
D
None of the given options
Question 807 Explanation: 
A1 computing focuses on knowledge and conventional computing focus on data and information.
Question 808

The intelligent agents senses through _______ and take actions through _______.

A
sensors, actuators
B
remove, signals
C
sensors, actuators and remote, signals
D
None of the given options
Question 809

A* algorithm uses ___________ heuristic function to search any goal node.

A
admissible function
B
fitness number
C
evaluation function
D
None of the given options
Question 810

An algorithm, if it is guaranteed to return an optimal solution if it exists, is known as

A
admissible
B
heuristic
C
optimistic
D
cognitive
Question 811

AO* algorithm is also known as

A
Admissible optimal algorithm
B
Accurate optimistic algorithm
C
And – or algorithm
D
None of the given options
Question 812

Raster systems display a picture from a definition in a _________

A
Display file program
B
Frame buffer
C
Display controller
D
None of the given options
Question 813

A bilinear transformation can be simulated by the transformations

A
Translation, rotation and stretching
B
Translation and rotation
C
Rotation, stretching and inversion
D
Rotation, stretching, inversion and translation
Question 814

Hue of a colour is related to its ___________

A
Luminance
B
Saturation
C
Incandescence
D
Wavelength
Question 815

The refresh rate below which a picture flickers is ___________

A
25
B
30
C
35
D
40
Question 815 Explanation: 
The refresh rate below which a picture flickers is 25.
Question 816

Nyquist Theorem to calculate maximum data rate is _______

A
2H log2 bits/ses
B
H log2 V bits/ses
C
H log2 (1+S/N)
D
2H log2 (1+S/N)
Question 816 Explanation: 
Nyquist theorem to calculate maximum data rate is 2H log2bits/sec.
Question 817

Data scrubbing is which of the following?

A
A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
B
A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
C
A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse
D
A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse
Question 818

The active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A
At least one data mart
B
Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C
Near real-time updates
D
All the given options
Question 819

A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A
To explain some observed event or condition
B
To confirm that data exists
C
To analyze data for expected relationships
D
To create a new data warehouse
Question 820

A snowflake scheme is which of the following types of tables?

A
Fact
B
Dimension
C
Helper
D
All the given options
Question 821

The generic two level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A
At least one data mart
B
Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C
Near real time updates
D
All the given options
Question 822

Fact tables are which of the following?

A
Completely denormalized
B
Partially denormalized
C
Completely normalized
D
Partially normalized
Question 823

Data transformation includes which of the following?

A
A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level
B
A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
C
Joining data from one source into various sources of data
D
Separating data from one source into various sources of data
Question 824

Which of the following clustering algorithms is applicable for grouping nearly 10000 data points into ten mutually exclusive clusters?

A
Agglomerative clustering
B
Divisive clustering
C
DBSCAN
D
K-means clustering
Question 825

An E-business that allows consumers to select their own descriptions for products and services (like Blogs) is following which E-business model?

A
B2B
B
B2C
C
C2C
D
C2B
Question 826

Kerberos is an encryption based system that uses

A
secret key encryption
B
public key encryption
C
private key encryption
D
datakey encryption
Question 826 Explanation: 
Kerberos is an encryption based system that uses secret key encryption.
Question 827

LDAP stands for

A
Light weight Data access protocol
B
Light weight Directory Access protocol
C
Large Data Access protocol
D
Large Directory Access protocol
Question 827 Explanation: 
LDAP stands for Light weight Directory Access protocol.
Question 828

Amazon.com comes under the following model

A
B2B
B
B2C
C
C2C
D
C2B
Question 828 Explanation: 
Amazon.com comes under the following model B2C.
Question 829

Internet access components in E-commerce infrastructure involves

A
TCP/IP package
B
kiosks
C
web browsers
D
All the given options
Question 830

E-commerce infrastructure involves

A
web servers
B
e-catalogs
C
networks
D
All the given options
Question 831

Management information systems (MIS)

A
create and share documents that support day-today office activities
B
process business transactions (e.g., time cards, payments, orders, etc.)
C
capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver
D
use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers to run the business
Question 832

If a university sets up a web-based information system that faculty could access to record student grades and to advise students, that would be an example of a/an

A
CRM
B
intranet
C
ERP
D
extranet
Question 833

A software project involves execution of 5 tasks T1, T2, T3, T4 and T5 of duration 10, 15, 18, 30 and 40 days, respectively. T2 and T4 can only start after T1 completes. T3 can start after T2 completes. T5 can start only after both T3 and T4 complete. What is the slack time of the task T3 in days?

A
0
B
3
C
18
D
30
Question 834

Which of the following enables enterprise interoperability?

A
DFD
B
Information flow diagram
C
XML
D
Entity relationship diagram
Question 835

Which command is used to display the top of the file?

A
cat
B
head
C
more
D
grep
Question 835 Explanation: 
Head command is used to display the top of the file.
Question 836

Which of the following is not a communication command?

A
write
B
mesg
C
mail
D
grep
Question 837
_______ checks type field in the file’s inode structure.
A
Shell
B
Kernel
C
Compiler
D
None of the given options
Question 838

Which of the following software engineering concepts does Ada language support?

A
Abstraction
B
Generic
C
Information hiding
D
All the given options
Question 839

Prototyping is used to

A
test the software as an end product
B
expand design details
C
refine and establish requirements gathering
D
None of the given options
Question 840

Top-down design does not require

A
step-wise refinement
B
loop invariant
C
flow charting
D
modularity
Question 841

The ______ method ensures that a new web page is generated.

A
GET
B
POST
C
DELETE
D
UPDATE
Question 842

If T consist of 500000 transactions, 20000 transaction contain bread, 30000 transaction contain jam, 10000 transaction contain both bread and jam. Then the support of bread and jam is _______

A
2 Percent
B
20 Percent
C
3 Percent
D
30 Percent
Question 843

Find the value of Math round(-20.5)

A
-21
B
20
C
-20
D
21
Question 844

Given below is a chart of rainfall amounts in Quinquinox city on a distant planet Quinox revolving around an equally distant Star. It has its own months and years. Year is, of course, the time takenin their own units of measurement to revolve once around their Star.

Examine the chart carefully and answer Question



How many months are there in a year on Quinox?
A
10
B
20
C
28
D
Not possible from the data given
Question 845

Given below is a chart of rainfall amounts in Quinquinox city on a distant planet Quinox revolving around an equally distant Star. It has its own months and years. Year is, of course, the time taken in their own units of measurement to revolve once around their Star.

Examine the chart carefully and answer Question



If climate is classified into the following three categories,

QNd Seasonal rainfall with wet season being short

QNe Uniform rainfall throughout the year

QNm Seasonal rainfall with wet season being long

Which category describes the climate of Quinquinox?
A
QNm
B
QNe
C
QNd
D
Not possible from the data given
Question 846



If the year on Quinox starts with Mon-Ol (which is also the first data point), which month in a year is the wettest?
A
18
B
12
C
8
D
5
Question 847
In Research Methodology, what does the word Ontology refer to?
A
Concepts and categories, their properties and relationships
B
Research papers and journals, their citation indices and impact factors
C
Cancers, diseases their treatments and hospitals
D
A word indexing method
Question 847 Explanation: 
Ontology is the philosophical study of being. More broadly, it studies concepts that directly relate to being, in particular becoming, existence, reality, as well as the basic categories of being and their relations.
Question 848
Which of the following is given as a classic example of proof by contradiction?
A
If a, b, e are positive integers, then a^n + b^n noteq c^n for any n > 2
B
The number of primes is infinite
C
The sum of first n integers is n(n+1)/2
D
If a, b, c are the sides of a right-angled triangle and c is its hypotenuse, then a^2 + b^2 = c^2
Question 848 Explanation: 
Proof by contradiction is a form of proof that establishes the truth or the validity of a proposition, by showing that assuming the proposition to be false leads to a contradiction
Question 849

Some possible reasons for Literature Review in research are given below. Read them and answer the question given below.

I. Show the state·of-the-art so that the significance of the solution proposed is clear to the reader.

II. Give a correct context to the scope of the work proposed in the thesis.

III. Demonstrate the scholarliness of the thesis writer.

IV. FiJI the minimum page requirement for a thesis.

Which of the above statements are VALID reasons?
A
I and II
B
I and III
C
II and III
D
None of the Above
Question 849 Explanation: 
Both statement I and II are valid
Question 850
A random-access read/write semiconductor memory chip is organized into 128 words of 8 bits each. A larger memory of 4K words of 16 bits each (K = 1024) may be obtained by connecting
A
32 chips in a 16 x 2 array
B
32 chips in a 32 x 1 array
C
64 chips in a 32 x 2 array
D
64 chips in a 8x8 array
Question 851
The set of statements that are executed automatically as a side effect of a modification to the database is a
A
Function
B
Procedure
C
Package
D
Trigger
Question 851 Explanation: 
Statement executed automatically by the system as a side effect of modification to database - Trigger. A database trigger is what is executed automatically in response to certain events on a particular table or view in a database.
Question 852
One of the main limitations of Hierarchical databases is
A
Limited capacity
B
Overheads associated with maintaining indices
C
Limited flexibility in data access
D
Poor performance
Question 852 Explanation: 
One of the main limitations of Hierarchical databases is limited flexibility in data access .
Question 853

The expression for commutative law is given by:

A
A+AB=A
B
A+AB=B
C
A+B=B+A
D
AB+AA'=A
Question 853 Explanation: 
The commutative law states that,
A op B = B op A
Where op is any operator.
Hence A+B = B+A
Question 854

A trigger has three parts.
The ____ describes the change that activates the trigger.
The _____ is a query that is run whenever the trigger is activated.
The ___ is the procedure that is executable if the trigger is activated and the condition is true.

A
event, condition, actor
B
entity, condition, action
C
event, question, action
D
event, condition, action
Question 854 Explanation: 
The event describes the change that activates the trigger.
The condition is a query that is run whenever the trigger is activated.
The action is the procedure that is executable if the trigger is activated and the condition is true.
Question 855

Find the output of the following

#include
int main()
{
 int x=5, y=9;
 x=(x=x+y)-(y=x-y);
 printf("%d%d", x,y);
 return 0;
} 
A
5 14
B
5 9
C
14 5
D
9 5
Question 855 Explanation: 
int x=5, y=9;
x=(x=x+y)-(y=x-y); // Since ‘-’ is left associative so x=x+y will be calculated first and the value of x will become (x=5+9=14). Now y=x-y will be calculated and the value of y will become (y=14-9=5). And finally the value (14-5) will be stored in x which is 9. Hence the final value of x and y is 9 and 5.
printf("%d%d", x,y); // So finally the value printed will be 9 and 5.
return 0;
Question 856

A multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processor are connected to a single shared main memory is known as

A
Asymmetric Multiprocessing
B
Symmetric Multiprocessing
C
NUMA – Non Uniform Memory Access
D
Clustered Multiprocessing
Question 856 Explanation: 
A multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processor are connected to a single shared main memory is known as symmetric multiprocessing.
Question 857

Any “C” statement that beings with # is process by

A
Compiler
B
Linker
C
Preprocessor
D
Assembler
Question 857 Explanation: 
Any ‘C' statement that beings with # is process by preprocessor.
Question 858
Which of the following computers is least powerful?
A
Mini
B
Micro
C
Mainframe
D
Super
Question 858 Explanation: 
Micro computer is the least powerful computer and super computer is the most powerful computer.
Question 859
For a memory system, the cycle time is
A
Same as the access time
B
Longer than the access time
C
Shorter than the access time
D
Sub-multiple of the access time
Question 859 Explanation: 
For a memory system, the cycle time is Longer than the access time. Cycle time is the time, usually measured in nanosecond s, between the start of one random access memory ( RAM ) access to the time when the next access can be started. Access time is sometimes used as a synonym.
Question 860
Canonical derivations are otherwise called as
A
left most derivations
B
right most derivations
C
left most reductions
D
right most reductions
Question 860 Explanation: 
A rightmost derivation step is also called canonical. If every derivation step is rightmost, then this is a canonical derivation. Each in a derivation is called a sequential form of G.
Question 861
Program threats are
A
Trojan Horse
B
Trap doors
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
None of these
Question 861 Explanation: 
Program threats are :
Trojan Horse − Such program traps user login credentials and stores them to send to malicious user who can later on login to computer and can access system resources.
Trap Door − If a program which is designed to work as required, have a security hole in its code and perform illegal action without knowledge of user then it is called to have a trap door.
Logic Bomb − Logic bomb is a situation when a program misbehaves only when certain conditions met otherwise it works as a genuine program. It is harder to detect.
Virus − Virus as name suggest can replicate themselves on computer system. They are highly dangerous and can modify/delete user files, crash systems. A virus is generally a small code embedded in a program. As user accesses the program, the virus starts getting embedded in other files/ programs and can make system unusable for user.
Question 862
Who got the Nobel Prize for Peace in the year 2011?
A
Thomas Sargent
B
Christopher Sims
C
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf. Leymah Gbowee and Tawakkol Karman
D
Domas Transtroma
Question 862 Explanation: 
The Nobel Peace Prize 2011 was awarded jointly to Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, Leymah Gbowee and Tawakkol Karman "for their non-violent struggle for the safety of women and for women's rights to full participation in peace-building work."
Question 863
Which country won the Kabaddi World Cup, 2011?
A
United Kingdom
B
India
C
Canada
D
Germany
Question 863 Explanation: 
India won the kabaddi world cup, 2011.
Question 864
The Raman effect is used in the study of
A
X-rays
B
Cells
C
Chromosomes
D
Molecular energy
Question 864 Explanation: 
The spectrum of the Raman-scattered light depends on the molecular constituents present and their state, allowing the spectrum to be used for material identification and analysis. Raman spectroscopy is used to analyze a wide range of materials, including gases, liquids, and solids.
Question 865
Green India Programme is the National Action plan on
A
Pollution
B
Climate change
C
Rainfall
D
Environment
Question 865 Explanation: 
GIM is one of the eight key Missions outlined under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It aims at protecting, enhancing and restoring India's decreasing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of mitigation and adaptation measures.
Question 866
Which of the following is measured on the Richter scale?
A
Density of liquids
B
Intensity of earthquakes
C
Velocity of tornadoes
D
Height of mountains
Question 866 Explanation: 
The Richter scale measures the maximum amplitude of seismic waves as they reach seismographs. This scale is expressed with a logarithmic scale. Thus, an earthquake measuring 7.0 on the Richter scale would be 10 times larger than an earthquake that measures 6.0.
Question 867
Who led the French forces during the battle of Waterloo?
A
Duke of Wellington
B
Duke of Cornwall
C
Napoleon Bonaparte
D
Duke of Scotland
Question 867 Explanation: 
A French army under the command of Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated by two of the armies of the Seventh Coalition: an Anglo-led Allied army under the command of the Duke of Wellington, and a Prussian army under the command of Gebhard Leberecht von Blücher.
Question 868
Which of the following is a direct tax?
A
Excise duty
B
Sales tax
C
Income tax
D
Both (B) & (C)
Question 868 Explanation: 
A taxpayer, for example, pays direct taxes to the government for different purposes, including real property tax, personal property tax, income tax or taxes on assets. Therefore, income tax is a direct tax.
Question 869
Parallel printer uses
A
RS 232 C interface
B
Centronics interface
C
Handshake mode
D
All of these
Question 869 Explanation: 
On PCs, the parallel port uses a 25-pin connector (type DB-25) and is used to connect printers, computers and other devices that need relatively high bandwidth. It is often called a Centronics interface after the company that designed the original standard for parallel communication between a computer and printer.
Question 870
Consider six files: F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6 with corresponding sizes 100, 200, 70, 40, 250 and 50 respectively. The files are to be stored on a sequential device in such a way that as to optimize access time. In what order should the files be stored?
A
F6, F5, F4, F3, F2, F1
B
F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6
C
F5, F2, F1, F3, F6, F4
D
F4, F6, F3, F1, F2, F5
Question 870 Explanation: 
To optimize access time of the files they should be placed in a sequential device according to their sizes in increasing order.
So the order will be F4, F6, F3, F1, F2, F5.
Question 871
The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to:
A
fix errors
B
find errors
C
clear errors
D
modify errors
Question 871 Explanation: 
Primary objective of formal technical reviews:
Find errors during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software. Benefit - the early discovery of errors so they do not propagate to the next step in the software process
Question 872
The point at which a set of projected parallel lines appear to converge is called :
A
Convergence point
B
Vanishing point
C
Point of illusion
D
Point of delusion
Question 872 Explanation: 
A vanishing point is a point on the image plane of a perspective drawing where the two-dimensional perspective projections (or drawings) of mutually parallel lines in three-dimensional space appear to converge.
Question 873
The ISO standard for computer graphics is?
A
Graphics kernel system
B
Graphics standard system
C
Computer graphics standard
D
None of the above
Question 873 Explanation: 
The Graphical Kernel System (GKS) was the first ISO standard for low-level computer graphics, introduced in 1977. A draft international standard was circulated for review in September 1983. Final ratification of the standard was achieved in 1985.
Question 874
A Image compression technique that determines the most frequently occurring pairs of bytes is called:
A
Run length encoding
B
Diatomic encoding
C
Huffman encoding
D
Arithmetic encoding
Question 874 Explanation: 
Diatomic encoding is a variation based on combinations of two data bytes. This technique determines the most frequently occurring pairs of bytes.
Question 875
The standard graphics objects are :
A
Line
B
Point
C
Polygon
D
None of the above
Question 875 Explanation: 
The standard graphics objects are polygon surfaces.
Question 876
The wavelength of visible spectrum falls in :
A
400 nm to 500 nm
B
500 nm to 700 nm
C
600 nm to 700 nm
D
400 nm to 700 nm
Question 876 Explanation: 
Visible light falls within the range of 400-700 nm.
Question 877
JPEG is a :
A
Image compression standard
B
Image file format
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
Video file format
Question 877 Explanation: 
JPEG is a popular image file format. It is commonly used by digital cameras to store photos since it supports 224 or 16,777,216 colors. The format also supports varying levels of compression, which makes it ideal for web graphics.
Question 878
C(5, 2) is not equal to :
A
C (5, 3)
B
20
C
10
D
5!/3!2!
Question 878 Explanation: 
⇒ C(5,2) = 5C2 = 5C3 (∴ nCr = nCn-r)
⇒ 5C2 = ∠5/∠3∠2 (∴ nCr = ∠n/∠r∠n-r)
⇒ 5C2 = ∠5/∠3∠2 = 5×4/2 = 10
Question 879
MFLOPS can be abbreviated as :
A
Millions of Floating – Point operations performed per second.
B
Millions of Fixed – Length operations performed per second.
C
Millions of Floating – Limited operations performed per second.
D
Millions of Fixed – Limited operations performed per second.
Question 879 Explanation: 
Short for mega floating-point operations per second, MFLOPs are a common measure of the speed of computers used to perform floating-point calculations.
Question 880
Who won the gold both in the 5,000 and 10,000 metres event in 2017 Asian Athletics Championship?
A
Lakshmanan
B
Gopy Thonkanal
C
Jinson Johnson
D
Neeraj Chopra
Question 880 Explanation: 
G lakshamanan won the gold both in the 5000 and 10000 metres event in 2017 asian athletics championship.
Question 881
What temperature are Fahrenheit and Celsius equal?
A
–40°
B
574.59
C
40
D
–574.59
Question 881 Explanation: 
The Fahrenheit and Celsius scales have one point at which they intersect. They are equal at -40 °C and -40 °F.
Question 882
First state to fix minimum education qualification for cooperative body poll:
A
Rajasthan
B
West Bengal
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Karnataka
Question 882 Explanation: 
Rajasthan, First State to fix minimum education qualification for cooperative body poll.
Question 883
Who wrote the novel – ‘KavalKottam’?
A
Vannadasan
B
S. Venkatesan
C
Joe D Cruz
D
Puviarasan
Question 883 Explanation: 
S. Venkatesan wrote the novel --’ KavalKottam’.
Question 884
Article 21-A and the RTE Act came into effect:
A
On 1st April 2010
B
On 1st April 2009
C
On 1st April 2017
D
On 1st April 2005
Question 884 Explanation: 
Article 21-A and the RTE Act came into effect on 1 April 2010. The title of the RTE Act incorporates the words 'free and compulsory'. ... The RTE Act provides for the: Right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school.
Question 885
Who among the following has become the first Indian cricketer and second in world cricket to complete 100 T-20 Internationals?
A
Rohit Sharma
B
Virat Kohli
C
MS Dhoni
D
Ravindra Jadeja
Question 886
Who had introduced 'Doctrine of Lapse’ in India?
A
Lord Dalhousie
B
Lord Canning
C
Lord Hastings
D
Lord Auckland
Question 887
Who is the President of FICCI?
A
Rashesh Shah
B
Sangita Reddy
C
Sandip Somany
D
Uday Shankar
Question 888
Phulkari is the famous handicraft of which state?
A
Sikkim
B
Punjab
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
Maharashtra
Question 889
Who is the first Indian to be nominated as the General Vice President of International Organisation Development Association (IODA)?
A
Sangita Reddy
B
Vinaya Shetty
C
Uday Shankar
D
Arvind Singh
Question 890
Nabakalebara is the festival of which of the following state?
A
Kerala
B
Karnataka
C
Odisha
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 891
The Amazon rainforest is spread over in ________ countries.
A
5
B
3
C
9
D
8
Question 892
Which of the following can be used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor?
A
Liquid Sodium
B
Nitrogen
C
Hydrogen
D
Carbon monoxide
Question 893
Which of the following country will host the 2023 Men’s Hockey World Cup?
A
India
B
Spain
C
New Zealand
D
China
Question 894
Which of the following is the oldest oilseed crop in India?
A
Flaxseed
B
Mustard
C
Rapeseed
D
Sesame
Question 895
Who among the following will only be provided with SPG cover in India?
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Home Minister
D
Finance Minister
Question 896
_________ speed is measured by the Anemometer.
A
Cyclone
B
Current
C
Earthquake
D
Wind
Question 897
Which of the following IT initiatives have been launched by the Ministry of Finance for improving monitoring and pace of Customs clearance of imported goods and facilitating arriving international passengers?
A
ICAM
B
Cyber security
C
DCOI
D
ICEDASH and ATITHI
Question 898
Who has been appointed as Chairman of the Airport Authority of India?
A
Amit Khare
B
Arvind Singh
C
Rajnish Kumar
D
Ashok Malik
Question 899
Which of the following country will host “No Money for Terror” conference in 2020?
A
Nepal
B
China
C
Sri Lanka
D
India
Question 900
Which of the following is the first Indian Regional Satellite?
A
INSAT-3D
B
IRNSS-1A
C
YOUTHSAT
D
GSAT-7
Question 901
For which of the following mineral India is mainly depend on imports?
A
Lead
B
Mercury
C
Mica
D
Limestone
Question 902
________ is the most cultivated crop of Kerala
A
Wheat
B
Chick Pea
C
Mustard
D
Cow Pea
Question 903
Where is India’s two operational Satellite Launch Pads located?
A
Mumbai
B
Rajkot
C
Sriharikota
D
Jalandhar
Question 904
When is the World Science Day for Peace and Development celebrated every year?
A
30th August
B
4th November
C
10th November
D
11th October
Question 905
Sheikh Khalifa Bin Zayed Al Nahyan has been elected as the President of which of the following country?
A
UAE
B
Bahrain
C
Kuwait
D
Qatar
Question 906
Who appoints the Vice President of India?
A
President
B
Supreme Court
C
The Electoral College of India
D
Prime Minister
Question 907
Which of the following Company has developed Mac Operating System?
A
Microsoft
B
IBM Corp
C
HP
D
Apple
Question 908
Who was the founder of Sayyid Dynasty?
A
Jalal-ud-din Khilji
B
Sikandar Lodhi
C
Khizar Khan
D
Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
Question 909
Which of the following General Insurance Company has launched “Farmitra” a mobile app for farmers?
A
United India Insurance
B
The Oriental Insurance
C
Tata AIG Insurance
D
Bajaj Allianz General Insurance
Question 910
The average of 17 numbers is 48. The average of first 9 numbers is 45 and average of next 9 numbers is 52. If 9th number is excluded, the average of the remaining number is:
A
53.4375
B
47.4375
C
49.5225
D
58.5135
Question 911
Alloy A contains copper and zinc in the ratio 4 : 5 and alloy B contains copper and zinc in the ratio 7 : 2. A and B are taken in the ratio 7 : 4 and melted to form a new alloy. The percentage of copper in the new alloy is closest to:
A
67.5%
B
65.25%
C
56.57%
D
57.79%
Question 912
A woman distributed her savings between her daughters A, B, C and D in the ratio 6 : 7 : 9 :16. If A gives Rs. 600 from his share to C, the ratio of shares of A, B, C and D becomes 1 : 4 : 2 : 5. What is the sum of shares (in Rs.) of A, C and B, in the beginning?
A
13200
B
14550
C
15100
D
14750
Question 913
Sum of first 10 terms of a GP is equal to the sum of the first 12 terms in the same GP. Sum of the first 17 terms is 42, what is the fourth term in the GP?
A
0
B
-42
C
42
D
-21
Question 914
If a six-digit number 3x9 z8 y is divisible by 7, 11, 13, then the average value of x.y.z is :
A
23/3
B
31/3
C
8
D
20/3
Question 915
Twenty five litres of 40% concentration of acid solution is added to 35 litres of 70% concentration of acid solution. What is the concentration of acid in the new solution?
A
57.5%
B
55%
C
60%
D
62.5%
Question 916
A 18 m long ladder (whose foot is on the ground) leans against a wall making an angle of 30° with the wall. What is the height (in m) of the point where the ladder touches the wall from the ground?
A
9√3
B
(9√3)/2
C
18
D
9√2
Question 917
A person invested a sum of Rs. 9000 at r% per annum at simple interest and a sum of Rs.13500 at (r−2)% at simple interest. If total interest earned on both the investments for 5years is Rs. 9337.50, then the rate of interest on the first investment is:
A
8%
B
10%
C
7.5%
D
9.5%
Question 918
From the top of a pole house A in a street, the angles of elevation and depression of the top and foot of house B on the opposite side of the street are 60° and 30°, respectively. If the height of pole house A is 21 m, then what is the height (in m) of house B? (correct to one decimal place)
A
48.5
B
57.5
C
47.8
D
49.8
Question 919
A woman saves 18% of her income. If her income increases by 15% and the expenditure increases by 21.6%, then what is the percent decrease in the saving (correct to one decimal place)?
A
16.8
B
15.1
C
13.7
D
17.2
Question 920
If A’s income is 60% more of B’s income and B’s income is 40% less than C’s income, then by what percent is C’s income more than A’s income? (Correct to one decimal place)
A
4.2
B
7.6
C
6.8
D
2.4
Question 921
A person sold two articles for Rs. 1836 each. On one he gained 20% and on other he lost 20%. What is his overall gain or loss percent, correct to one decimal place?
A
5% gain
B
6% gain
C
7% loss
D
4% loss
Question 922
A train while going slower by 15 km reaches late by 45 hours, if it travels faster by 60 km it reaches 72 hours earlier. The total distance (in km) travelled is:
A
8250
B
8775
C
7500
D
9750
Question 923
A
3√47
B
√47
C
6√47
D
5√47
Question 924
In a class of 60 students, the girls are 60%. The average weight of boys is 62 kg and that of girls is 58 kg. What is the average weight (in kg) of whole class?
A
61.5
B
60
C
59.6
D
61.4
Question 925
A loan has to be returned in two equal yearly instalments each of Rs. 42135. If the rate of interest is 6% p.a., compounded annually, then the total interest paid (in Rs.) is:
A
7700
B
7020
C
7550
D
8000
Question 926
A and B can do a work in 21 days , A is 7/4 times as efficient as B. In how many days, A alone can complete the 200/3 % of the work?
A
22
B
33
C
36
D
27
Question 927
A
0.656
B
0.388
C
0.721
D
0.129
Question 928
If √(12-2√35) + √(8+2√15), where a and b are positive integers, then the value of ab is closed to:  
A
21
B
35
C
8
D
12
Question 929
The third term of an arithmetic progression is 6. Then the sum of first five terms is:
A
25
B
30
C
15
D
35
Question 930
A can do a certain work in 12 days, B alone can do the same work in 16 days. A and B undertook to complete it in Rs. 8000. With the help of C, they completed the work in 6 days. How much money (in Rs.) be paid to C?
A
1000
B
3000
C
4000
D
2000
Question 931
If x<sup>4</sup>+x<sup>2</sup>y<sup>2</sup>+y<sup>4</sup> and x<sup>2</sup>-xy+y<sup>2</sup>= 5 , then what is the value of 5xy?
A
0
B
2
C
-2
D
-1
Question 932
A person marks his goods 40% above the cost price. He sold 30% of goods at marked price, 60% of the remaining at a discount of 20% and remaining at 40% discount. What is his overall gain percent?
A
15.8%
B
27.4%
C
23.5%
D
17.6%
Question 933
A covers a certain distance at a certain speed. If he covers half of the distance in three time then the ratio of this speed to the original speed is:
A
1:4
B
4:5
C
1:6
D
6:1
Question 934
If x<sup>4</sup>-79x<sup>2</sup>+1=0, then a value of x<sup>3</sup>+x<sup>-3</sup> can be :
A
702
B
720
C
789
D
798
Question 935
Sukanya is Ayushman’s wife. Lekha is Sukanya’s sister. Nisha is Lekha’s mother. Mukesh is Nisha’s husband. Piyush is Nisha’s Son. How is Ayushman related to Mukesh?
A
Brother in law
B
Son
C
Brother
D
Son in law
Question 936

Select the pair of words from the given options that shares a similar relationship as thegiven pair.

Shark : Fish
A
Bat: Bird
B
Dolphin: Fish
C
Whale : Mammal
D
Iguana: Amphibian
Question 937
In a certain language, if PERSIST is written as 7591912, then how is ANCESTOR is coded in the same language?
A
14351259
B
15351059
C
15351269
D
14351268
Question 938

A reputed educational institution is to select meritorious graduates, for the award of scholarships for higher studies abroad at a premium University, who fulfill the following criteria:

The candidate must -

(i) have Minimum 85% marks in the final year examination of the institute.

(ii) have secured at least 90 % marks in the selection test of the University abroad.

(iii) not be less than 21 years and not more than 25 years of age as on 1.01.2020 In case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria except:

(a) At (i) above but has won at least one major prize/award in Debate/ Sports/ Cultural event, the case may be referred to the Director of the Institution.

(b) At (ii) above but is from the reserved category, there is relaxation of age by 2 years. Based on the above criteria and conditions, analyze and decide which of the following course of action should be taken for the candidate whose description is provided below . Please note that you are not to assume anything other than the given information. Deepinder Bhalla, born on 17th December, 1997 secured 79% marks in final year. She got 92% marks in selection test and has won 3 Inter-University debate competitions.
A
The candidate is to be selected.
B
The case is to be referred to the Director of the Institute,
C
The candidate is not to be selected.
D
The candidate is to be selected under the relaxed criterion.
Question 939
Rearrange the given letters to form meaningful words and select the option which is different from the other three words.
A
PLEAP
B
SEHCWA
C
RPOATIC
D
EOGARN
Question 940
A cube with each edge of 4 cm is painted on all faces. How many of 1 cm cubes, cut out of the larger cube, will not have paint on any of its sides?
A
4
B
6
C
3
D
8
Question 941

Which of the answer figures is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held at the right side?

PR4GTF7Dq
A
B
C
D
Question 942

How many triangles are there in the given figure?


A
12
B
14
C
15
D
16
Question 943

A group of 74 students of Class XI went on picnic. The number of students who went on picnic by each section is as follows:

Section A = 15

Section B = 24

Section C = 15

Section D = 20

5 students from Section A spent as much as 4 students from Section B. 12 Section B students spent as much as 9 Section C students and 6 Section C students spent as much as 8 Section D student. If every student of a particular section spent the same amount and all the students spent Rs 23,370 altogether, find the amount spent by each student of Section D.
A
Rs 307.50
B
Rs 410
C
Rs 369
D
Rs 246.50
Question 944

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.


A
B
C
D
Question 945

Choose the Venn diagram from the given options which represents the correct relationship amongst the following classes:

Pen, Chair, Stationery
A
B
C
D
Question 946
Six participants, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in two rows, three in each facing each other. X is second to the right of Z. W the neighbour of Y, is sitting diagonally opposite X. V is neighbor of Z. Y is not the end of any row. If V and U interchange the positions, who would be the neighbours of U in the new position?
A
W and X
B
X and Y
C
Z and Y
D
Z and X
Question 947
A + B means ‘A is the father of B’; A − B means 'A is the wife of B', A × B means 'A is brother of B', A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’ . If R − V × T ÷ W, then how is R related to W?
A
Son in law
B
Mother
C
Daughter in law
D
Mother in law
Question 948

Ravi is shorter than Kartik but taller than Gagan and Tarun who are taller than Saksham.

Sunil is taller than Aarav but shorter than Saksham. Who is the tallest of all?
A
Aarav
B
Tarun
C
Kartik
D
Gagan
Question 949

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term.

Quarrel : War : Error : ?
A
Carelessness
B
Anger
C
Omission
D
Blunder
Question 950

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term.

REQUEST : QGNYZYM :: _______: OTBHDIM
A
RESTFIT
B
PRECICT
C
PREDICT
D
RESTICT
Question 951

Which word CANNOT be formed using letters of the given word using each letter only as many times as it appears in the given word?

DOCUMENTARY
A
AERODUCT
B
EDUCATOR
C
DEMOCRACY
D
MONETARY
Question 952

Select the figure which is difference from the other three alternatives.


A
D
B
B
C
C
D
A
Question 953

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series


A
B
C
D
Question 954

Three statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement. Statements:

A. All beetroots are carrots.

B. All carrots are radishes.

C. All radishes are white.

Conclusions:

I. All beetroots are white.

II. All white are carrots.

III. All radishes are beetroots.

Iv. All carrots are white
A
Only conclusions I and II follow
B
Only conclusions I and IV follow.
C
Only conclusions II and III follow.
D
All the conclusion follow.
Question 955

A statement is given followed by two courses of actions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested given courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

Statement: It is estimated that in this year’s International Trade fair 25 lakh people will visit Pragati Maidan, Delhi Courses of action:

I. The Delhi Police should be on high alert and discourage people from visiting the fair.

II. The management of fair should have enough ticket booths and shuttle services to avoid long queues.
A
Only II follows.
B
Both I or II follow.
C
Neither I nor II follows
D
Only I follows.
Question 956
In a certain code, ARDENT is coded as 13, CANOE is coded as 11, then what is the code of REPRESENT?
A
19
B
17
C
18
D
20
Question 957
Four groups of numbers are given out of which the numbers in three groups bear a certain common relationship. Choose the group in which the numbers are differently related.
A
28 - 195
B
18 - 81
C
22 - 121
D
38 - 361
Question 958

Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the given unsolved equation on that basis:-

94 x 18 = 44

89 x 23 = 78

75 x 36 = ?
A
21
B
43
C
56
D
53
Question 959

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

2, 7, 14, 23, ?, 47
A
37
B
32
C
30
D
34
Question 960
Identify the part of the sentence which contains an error. India and Sri Lanka/ have/ many large number of/ educated workers than Brazil.
A
many large number of
B
have
C
educated workers than Brazil
D
India and Sri Lanka
Question 961

Choose the correct words to fill in the blanks.

The prize money was shared _________ all the members ______ the football team.
A
by; among
B
between; in
C
among; of
D
by; from
Question 962

Choose the word that best replaces the words highlighted in the sentence.

Our teacher has the art of explaining something clearly.
A
exposition
B
argumentation
C
narration
D
description
Question 963

Choose the word that best replaces the words highlighted in the sentence.

Rahim has the power to see what would or might happen in the future.
A
astrology
B
imagination
C
prediction
D
foresight
Question 964

Choose the correct meaning of the expression highlighted in the sentence.

The amended law is a watered down version of the earlier law.
A
weaker or diluted
B
difficult to implement
C
stronger
D
submerged in water
Question 965

Complete the sentence with the appropriate word.

Tarun’s father bought him a motorbike but _________ him to ride it safely.
A
cautioned
B
taught
C
pleased
D
helped
Question 966
Choose the correct spelling from the options given.
A
acommodate
B
accomodete
C
accommodate
D
accomadate
Question 967

Choose the correct word(s) to fill in the blank.

Mohan Lal __________ asleep while watching TV last night.
A
has fallen
B
had fallen
C
fell
D
falls
Question 968

Choose the word that means the opposite of the highlighted word in the sentence.

It is difficult to find any indication of humility in that person.
A
pride
B
submission
C
concern
D
compassion
Question 969

Choose the word that roughly means the same as the word highlighted in the sentence.

The excavation yielded priceless treasures from the earliest civilization.
A
memorable
B
cheap
C
prized
D
valuable
Question 970

Choose the correct conjunction to complete the sentence.

I want to tell you what happened ________ you will understand it better.
A
so that
B
but
C
because
D
although
Question 971

Choose the word that roughly means the same as the word highlighted in the sentence.

Students who prepare for their board exams shouldn’t neglect the languages.
A
decline
B
abandon
C
ignore
D
fail
Question 972

Put the jumbled words in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

can / walk / every / take / day / a / if / try / you / should / to / you.
A
If you can, you should try to take a walk every day.
B
If you can try to, you should take a walk every day.
C
If you should, you can try every day to take a walk.
D
If you should take a walk every day, you can try to.
Question 973

Choose the word that means the opposite of the highlighted word in the sentence.

If you are selected, you must comply with the following conditions.
A
proceeding
B
receding
C
succeeding
D
preceding
Question 974

Choose the correct structure to complete the sentence.

_________ on his own, they would have been forced to dismiss him from service.
A
Had he not resigned
B
He had not resigned
C
Unless he had not resigned
D
He had resigned
Question 975
Choose the correct spelling from the options given.
A
enaugarate
B
innagarate
C
inagurate
D
inaugurate
Question 976

Identify the part of the sentence which contains an error.

The coin collector was willing to pay/ a huge sum for the rare coin/ because it was/ one kind.
A
because it was
B
a huge sum for the rare coin
C
coin collector was willing to pay
D
one kind
Question 977

Complete the sentence with the appropriate word.

It is claimed that _________ in the telecom industry will bring the charges down for people.
A
finance
B
decrease
C
increase
D
competition
Question 978
Choose the correct order of sentences to form a meaningful paragraph.
A
Movies depict cruelty and violence as heroic rather than vicious. Every day we read and hear about the crimes committed by younger people. The result is that juvenile crime has become a major problem in our country. In addition, many parents often avoid their responsibilities or are unable to exercise them.
B
The result is that juvenile crime has become a major problem in our country. In addition, many parents often avoid their responsibilities or are unable to exercise them. Movies depict cruelty and violence as heroic rather than vicious. Every day we read and hear about the crimes committed by younger people.
C
Every day we read and hear about the crimes committed by younger people. Movies depict cruelty and violence as heroic rather than vicious. In addition, many parents often avoid their responsibilities or are unable to exercise them. The result is that juvenile crime has become a major problem in our country.
D
In addition, many parents often avoid their responsibilities or are unable to exercise them. Movies depict cruelty and violence as heroic rather than vicious. Every day we read and hear about the crimes committed by younger people. The result is that juvenile crime has become a major problem in our country.
Question 979

Choose the correct meaning of the expression highlighted in the sentence.

An unknown politician tried to whip up the crowd through his speech.
A
beat up
B
stir emotionally
C
drive away
D
scolded
Question 980

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The Postmaster, a native of Calcutta, took up his duties in the remote village of Ulapur. He felt very lonely and homesick. At times he wrote verses. Ratan was his only companion. She was an orphan girl. She did odd jobs for him. He talked to Ratan about his mother, brother and sister. That gave him much comfort. Ratan got very much attached to him.

One day the Postmaster fell ill . Ratan nursed him like his mother. Afterwards the Postmaster applied for a transfer. It was rejected. So he resigned his job.Ratan expected him to take her with him. The postmaster simply laughed at her idea. The laughter haunted her throughout the night.

The Postmaster promised to ask his successor to take care of her.It offended her more. Ratan burst out weeping and said there was no need for that. Before his departure he gave her some money. She refused to accept it. While crossing the river in a boat he felt an impulse to go back and bring the girl. It was too late. Meetings and partings are numberless in human life. He consoled himself with this philosophy. Ratan had no such philosophy to console her. She was wandering about the post office with tears in her eyes, fondly hoping that her Postmaster would return.

Which of the following did NOT give comfort to the postmaster when he felt homesick?
A
He wrote verses at times.
B
He talked to Ratan about his family.
C
When Ratan asked him to take her with him, he laughed at the idea.
D
Ratan nursed him like his mother when he fell ill.
Question 981

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The Postmaster, a native of Calcutta, took up his duties in the remote village of Ulapur. He felt very lonely and homesick. At times he wrote verses. Ratan was his only companion. She was an orphan girl. She did odd jobs for him. He talked to Ratan about his mother, brother and sister. That gave him much comfort. Ratan got very much attached to him.

One day the Postmaster fell ill . Ratan nursed him like his mother. Afterwards the Postmaster applied for a transfer. It was rejected. So he resigned his job.Ratan expected him to take her with him. The postmaster simply laughed at her idea. The laughter haunted her throughout the night.

The Postmaster promised to ask his successor to take care of her.It offended her more. Ratan burst out weeping and said there was no need for that. Before his departure he gave her some money. She refused to accept it. While crossing the river in a boat he felt an impulse to go back and bring the girl. It was too late. Meetings and partings are numberless in human life. He consoled himself with this philosophy. Ratan had no such philosophy to console her. She was wandering about the post office with tears in her eyes, fondly hoping that her Postmaster would return.

" At times he wrote verses." The phrase "at time" means __________.
A
often
B
always
C
sometimes
D
rarely
Question 982

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The Postmaster, a native of Calcutta, took up his duties in the remote village of Ulapur. He felt very lonely and homesick. At times he wrote verses. Ratan was his only companion. She was an orphan girl. She did odd jobs for him. He talked to Ratan about his mother, brother and sister. That gave him much comfort. Ratan got very much attached to him.

One day the Postmaster fell ill . Ratan nursed him like his mother. Afterwards the Postmaster applied for a transfer. It was rejected. So he resigned his job.Ratan expected him to take her with him. The postmaster simply laughed at her idea. The laughter haunted her throughout the night.

The Postmaster promised to ask his successor to take care of her.It offended her more. Ratan burst out weeping and said there was no need for that. Before his departure he gave her some money. She refused to accept it. While crossing the river in a boat he felt an impulse to go back and bring the girl. It was too late. Meetings and partings are numberless in human life. He consoled himself with this philosophy. Ratan had no such philosophy to console her. She was wandering about the post office with tears in her eyes, fondly hoping that her Postmaster would return.

Choose the most appropriate option

What is the theme (or main idea) of the passage?
A
We meet so many people in our lives and we cannot remember all of them
B
We should appreciate those who help us in life
C
Human relationships have no monetary value
D
We should not care for the people who helps us
Question 983

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The Postmaster, a native of Calcutta, took up his duties in the remote village of Ulapur. He felt very lonely and homesick. At times he wrote verses. Ratan was his only companion. She was an orphan girl. She did odd jobs for him. He talked to Ratan about his mother, brother and sister. That gave him much comfort. Ratan got very much attached to him.

One day the Postmaster fell ill . Ratan nursed him like his mother. Afterwards the Postmaster applied for a transfer. It was rejected. So he resigned his job.Ratan expected him to take her with him. The postmaster simply laughed at her idea. The laughter haunted her throughout the night.

The Postmaster promised to ask his successor to take care of her.It offended her more. Ratan burst out weeping and said there was no need for that. Before his departure he gave her some money. She refused to accept it. While crossing the river in a boat he felt an impulse to go back and bring the girl. It was too late. Meetings and partings are numberless in human life. He consoled himself with this philosophy. Ratan had no such philosophy to console her. She was wandering about the post office with tears in her eyes, fondly hoping that her Postmaster would return.

Choose the best option that expresses the tone of the passage
A
sentimental
B
serious
C
dismissive
D
casual
Question 984

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The Postmaster, a native of Calcutta, took up his duties in the remote village of Ulapur. He felt very lonely and homesick. At times he wrote verses. Ratan was his only companion. She was an orphan girl. She did odd jobs for him. He talked to Ratan about his mother, brother and sister. That gave him much comfort. Ratan got very much attached to him.

One day the Postmaster fell ill . Ratan nursed him like his mother. Afterwards the Postmaster applied for a transfer. It was rejected. So he resigned his job.Ratan expected him to take her with him. The postmaster simply laughed at her idea. The laughter haunted her throughout the night.

The Postmaster promised to ask his successor to take care of her.It offended her more. Ratan burst out weeping and said there was no need for that. Before his departure he gave her some money. She refused to accept it. While crossing the river in a boat he felt an impulse to go back and bring the girl. It was too late. Meetings and partings are numberless in human life. He consoled himself with this philosophy. Ratan had no such philosophy to console her. She was wandering about the post office with tears in her eyes, fondly hoping that her Postmaster would return.

What do you infer about Ratan from the words "She____ fondly hoping that the Postmaste would return"

Choose the best option, according to the passage
A
The Postmaster did not like Ratan , so he left her.
B
Ratan was very much attached to the postmaster
C
The Postmaster did not at all want to take Ratan with him
D
The postmaster treated Ratan Only as a servant
Question 985
Which of the following file type arguments is used in fopen() llibrary function to open a new file for both reading and writing and destroys the file if a file with the specified file-name already exists in the current directory ?
A
“w”
B
“w+”
C
“a+”
D
“r+”
Question 985 Explanation: 
W+ : Create a text file for both reading and writing. If the given file exists, its contents are cleared unless it is a logical file.
A+ : Open a text file in append mode for reading or updating at the end of the file. The fopen() function creates the file if it does not exist.
W : Create a text file for writing. If the given file exists, its contents are destroyed unless it is a logical file.
A : Open a text file in append mode for writing at the end of the file. The fopen() function creates the file if it does not exist and is not a logical file.
R+ : Open a text file for both reading and writing. The file must exist.
Question 986
if L ={a,b,c} is a language over the set A={a,b,c). Then L3 is:
A
{ababc,abcab, abc2, cabab, cabc, c2ab, c3}
B
{ababab,ababc, abcab, abc2, cabab, c2ab, c3}
C
{ababab,ababc, abcab, abc2abab, cabab, cabc, c2ab, c3}
D
{ababab,ababc, abcab, abc2, cabab, cabc, c2ab, c3}
Question 987
Which of the following relationships holds for non-random-access memory, where Tn = average time to read or write n bits, Ta= average access time, n=number of bits and r=transfer rate in bits per second?
A
Ta=Tn+ n/r
B
Tn=Ta+ n/r
C
Ta=Tn+ r/n
D
Tn=Ta+ r/n
Question 987 Explanation: 
Question 988

State TRUE or FALSE for the following.

(i) A sine wave with a phase of 180 starts at time 0 with a zero amplitude. The amplitude is decreasing

(ii) If a signal changes instantaneously, its frequency is zero.

(iii) In bipolar encoding, we use three voltage levels: positive, negative and zero.

(iv) Infrared signals can be used for short can be used for short-range communication in a closed area using ground propagation.
A
(i) TRUE, (ii) FALSE, (iii) TRUE, (iv) FALSE
B
(i) TRUE, (ii) TRUE, (iii) TRUE, (iv) FALSE
C
(i) FALSE, (ii) TRUE, (iii) FALSE, (iv) FALSE
D
(i) TRUE, (ii) TRUE, (iii) FALSE, (iv) FALSE
Question 989
who among the following is not a computer scientist?
A
Vincent van Gogh
B
Vinton Cerf
C
Tim Berners - lee
D
Dennis Ritchie
Question 990
which of these may be a title given to the compute,: scientist, James Gosling?
A
Dr. Python
B
Dr. Java
C
Dr. Lisp
D
Dr. Smalltalk
Question 991
Which of the following has a storage capacity of about 700 MB?
A
DVI)
B
Pen drive
C
D
CD-ROM
Question 992
The set A = {1,2,3,4} and R is the relation defined by ( x, y) ∈ R if 3x=2y < 11. Which of the following statement is true for R?
A
R is reflexive
B
R is symmetric
C
R is transitive
D
None of the above
Question 993
what is the number of edges present in a complete graph having n vertices?
A
n(n+1)/2
B
n(n-1)/2
C
n
D
information given is insufficient
Question 994
Which of the following Which of the following propositional formula is a tautology?
A
B
¬(p→(pΛq)
C
D
Question 995
Questions 7-10 are based on the text below which is taken Som the now famous review article on Deep Learning by Yann LeCun, Yoshua Bengio and Geoffrey Hinton in Nature (28 May 2015). Read it carefully and answer them. Conventional Machine-learning techniques \r€le limited in their ability to places natural data In their raw form- For decades, constricting a pattern-recognition or. machine -learning system required careful engineering aDd considerable domain e\pertise to design fl feature extractor that transformed the law data (such as the pl\el values of an image) into a suitable internal representation or failure vectol.holn which the learning subsystem. often a classifiel. could detect or classit' patterns in the input. ,
Representation learning is a s€t, of methods that allor^,s a nacline to be fed v,ith raw data and to automatically discovers the representations needed for detection or classification. Deepleaning method's are representation learning methods with multiple levels ol representation. obtained b"v composing simple but non-linear modules that each transform the representation at one level (starting with the raw input) jDto a repres€station at a, higler, slightly more abstract level. with the composition of enough such transformations very complex functions can be learned for classification tasks, higher layers of representation amplify aspect of the input that are important for discrimination and suppress irrelevant variations. AN image, for e(ample, coDes in the form of an array of pixel values, and the learned features in the first layer of representation typically represent the presence or absence of edges at particular orientations and locations in the image. The second layer typically detects jtrotifs by spotting p{particular arrangements of edges, regardless of small variations in the edge positions. The third lal.er may assemble motifs ion larger combinations that correspond to pans of familiar objects, and subsequent layers would detect objects as combination of these typically represent the presence or absence of edges a! partic lar orientations and locations in the inage. Thc secodd layer typically detects jtrotifs by spotting p{reticular arrangements of edgei, regardless of small variation in the edge positions. The third lal.er may assemble notiG irlo larger combinations' that corr€€pond to pans of familiar objects, and subsequent l&Je6 \r,ould detect objects as conrbjDatiorF of these pafls. The ke). aspect of deep learning€i is that these lal€rs of features are Dot designed by Harman engineers: they are learned froD data usinA a general-pltfpc^se learNing procedure,arts. The ke). aspect of deep learnings€i is that these lal€rs of features are Dot designed by Harman engineers: they are learned froD data usinA a general-pltfpc^se learNing procedure, The component's needed to construct a machine learning are:
A
careful engineering and domain expertise
B
feature extractor and internal representation
C
domain expertise and learning subsystem
D
feature extractors and classifier
Question 996
What is the function of higher layers of representation in classification tasks?
A
detect motifs and spot arrangements of edges
B
suppress irrelevant information and retain essential aspects
C
learn complex functions
D
detect familiar parts of objects
Question 997
What is the key aspect of deep learning?
A
multiple levels of representations
B
object detection and classification
C
learning layers of features from data
D
human engineered layers of features
Question 998
This is stated as one of the disadvantages of conventional machine learning
A
limited ability to process data in natural form
B
need far too many features
C
inability! to learn complex functions
D
not requiring human engineers
Question 999
The Android operating system on Mobile phones is based on
A
microsoft Windows operating system
B
OS/360 operating system
C
Linux operating system
D
Ultrix operating system
Question 1000
Pick the odd one out.
A
Cortana
B
Alexa
C
Pamela
D
Siri
Question 1001
What is the value of c, if 8 is 4% of a and 4 is 8% of b and c equals b/a.
A
1/4
B
1/2
C
2
D
4
Question 1002
Police P runs at an average speed of 6Kmph on a highway road to catch thief T who is ahead of her by 8 meters. She is able to catch the thief after running for 100 meters despite a starting delay of 8 sec. What is the average speed of the thief T?
A
4.86 Kmph
B
3.86 Kmph
C
456 Kmph
D
3.56 Kmph
Question 1003
suppose a number less than 1000 is picked randomly. What is the probability that it is a prime number?
A
168/999
B
168/1000
C
1/168
D
158/999
Question 1004
Questions 16-18 are based on the Flow-Chart given below. Trace it carefully and answer them,

What is the output array for N-8 and the input array A = [2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 8, 7]?
A
[1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8]
B
[2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8]
C
[3, 4, 1, 2, 6, 5, 8, 7]
D
[4, 3, 2, 1, 8, 7, 6, 5]
Question 1005
What is the output array for N-8 and the input array A= [10, 32, 55, 77, 24, 46, 69, 81]?
A
[10, 24, 32, 46, 55, 69, 77, 81]
B
[10, 32, 55, 77, 24, 46, 69, 81]
C
[10, 24, 32, 55, 77, 46, 69, 81]
D
[10, 24, 32, 46, 55, 77, 69. 81]
Question 1006
What is the output array given N=8 and input array A = [80, 66, 59, 65, 39, 32, 19, 20]?
A
(19, 20, 32, 39, 59, 65, 66, 80)
B
[80, 66, 65, 59, 39, 32, 20, 19]
C
(66, 80, 50, 65. 32, 39, 19, 20]
D
(159, 65, 66, 80, 19, 20, 32, 30)
Question 1007
If the roots of the equation x2
A
8
B
4
C
2
D
23
Question 1008
An institute offered 60% concession of fee to Ms.X based on his performance in the entrance exam. Ms.X is offered an additional 40% discount on the remaining fee based on her previous academic record. Actual fee is 1.50 lakhs. How much amount does Ms.X have to pay to the institute?
A
0
B
36000
C
1,14,000
D
24000
Question 1009
Answer the Questions 21-23 based on the data of Cases and Deaths due to a disease spread in four states as given below.

Which state has higher number of deaths per crore population in April?
A
State 1
B
State 2
C
State 3
D
State 4
Question 1010
Which state has less number of total deaths in proportion to total cases?
A
State 1
B
State 2
C
State 3
D
State 4
Question 1011
Which state has less number of total deaths in proportion to Population?
A
State 1
B
State 2
C
State 3
D
State 4
Question 1012
A
B
C
D
(n -3)
Question 1013
What is size of the smallest subset that must be selected from the set {1,2,3,4,5,6) to guarantee that at least one pair of numbers from this subset adds up to 7?
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
3
Question 1014
In a group of students, there are 15 boys and 10 girls. If three students are selected at random, what is the probability that 1 girl and 2 boys are selected?
A
21/46
B
21/36
C
21/26
D
21/56
Question 1015
A die is tossed 7 times. What is the probability that all six faces appear at least once?
A
6!/67
B
1/6
C
6!/66
D
6/66
Question 1016
A man draws two cards together from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of both the cards being Queens?
A
1/111
B
1/121
C
1/221
D
1/321
Question 1017
Given a set having 100 elements, what is the number of subsets having more than two elements?
A
2100-4950
B
2100-5051
C
2100-101
D
2100-1
Question 1018
which is the best possible probability distribution that is used to study queueing systems.
A
Bernoulli distribution
B
Normal distribution
C
-distribution
D
Poisson distribution
Question 1019
There are 100 gold coins, all are of equal weight except one defective coin having less weight. Suppose you are given a weighing balance without weights. As you count the number of weighing, when is the first possible weighing in which the defective coin may be found.
A
7
B
6
C
4
D
3
Question 1020
A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box, if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw?
A
32
B
48
C
64
D
84
Question 1021
What is the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 6.30?
A
10°
B
0°
C
20°
D
15°
Question 1022
A train running at 2/3 of its usual speed is 20 minutes late in reaching its destination. Find the original time it takes to cover the journey.
A
20 min
B
50 min
C
60 min
D
40 min
Question 1023
Out of 12 employees in a company one employee retires and in place of him a new employee of age 30 years joins. As a result, average age of the employees reduces by 3 years. Age of the retired employee is
A
55
B
65
C
66
D
75
Question 1024
The intersection of a context free language and a regular language is
A
always regular
B
always context free
C
may or may not be context free
D
none of the above
Question 1025
What can be said regarding the following two statements about CYK algorithm?
I It expects the input grammar to be in Chomsky normal form
II It is based on dynamic programming
A
I is true, but II is false
B
I is false, but II is true
C
Both I and II are true
D
Both I and II are false
Question 1026
The minimum number of states in a deterministic finite automaton (DFA) that will accept the language over the alphabet = {a, b} consisting of all the strings with odd number of a and odd number of b is
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
8
Question 1027
Which of the following grammars generates the language. EQUAL consisting of all words having equal number of a's and b's (A is null string)?
A
S→aSb| bSa | λ
B
S→abS|baS| λ
C
S→aSbS|bSaS| λ
D
none of the above
Question 1028
What is the output t of the following program, assuming int occupies 1 byte?
A
3
B
6
C
Garbage value
D
error
Question 1029
Which of the following is the correct prototype of a function that takes a character array as an argument and modification inside the function is forbidden?
A
Func(char *s)
B
Func(const char *s)
C
Func(char const*s)
D
None
Question 1030
If the binary max heap H = {40, 10, 20, 9, 6, 19, 15}, then what is the heap after the two operations DELETE-MAX() followed by HEAP-INSERT(25)?
A
{25, 20, 19, 15, 10, 9,6}
B
{25,10,9,6, 15, 19}
C
{25, 10, 20, 9, 6, 19, 15}
D
{25,10,19.9,6,15}
Question 1031
In a complete binary tree with 100 nodes what is the total number of nodes at height 1?
A
25
B
32
C
36
D
24
Question 1032
What is the complexity of efficient way of finding the missing number in a given integer array of 1 to 100?
A
O(nlogn)
B
O(n)
C
O(12)
D
O(logn)
Question 1033
A tree has a vertex of degree 1, 2 vertices of degree 2, 4 vertices of degree 3 and 3 vertices of degree 4. What is the value of z?
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
No tree is possible
Question 1034
Answer the Questions 46 47 based on the following code segment. Consider that the parameter var is initialized to 0 that indexes an array arr.

For the input array [4,8,2,6] how many iterations are required to get 2 to the beginning of the list.
A
3
B
5
C
2
D
4
Question 1035
What are the best case and worst-case complexities of the given algorithm?
A
O(n), O(n²)
B
O(logn), O(n)
C
O(n), O(nlogn)
D
O(n²), O(12)
Question 1036
Which of the following problems has a known algorithm of polynomial time complexity?
A
Graph-colorings Problem
B
Travelling Salesperson Problem
C
Hamiltonian Circuit Problem
D
Linear Programming Problem
Question 1037
If N is an n-bit number, how many bits long is N1, approximately?
A
nlogn
B
n!
C
-2,2
D
n2
Question 1038
An undirected graph with n nodes is represented by its adjacency matrix A. It is found that 4" has only '0's along its diagonal. Which of the following is then true about the graph represented by A?
A
The graph is planar
B
The graph is acyclic
C
The shortest path between any two nodes is longer than n hops
D
None of the above
Question 1039
What is the output of the following program?
A
No output
B
%S
C
K
D
Erorr
Question 1040
C programming language includes two types of modifiers that affect the way variables are accessed by both user's Programme and the compiler. These modifiers are
A
EXTERN, STATIC
B
AUTO, REGISTER
C
AUTO, EXTERN
D
CONST, VOLATILE
Question 1041
What is the order of complexity of the following program?
A
O(log n)
B
O(n log n)
C
o(n)
D
o(2n)
Question 1042
Which function has a return type as char pointer?
A
get line
B
fputs
C
fgets
D
All of the mentioned
Question 1043
Which of the following are hardware solutions for critical section problem for process synchro nization?
i Test and set
ii Peterson's algorithm
iii Compare and swap
iv Bakery algorithm.
A
(1), and (il)
B
(1) only
C
(iii) only
D
(ii) and (iv)
Question 1044
Determine the Average Turn-Around-Time, Wait-Time and Response-Time of the following process using round-robin scheduler with a time slice of 1 unit:
A
4, 33, 3, 2
B
4,33,2,1
C
4,5,6
D
4,2,1,33
Question 1045
If there are 64 segments each of size 1 kbyte, then the logical address should have
A
13 bits
B
14 bits
C
15 bits
D
16 bits
Question 1046
Consider six memory partitions of size 200 KB, 400 KB, 600 KB, 500 KB, 300 KB, and 250 KB, where KB refers to kilobyte. These partitions need to be allotted to four processes of sizes 357 KB, 210 KB, 468 KB and 491 KB in that order. If the best fit algorithm is used, which partitions are NOT allotted to any process?
A
200 KB and 300 KB
B
200 KB and 250 KB
C
250 KB and 300 KB
D
300 KB and 400 KB
Question 1047
Consider a computer with 8 Mbytes of main memory and 256 K cache. The cache block size is 4K. It uses a direct mapping scheme for cache management. How many different main memory blocks can map onto a given physical cache block?
A
2048
B
256
C
64
D
32
Question 1048
Memory protection is normally done by
A
the processor and the associated hardware
B
the operating system
C
the compiler
D
the user program
Question 1049
The correct matching for the following pairs is:
A
A-3,B-4,C-2 and D-1
B
A-3,B-1,C-4 and D-2
C
A-4,B-3,C-2 and D-1
D
A-2,B-4,C-1 and D-3
Question 1050
An image is 1024 x 768 pixels with 3 bytes/pixel. Assume the image is uncompressed. How long does it take to transmit it over a 56kbps modem channel?
A
200 sec
B
337.042 sec
C
300 sec
D
33.7042 sec
Question 1051
A particular system uses a page size of 1K bytes. A page table for a particular process (having 8 pages) contains [4, 6, *, 2,, 7,, 3] (Note: The page table contains only list frame numbers corresponding to page number, a indicates that corresponding page is yet to be loaded into * memory. Everything uses 0-based indexing).
1) What physical address corresponds to the virtual address of 150?
ii) Find range of virtual addresses that will generate a page fault.
A
1074, (2048-3071, 4096-5119, 6144-7167)
B
150, (2048-3071)
C
4246, (2048-3071, 4096-5119, 6144-7167)
D
It cannot be determined
Question 1052
A
a-3, b-4, c-2 and d-1
B
a-4, b-3, c-2 and d-1
C
a-2, b-4, c-1 and d-3
D
a-3, b-4, c-3 and d-2
Question 1053
One of the purposes of applying data integrity constraints in databases is
A
Controlling that user to access data
B
Improving the quality of data entered for specific property
C
Data cannot be updated
D
Avoiding to enter duplicate records
Question 1054
Which of the following (min(M), max(N)) conditions means a partial participation of the relation in a relationship?
A
0:N
B
0:M
C
1:N
D
Both A and B above
Question 1055
There is a relation R with the functional dependencies of the form X→Y. For each of these functional dependencies, the left side component (attribute X) is a key. What is the highest normal form(NF) satisfied by the relation R?
A
BONF
B
INF
C
2NF
D
3NF
Question 1056
Which lock is acquired by a transaction so that both read and write operations are performed on the same data item?
A
Shared mode
B
Exclusive mode
C
Write mode
D
Shared and exclusive mode
Question 1057
What is speculative execution in MapReduce/Hadoop?
A
Speculatively allocate more nodes to handle future MapReduce tasks
B
Certain number of duplicate tasks are launched on same slave node to handle the fault tolerance issue
C
Speculatively terminate some nodes in MapReduce cluster for conservation of energy
D
Certain number of duplicate tasks are launched on different slave nodes to handle the fault-tolerance issue
Question 1058
In the following directed network, each edge represents the capacity of the link as amount of Giga bits per second that can pass through it at any given time. Assuming the flow property of conservation, what is the maximum possible flow in this network that can reach from the source to the destination?
A
15
B
9
C
13
D
7
Question 1059
Train A, running on a track with speed a meters per second is x meters long. Train 13 running on a parallel track is y meters in length, and running at b meters per second. The time t taken for train A to cross a man sitting in train 13:
A
Is indeterminate due to missing information
B
C
D
Question 1060
Which of the following is not the name of a DNN (deep lleural network):
A
VGG16
B
Neocognitron
C
Alexnet
D
Manet
Question 1061
A nOn-linear function is required to "saturate" the sum of weighted inputs (here we use variable x) when being used in a unit activation function for DNN. Which of the following activation functions does not saturate for all x.
A
y(x) = tanh x
B
C
D
Question 1062
How many times does the function f(:r) = 2x(x-5) - 5 cut the X-axis?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
5
Question 1063
Answer the questions Q. 5 to Q. 8 by reading the passage given below.
The problem of sorting a mass of items, occupying consecutive locations in the store of a computer, may be reduced to that of sorting two lesser segments of data, provided that it is known that the keys of each of the items held in locations lower than a certain dividing line are less than the keys of all the items held ill locations above the dividing line. In this case the two segments may be sorted separately, and as a result the whole mass of data will be sorted.
In practice, the existence of such a dividing line will be rare, but even if it did exist, and its position would be unknown. It is, however, quite easy to rearrange the items in such a way that a dividing line is brought into existence, and its position is known. The method of doing this h&<; been given the name partition.
The first step of the partition process is to choose a particular key value which is known to be within the range of keys of the items in the segment which is to be sorted. A simple method of ensuring this is to choose the actual key value of one of the items in the segment. The chosen key value will be called the bound. The aim is now to produce a situation in which the keys of all the items above the dividing line are equal to or greater than the bound. Fortunately, we do not need to know the position of the dividing line in advance; its position is determined only at the end of the partition process.
What sorting algorithm is described in the passage above?
A
insertion sort
B
Quicksort
C
Merge sort
D
Heap sort
Question 1064
What does the method named as partition do?
A
Rearranges the items such that they are sorted
B
Rearranges the items such that a dividing line comes into existence
C
Moves all smaller elements to one end of the list
D
Moves the dividing line to the end of the list
Question 1065
When is the position of the dividing line determined?
A
At the beginning of the sorting process
B
In the middle of the sorting process
C
At the end of the partition process
D
It is fixed and is programmed as a parameter
Question 1066
By what name is the bound more popularly known today?
A
Pivot
B
Partition
C
Min-heap
D
Big-Oh
Question 1067
The classic book on C language titled, "The C Programming Language", is written by
A
Kernighan and Ritchie
B
Bill Gates
C
Yashwant Kanit kart
D
Balaguruswamy
Question 1068
Which of the following companies in recent times are referred to as the Big Four' in the IT industry?
A
Amazon, Apple, Microsoft, IBM
B
Apple, Microsoft, Google, Facebook
C
Amazon, Google~ IBM, Facebook
D
Microsoft, Google, Facebook, IBM.
Question 1069
Which of the following is not a browser software produced by Microsoft~
A
Internet Explorer
B
Edge
C
Opera
D
All of the above
Question 1070
"If we move these items from Set P and place them into Set Q, the average value of both the sets P and Q will increa'3e." Which of the following statements is false with regards to the items moved from Set P to Set Q?
A
The average value of the items is higher than the average value of Set P
B
The average value of the items is lower than the average value of Set P
C
The average value of the items is higher than the average value of Set Q
D
None of the above
Question 1071
The monthly expenditure of a household, when analysed, was found to fit a quadratic function e(x) = ax2 +bx + c. Assuming that the monthly expenditure can never be negative (in the past or in the future), what can we say about the roots of e(x)?
A
Both are real
B
Both are complex numbers
C
One is real and one is complex
D
One is real and negativp, the other is real and positive
Question 1072
"In this statement there are exactly__________ three-letter words not more no less." Fill the correct option from below to make the complete sentence true.
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
Cannot be correctly filled
Question 1073
Which of these computer scientists is credited with the idea of the world wide web of documents using hypertext.
A
Tim Berners-Lee
B
Vincent Van Gogh
C
Vinton Cerf
D
Dennis Ritchie
Question 1074
Dennis Ritchie and his colleague were known for the C language and also Unix operating system. The name of his famous colleague is:
A
James Gosling
B
Steve Jobs
C
William Gates
D
Kenneth (Ken) Lane Thompson
Question 1075
Consider the various display standards like SVGA, VGA, WXGA, XGA and Full HD. Which of these is closest to one megapixels ( approximately 1 X 106 pixels)?
A
VGA
B
1080p
C
WXGA
D
1440p
Question 1076
The name best used to describe a graph G=(V,E) which is drawn on a paper without folding it such that no two edges of G intersect at a point other than a vertex:
A
Bar Graph
B
Planar Graph
C
All bipartite graphs
D
Colored graph
Question 1077
A computer scientist wished to share a secret code password on an open sheet of paper by leaving the paper at a public location for his friend. So he wrote this on the paper: "watchout for the odd one. RACECAR, MURDRUM, SAGAS, ATTACK and REPAPER". Then he left the paper at the agreed upon location. The other day his friend looked at the sheet and smiled as he had got the code. Which of the following should be the codeword?
A
ATTACK
B
RACECAR
C
MURDRUM
D
REPAPER
Question 1078
A customer is waiting to be served at a restaurant. The waiting times at this restaurant have an exponential distribution with a mean waiting time of 5 minutes. The probability that a customer will spend more than 10 minutes at restaurant is :
A
0
B
1
C
e-2
D
e-10
Question 1079
A function "f" is defined as f: {a, b}4 -+ {a, b}. If T represents the number of functions from f to the set {a, b}, then the value of log2(log 2 T) is _____________
A
2
B
4
C
8
D
16
Question 1080
Name the odd one out from the following:
A
Microprocessor
B
Memory
C
Hard disk
D
Laptop
Question 1081
The set N represents all-natural numbers and R be the relation on N x N defined by (p, q)RCr, 8) iff p8(q + r) = qT'(p + 8). The relation R is _____
A
Reflexive and Not Transitive
B
Reflexive, Transitive but not Symmetric
C
Partial Order
D
Equivalence
Question 1082
Which of the following are examples of ordinal variables?
A
Rankings, course grades, height
B
ID numbers, eye color, zip codes
C
Calendar dates, temperatures in Celsius, phone numbers
D
Temperature in Kelvin, time, counts
Question 1083
Which of the following are examples of data quality problems?
A
Noise and outliers
B
Duplicate data
C
Missing values
D
All of the Above
Question 1084
In data standardization assuming a Gaussian dist.ribut.ion, the feature values will be rescaled with parameters
A
Mean 0 and Variance 0
B
Mean 0 and Variance 1
C
Mean 1 and Variance 0
D
Mean 1 and Variance 1
Question 1085
Which of the following is a standard approach to handle missing values lU the dataset?
A
Delete the observation that contains the missing data
B
Imputation with mean/median/mode value
C
Taking missing values into a new row or column
D
All of the above
Question 1086
Generally, an outlier in a population is far away from the mean of the population. Identify the outlier for the given data? 28,34,27,7,30,26,23,31,34
A
23
B
34
C
7
D
27
Question 1087
In left-skewed data, which of the following is correct
A
mean < median < mode
B
mode < median < mean
C
mean < mode < median
D
mode < mean < median
Question 1088
Answer the questions Q. 30 to Q. 32 by reading the information in points given below.
• Seven friends 13, R, A, V, C, Sand W have gathered at the University of Hyderabad main gate.
• Five of them are scheduled to go to five· different places in Hyderabad i.e., Gachibowli, l'vlehdipatnarn, Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Osrnallia University.
• Five of them are academicians, each specializing ill Network Science, Pervasive Computing, Pattern Recognition, Image Processing, Rough Sets.
• C, an academician, is going to Mehdipatnam and is neither from Network Science nor from Rough Sets.
• R is an academician and specialized in Pervasive Computing but has come to the main gate to sec off her friend.
• W is specialized in Data Science and is going's to Gachibowli. S is au acadernician but is not going to auy of the five places.
• 13 is all academician, not from Rough Sets and is flying to one of the destinations but not to Jubilee Hills or Osmania University
• A is an academician specialized in Pattern Recognition and is not going to Osmania University
The one who is going to Mehdipatnam is
A
Not an academician
B
From Image Processing
C
V
D
From Network Science
Question 1089
Who among the following specializes in Rough sets?
A
V
B
B
C
S
D
Data inadequate
Question 1090
To which of the following place is R flying?
A
Jubilee Hills
B
Osmania University
C
Gachibowli
D
Mehdipatnam
Question 1091
A partially ordered relation R on a set A is
(a) Reflexive
(b) Symmetric
(c) Transitive
(d) Anti-symmetric
A
a, band c
B
a and d
C
a, c and d
D
c and d
Question 1092
Number of values of x that satisfy the equation (x2 + 6x + 12)(x2-7x+l2) = 1 are
A
1
B
2
C
4
D
infinite
Question 1093
The number of subsets of {I, 2, 3 ...... . t} of odd cardinality is ______
A
dependent on the value of t
B
2< sup>t - 1 , if t is odd
C
2< sup>t - 1 , if t is even
D
2< sup>t - 1 , for any value of t.
Question 1094
Express the solution of the. following recurrence relation in 8 notation.
T(n) = 3T(n/2) + n, n > 1 and 'n is power of 2, T(l) = 1
A
B
C
D
Question 1095
Solve the recurrence relation completely using the initial conditions.
A
3n + 2n
B
4n + n
C
2n + 3n2
D
3n- 2n
Question 1096
Find the language of the grammar on I: = {a.b} given below.
A
(ab + ba) *
B
(ab)* + (ba)*
C
b* + a*
D
(eta + ab + ba + bb)*
Question 1097
What is the length of the smallest string that does NOT get accepted by the Regular Expression (a + (ba) *) b* .
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 1098
Which of the following Regular Expresssions represent the language in {O, I}' of all strings containing atleast two O's.
A
1*01*01*
B
1*(01*0)+1*
C
1*(00)+1*
D
(0 + 1)*0(0 + 1)*0(0 + 1)*
Question 1099
Which one of the following languages on L: = {a, b} CANNOT be recognized by a Push Down Automaton?
A
B
C
D
Question 1100
Suppose computers A and 13 have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91 respectively and they both use the same net mask N. Which of the values of N given below should not be used if A and 13 should belong to the same network?
A
255.255.255.0
B
255.255.255.128
C
255.255.255.192
D
None of the above
Question 1101
The number of tuples in a relation is called as:
A
Cardinality of that relation
B
Degree of that relation
C
Domain of an attribute in that relation
D
None of the above
Question 1102
Suppose you are creating two tables Tl and T2. Tl has a foreign key referencing to one of the attributes of T2. Which table you should create first?
A
Tl
B
T2
C
Anyone of Tl, T2
D
No such requirement
Question 1103
In a database, there are 10 relations. 5 reiations are in 4NF, 2 relations are in 3NF and 3 relations are ill I3CNF. What is the highest normal form satisfied by the database?
A
2NF
B
3NF
C
BCNF
D
4NF
Question 1104
Which of the following properties are desirable during the process of decomposition of a database?
A
Which of the following properties are desirable during the process of decomposition of a database?
B
Dependency preserving property
C
Both A and B above
D
None of the above
Question 1105
Select the right getchar statement that reads the char a from the standard input device of the computer.
A
getchar(&a);
B
getcharCa)
C
a=getchar()
D
a=getchar(stdin)
Question 1106
What is the Hamming distance between 110111101101 and 1001010001107
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 1107
Find the protocol which I!laps a network interface IP address to its hardware ad·· dress:
A
RARP
B
ICMP
C
ARP
D
GMP
Question 1108
Consider the following code snippets while assuming all the variables 'are shared between processes Pi and P2, state which of the following statement(s) is/ are true

(a) Process synchronization is required to avoid inconsistency as the variable B is shared by both process PI and P2.
(b) No process synchronization is required. The processes will be executed concurrently and properly.
(c) Process synchronization is not required as it will degrade the performance
(d) Process synchronization will not be able to avoid inconsistency as I3 will give different values depending on the order of execution of the processes
A
(b) and (c)
B
(a) and (d)
C
(a) only
D
(c) only
Question 1109
In a Linux environment, how many times 'hello' will be printed when the code below is executed?
A
4 times
B
8 times
C
16 times
D
Infinite times
Question 1110
Which of the following statements are true?
(a) Cloud computing is a service based virtualisation.
(b) Virtualisation can exist without cloud computing
(c) A hypervisor is a type of virtualisation
A
a, b and c
B
only a and b
C
only a and c
D
only b and c
Question 1111
Consider the following recurrence relation: Xn+l = Xn + X n-l This recurrence computes which of the following?
A
n!
B
Taylor series
C
Geometric series
D
Fibonacci series
Question 1112
If we say that the round robin algorithm quantum of time is lOms and the context switch time is lOOms, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A
The CPU is idle most of the time
B
Response time of the process is improved
C
CPU is held by the OS most of the time
D
None of the above
Question 1113
Which of the following scheduling algorithms does NOT lead to starvation?
1. Priority II. SJF III. Round Robin
A
I only
B
III only
C
II and III
D
All three
Question 1114
A process exited. Which of the following statements best defines the zumbie state for this process
A
A process whose par~llt has not yet waited for its termination status
B
A process whose parent has died
C
A process that lives forever
D
None of the above
Question 1115
The number of distinct Boolean expressions for 4 variables is
A
16
B
256
C
1024
D
65536
Question 1116
The size of main memory is 32K x 16 bits. The number of address lines is
A
16
B
15
C
14
D
13
Question 1117
Answer the questions 59 -61 based on the following C function. The funcB () takes and array a and three indices 1, m and r. If the sub lists a [1 .. m] and a [m+1. .r] are sorted (non-decreasing order), the function call funcB(a, 1, m, r) makes the sub list a [1. . r] in sorted order ill time linear in the lengt.h of sublist.

If the array is a = 20. 44. 18, 32, 16, 4, 9, -12, 7, 102 what is the array after 2 iterations of outer loop indexed by i?
A
18, 20, 32, 44, -12, 4, 9, 16, 7, 102
B
18, 20, 32, 44, -12, 1, 7, 9, 16, 102
C
-12, 4, 7, 9, 16, 18, 20, 32, 44, 102
D
20, 44, 18, 32, 4, 16, -12, 9, 7, 102
Question 1118
If the array a = 16, 12, 8, 32, 102, -20, -40, 64, 72, 102, 112, 115. What is the array after 3 iterations of the outer for loop indexed by i ?
A
-40, -20, 8, 12, 16. 32, 6'1, 72. 102. 102, 112, 115
B
-40, -20, 8, 1~, 16, 32, 64, 102, 72, 102, 112, 115
C
12, 16, 8, 32, -20, 102, -40, 64, 72, 102, 112, 115
D
None of the above
Question 1119
What is the time complexity of the function funcA()?
A
O(n)
B
O(n logn)
C
O(n2)
D
O(n2Iogn)
Question 1120
How do you declare a pointer to an array of 10 constant integers?
A
const int (*p) [10]
B
int const (*p) [10]
C
const int *p [10]
D
int const *p [10]
Question 1121
An user defined data type is created using C structure in the following way. What is (are) the valid names of new data type?

typedef struct Student STD;
A
Only STD
B
STD and Student
C
STD and struct Student
D
Only struct Student
Question 1122
Consider the following:
A
j is prime
B
j does not divide i
C
j is odd
D
i is not prime
Question 1123
What will be the value of x after successful execution of the below program.
A
Output is 8 times y
B
Output is 16 times y
C
Output is 25 times 'y
D
Output is 30 times y
Question 1124
Given the following pseudocode for the function

Which of the following is correct for greet (4) ?
A
hello will be printed four times followed by world five times
B
hello will he printed 24 times followed by world 5 times
C
hello will be printed 10 times followed by world five times
D
hello will be printed 12 times followed by world four times
Question 1125
Which of the following is false
A
Dynamic Programming Algorithm for D/l Knapsack problem runs in polynomial time
B
Fractional Knapsack problem call be solved in polynomial timE'
C
0/1 Knapsack problem can be solved using Branch and Bound method
D
Backtracking method is used to solve N-Queens problem
Question 1126
Which of the following is False about the Vertex Cover Graph Problem (given n is number of vertices)
A
Vertex Cover Problem is NP-Complete
B
A solution to Vertex cover problem can be verified in O(n2) time.
C
The size of Minimum Vertex cover in complete graph of size n is n - 1
D
Vertex Cover problem can be polynomial reduced to some problem X in P
Question 1127
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
1. fork() never returns on error
II. exec() never returns on error
III. exec() never returns on success
A
I only
B
II only
C
I and III
D
III only
Question 1128
Runtime binding means the memory locations for loading the process are decided
A
During compilation
B
Dynamically during load time
C
Dynamically during the execution of code
D
Once and cannot be changed once the process is executing
Question 1129
Match List I with List II
 
List I List II
A. Overloading I. Since function call is resolved during run time, the execution is Slow.
B. Early binding II. Since function call is resolved during compilation time, the execution is much faster.
C. Overriding III. Supports compile-time polymorphism.
D. Late Binding IV. Supports run-time polymorphism.
 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
A
QUESTION DELETED
B
C
D
Question 1130
The light given off by the phosphor during exposure to the electron beam is known as
A
Fluorescence
B
Phosphorescence
C
Persistence
D
Retracing
Question 1131
Which of the following description(s) is/are true:
A. Red Black Tree-Guarantees worst case of O(log n) time for search, insert & delete.
B. Trie-Used for efficient prefix-based searches
C. AVL Tree - self balancing binary search tree with stricker balance criteria
D B- Tree - Allows efficient search, insert, delete operations in disk based systems
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A & B only
2. C & D only
3. B only
4. A, B & D only
A
DELETED
B
C
D
Question 1132
Arrange the following graph on the basis of number of edges in increasing order [for n > 3]

A. Kn (Complete Graph)

B. Cn (Cycle graph)

C. Wn(Wheel graph)

D. Kn,n (Complete Bipartite Graphs)

E. Qn (n-cubes graph)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D, E

2. B, A, C, D, E

3. A, B, C, E, D

4. E, D, C, A, B

A
DELETED QUESTION
B
C
D
Question 1133
A machine is represented by states Q,input alphabet SIGMA, transition function f.Initial state q0 and final state F. The machine accepts all the strings over SIGMA={a,b},which start and ended with any combination of all alphabet and abb works lies as substring in all the strings to be accepted.
Which of the following represented the minimum state DFA for the above specified passage?
A
DELETED QUESTION
B
C
D
Question 1134
Q9
A
B
C
D
Question 1135
Q34
A
B
C
D
Question 1136
Q35
A
B
C
D
Question 1137
Q39
A
B
C
D
Question 1138
Q43
A
B
C
D
Question 1139
Q44
A
B
C
D
Question 1140
40 software professionals were interviewed for a job. 25 knew PYTHON 20 knew JAVA and knew neither language. How many knew both languages?
A
20(DROPPED QUESTION)
B
53
C
10
D
88
Question 1141
Which of the following languages can be recognized by Non-Deterministic Finite Automata(NFA) but cannot be recongnized by Deterministic Finite Automata (DFA)?
A)L1 ​={w∈{0,1}∗∣ the length of w is even}
B)L2 ={w∈{0,1}∗∣ the length of w is odd}
C)L3 ={w∈{0,1}∗∣ all 0’s come before all 1’s in w}
D)L4 ​={w∈{0,1}∗∣ w contains an equal number of 0’s and 1’s}
E)L5 ​={w∈{0,1}∗∣ all 1’s come before all 0’s in w}
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A) and (B) Only[ DROPPED QUESTION]
B
(B) and (C) Only
C
(C) and (D) Only
D
(D) and (E) Only
Question 1142
Select the sorting Algorithms that are stable.
A)Quick Sort
B)Bubble Sort D)Merge sort
E)Shell Sort
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A),(B),(C) and (E) Only [DROPPED QUESTION]
B
(A),(D) and (E) Only
C
(B) and (C) Only
D
(B),(C) and (E) Only
Question 1143
Consider the context-free grammar G below for arithmetic expressions :
E->E+E|E*E|id
Which of the following statements is TRUE:
A
The string "id + id x id" has no parse tree according to G
B
The string "id + id x id" has only one parse tree according to G
C
The string "id + id x id" has exactly two parse trees according to G
D
The string "id + id x id" has more than two parse trees according to G
Question 1144
Which of the following heap memory allocation strategies is likely to exploit spatial locality of memory accesses in a program, the most?
A
Best Fit
B
First Fit
C
Next Fit
D
Last Fit
Question 1145
Which of the following is true?
A
Both Parity and Cyclic Redundancy Check are error correcting codes
B
Both Parity and Low Density Parity Check Code are error correcting codes
C
Both Reed-Solomon code and Low Density Parity Check Code are error correcting codes
D
Both Cyclic Redundancy Check and Low Density Parity Check Code are error correcting codes
Question 1145 Explanation: 
Reed-Solomon Code: Reed-Solomon codes are widely used error-correcting codes, especially in applications where burst errors are common, such as in data storage systems (CDs, DVDs, QR codes, etc.). They can correct multiple errors and are known for their effectiveness in dealing with errors in communication.
Low Density Parity Check Code (LDPC): LDPC codes are also error-correcting codes. LDPC codes have gained popularity, especially in modern communication systems, for their capacity to approach the Shannon limit for channel capacity.
Question 1146
In Reverse Polish notation, expression A*B+C*D is written as
A
AB*CD*+
B
A*BCD*+
C
AB*CD+*
D
A*B*CD+
Question 1146 Explanation: 
Reverse Polish Notation (RPN), also known as postfix notation, operators come after their operands.
A*B translates to AB*
C*D translates to CD*
Finally, the + operator is placed after AB* and CD*.
Question 1147
In a vectored interrupt
A
The branch address is assigned to a fixed location in memory
B
The interrupting source supplies the branch information to the processor
C
The branch address is obtained from a register in the processor
D
None of the above
Question 1147 Explanation: 
In a vectored interrupt, each interrupting device or source is assigned a specific vector address. When an interrupt occurs, the interrupting device sends its vector address to the processor. The processor uses this vector address to locate the corresponding interrupt service routine (ISR) or branch address. This allows the processor to directly jump to the specific routine associated with the interrupting device
Question 1148
Worst case time complexity of heap sort for n elements
A
O(nlogn)
B
O(logn)
C
O(n2)
D
O(n)
Question 1148 Explanation: 
Heap Sort has a time complexity of O(n log n) in the worst case because it builds a max-heap or min-heap (depending on whether it's sorting in ascending or descending order) and performs n iterations (heapify) for n elements.
Each heapify operation takes O(log n) time in the worst case.
Question 1149
Consider a database table T containing two columns X and Y each of type Integer. After the creation of the table, one record (X=l, Y=l) is inserted in the table. Let MX and MY denote the respective maximum values of X and Y among all records in the table at any point in time. Using MX and MY, new records are inserted in the table 128 times with X and Y values being MX+I, 2 x MY+I respectively. It may be noted that each time after the insertion, values of MX and MY change. What will be the output of the following SQL query after the steps mentioned above are carried out?
SELECT Y FROM T WHERE X=7;
A
127
B
15
C
129
D
257
Question 1150
A full adder circuit requires
A
two inputs and two outputs
B
two inputs and three outputs
C
three inputs and two outputs
D
three inputs and one output
Question 1150 Explanation: 
A full adder is a digital circuit that adds three binary inputs: A, B, and Cin (carry-in). It produces two outputs: Sum (S) and Carry-out (Cout). The sum output (S) is the result of the addition of A, B, and Cin. The carry-out (Cout) represents the carry that is generated when adding A, B, and Cin.
Question 1151
The logical operation of the following circuit is
q9
A
XOR
B
NAND
C
AND
D
OR
Question 1152
Which of the following multithreading model is followed in Linux OS?
A
One User Thread mapping to One Kernel Thread
B
Many User Threads mapping to One Kernel Thread
C
One User Th read mapping to Many Kernel Threads
D
Many User Threads mapping to Many Kernel Threads
Question 1153
Purpose of priority inheritance protocol in synchronization mechanisms is
A
To prevent priority inversion in systems having two or lesser priorities for a resource
B
To provide mutual exclusion between threads and prevent data corruption
C
To prevent priority inversion and ensure fairness in resource allocation
D
To allow multiple threads to access any resource simultaneously
Question 1154
Consider the deterministic finite-state automaton (DEA) below. The alphabet is {a,b}. The state with a small incoming arrow is the initial state, while the double circle state denotes a final state.
Q13
Which of the following regular expressions defines the language accepted by the DFA?
A
ab*
B
a*b*
C
(ab)*
D
a*b
Question 1155
Which of the following scenario may not be a good for HDFS in Big data paradigm?
A
HDFS is not suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to the same file
B
HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access
C
HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring high latency data access
D
None of the above
Question 1156
A standard Java API for monitoring and managing applications is
A
JVM
B
JVN
C
JMX
D
JMY
Question 1157
Which of the following clustering technique is used by K- Means Algorithm:
A
Hierarchical Technique
B
Partitional technique
C
Divisive
D
Agglomerative
Question 1158
Match the following in the context of Information Security which are closely associated
 
(i) Ingress filtering   (P)  Data leakage prevention
(ii) Egress filtering (Q) Hiding identity of systems
(iii) NAT (R) Keep track of TCP/IP connections
(iv) Stateful firewall   S) Malicious traffic prevention
 
A
(i)-(S),(ii)-(P),(iii)-(Q),(iv)-(R)
B
(i)-(P),(ii)-(R),(iii)-(S),(iv)-(Q)
C
(i)-(S),(ii)-(R),(iii)-(P),(iv)-(Q)
D
(i)-(R),(ii)-(Q),(iii)-(S),(iv)-(P)
Question 1159
Asymmetric encryption is not suitable for
A
Confidentiality
B
Authentication
C
Key Exchange
D
Prevention of Denial of Service
Question 1160
Find the minimum spanning distance and the corresponding number of edges for the following graph
Q19
A
10,3
B
11,4
C
15,4
D
28,7
Question 1161
Match the following
(A) Floyd Warshall i) shortest path between two vertices
(B) Dijkstra    ii)single source shortest path
(C) Kruskal's    iii)Minimum spanning tree
(D) Bellman ford iv)solving all pair shortest path
A
(A)-(iii),(B)-(i),(C)-(iv),(D)-(i)
B
(A)-(iv),(B)-(i),(C)-(iii),(D)-(ii)
C
(A)-(i),(B)-(ii),(C)-(iii),(D)-(iv)
D
(A)-(ii),(B)-(iii),(C)-(i),(D)-(iv)
Question 1162
Which sequence below best describes the order in which the phases of a compiler typically work?
A
Syntax analysis, lexical analysis,semantic analysis, code optimization, intermediate code generation
B
Lexical analysis, syntax analysis,semantic analysis,code optimization, intermediate code generation
C
Syntax analysis, lexical analysis,syntax analysis, semantic analysis,intermediate code generation, code optimization
D
Lexical analysis, syntax analysis,semantic analysis, intermediate code generation, code optimization
Question 1163
In the context of parsing techniques, LL(1) refers to:
A
Grammars that parse the input from left to right, produce a rightmost derivation, with a lookahead of 1 symbol.
B
Grammars that parse the input from left to right, produce a leftmost derivation, with a lookahead of 1 symbol. (
C
Grammars that parse the input from left to right, and backtrack at most once.
D
Grammars that parse the input from right to left, produce a leftmost derivation, and backtrack at most once.
Question 1164
For a given finite number of instructions to be executed, which architecture of the processor provides fastest execution?
A
ANSA — Advanced Network Systems Architecture
B
Super-scalar
C
ISA — Instruction Set Architecture
D
All of the above
Question 1165
An instruction pipeline can be implemented by means of
A
LIFO buffer
B
FIFO buffer
C
Stack
D
None of the above
Question 1166
The operation executed on data stored in registers is called
A
Macro-operation
B
Micro operation
C
Bit-operation
D
Byte-operation
Question 1167
Which of the following methods is used to detect double errors?
A
Odd Parity
B
Even Parity
C
Checksum (CRC)
D
Checksum (XOR)
Question 1168
In SQL the statement select * from R, S is equivalent to
A
Select * from R natural join S
B
Select * from R cross join S
C
Select * from R outer join S
D
Select * from R inner join S
Question 1169
Which of the following SQL query deletes all tuples in the teacher relation for those teachers associated with a department located in the building with name CSE and which is in department relation:
A
DELETE FROM teacher WHERE dept_name IN 'CSE';
B
DELETE FROM department WHERE building-'CSE';
C
DELETE FROM teacher WHERE dept_name IN (SELECT dept_name FROM department WHERE building = 'CSE);
D
None of the above
Question 1170
The resulting logic circuit obtained when both inputs of NOR and NAND gates are connected together is:
A
AND
B
XOR
C
OR
D
NOT
Question 1171
q30
If det |P| denotes the determinant of matrix P, then which of the following is true:
A
det |P| is indeterminate
B
det |P| is negative
C
det |P|=0
D
None of the above
Question 1172
As part of segmentation memory allocation strategy, which of the following assigns segment numbers for various segments of a program like code segment and data segment?
A
Compiler
B
Assembler
C
Loader
D
Linker
Question 1173
Which of the following is false about interrupts ?
A
interrupts can be triggered by a hardware or by a software
B
Hardware interrupts may be triggered by sending a signal to CPU through a system bus
C
Software interrupts may be triggered by executing system calls
D
Trap is a hardware-generated interrupt
Question 1174
Consider the Nondeterministic Finite State Automaton (NFA) below. States with a small incoming arrow are initial states, while a double circle state denotes a final state.
isro-23-q33
The number of states in the MINIMAL Deterministic Finite-State Automation (DFA) for this language is:
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
Question 1175
Consider the context-free grammar G below. Here S is the starting non-terminal symbol, while a and b are terminal symbols.
S-> aSb|T
T ->bT|b
The language generated by G is:
A
{am,bn:0<=m
B
{am,bn:0
C
{am,bn:0
D
{an,bn:0<=n}
Question 1176
Which type data storage system Cassandra is?
A
Distributed
B
Centralized
C
Parallel
D
Dumb
Question 1177
The cloud infrastructure solely for a single organisation within its premises is
A
public cloud
B
private cloud
C
common cloud
D
hybrid cloud
Question 1178
Temporarily renting the capacity to handle spikes in load is called
A
Cloud sharing
B
Cloud computing
C
Cloud bursting
D
Cloud loading
Question 1179
CAPTCHA is used to provide protection from
A
Zero day attack
B
Buffer overflow
C
Automated scripted attack
D
Man in the middle attack
Question 1180
The MCDC software testing technique stands for
A
Multiple Conditions Decision Coverage
B
Multiple Coverage Decision Conditions
C
Modified Condition Decision Coverage
D
None of the above
Question 1181
Regression testing focuses on validating
A
module structure
B
module interfaces
C
software changes
D
None of the above
Question 1182
Time complexity to find the diameter of a binary tree having n nodes is
A
O(n2)
B
O(n)
C
O(1)
D
O(log n)
Question 1183
The minimum number of arithmetic operations required to evaluate the expression f(z)=8x3+3z+12
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
3
Question 1184
A host in one organisation is connected to another host in other organisation using I Gbps link with 25m sec RTT. Network administrator of this network tuned the packet size to 1000 bytes to transfer large files optimally over this network. In order to have channel utilisation > 96%, how big window size (in terms of packets) should be (assuming ACK packets have no impact)?
A
2000 packets
B
2400 packets
C
3000 packets
D
4000 packets
Question 1185
In a computer network using CSMA/CD, the minimum frame size for data transfer is 1500 bytes. What will be the data transfer speed in this network over 1 Km cable, if the signal speed in the cable is 25000 Km/sec and no repeaters are use in this network?
A
1 Gbps
B
100 Mbps
C
500Mbps
D
1.5 Gbps
Question 1186
The prefix expression is —+abc+d*ef.
Evaluate the expression for a = 10,b =2,c=5,d=3,e=4,f=1
A
3
B
4
C
10
D
6
Question 1187
The asymptotic complexity of 4 functions f1,f2,f3,f4 are
f1(n)=2n
f2(n)=n(3/2)
f3(n)=nlogn
f4(n)=n(log n)
Arrange then in increasing order of complexity
A
f2,f3,f4,f1
B
f1,f2,f3,f4
C
f3,f2,f4,f1
D
f3,f1,f2,f4
Question 1188
What is the maximum number of comparisons needed to sort G items using radix sort, if each number is a 3-digit decimal number?
A
120
B
180
C
210
D
350
Question 1189
Amongst the ACID properties of a transaction, the 'Durability' property requires that the changes made to the database by a successful transaction persist
A
Except in case of an operating system crash
B
Except in case of a disk crash
C
Except in case of a power failure
D
Always, even if there is a failure of any kind
Question 1190
Fifth Normal form is concerned with
A
Join dependency
B
Domain-key
C
Multivalued dependency
D
Functional dependency
Question 1191
Which of the following are true?
(i)In a graph G with 'n' vertices and 'e' edges, sum of degrees of vertices =2*e
(ii)Eccentricity of a connected graph can never be equal to radius of the graph
(iii)Girth of a graph is the total number of edges in the shortest cycle of the graph
(iv)Graph with equal degree for all vertices is multigraph
A
(i), (ii), (iii)
B
(ii), (iii), (iv)
C
(i), (iii), (iv)
D
None of the above
Question 1192
If there are five faces and nine vertices in an undirected planar graph, then number of edges is
A
14
B
16
C
12
D
None of the above
Question 1193
If a bag contains 6 blue balls, 5 white balls and 4 yellow balls and if a ball is drawn out at random, probability of not getting a white ball is
A
2/3
B
1/3
C
1/5
D
None of the above
Question 1194
Process Scheduler type Activity
(i) Long term scheduler (P) executes much faster to reduce wastage  of CPU time
(ii) Medium term scheduler (Q) controls degree of multiprogramming
(iii) Short Term Schedule Activity (R )  is associated with swapping
 
With respect to Process Schedulers of an operating system mentioned above in the table, which of the following statements is correct?
A
(i)-(R),(ii)-(P),(iii)-(Q)
B
(i)-(Q),(ii)-(R),(iii)-(P)
C
(i)-(P),(ii)-(R),(iii)-(Q)
D
(i)-(R),(ii)-(Q),(iii)-(P)
Question 1195
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A
If a language is recursive, its complement is recursive
B
If a language is recursive its complement is recursively enumerable
C
If a language and its complement are recursively enumerable it is recursive
D
If a language is recursively enumerable its complement is also recursively enumerable
Question 1196
Which of the following statements is FALSE:
A
The intersection of a regular language and a context-free language is context-free
B
The intersection of a regular language and context-free language is regular
C
The union of two context-free languages is context-free
D
The union of two regular languages is regular
Question 1197
State whether true or false
(i) Virtualisation facilitates multiple OS simultaneously on the same hardware
(ii) In dual boot, multiple OS can run simultaneously
A
(i) True (ii) False
B
(i) False (ii) True
C
(i) True (ii) True
D
(i) False (ii) False
Question 1198
In which of the virtualization techniques, hypervisor modifies the guest OS?
A
(a)Full virtualization
B
(b)Para virtualization
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 1199
Which of the following is the cause of the Ping of death issue related to ICMP packets?
A
Buffer overflow
B
Divide by ZERO
C
Missing input sanitisation
D
Privilege escalation
Question 1200
HIPO chart is also known as
A
UML diagram
B
Structure chart
C
DFD
D
None of the above
Question 1201
McCabe's cyclomatie complexity number of a program control graph 'G' with e edges, n nodes and p disconnected paths is defined as
A
n-e+2p
B
e-n+2+p
C
e - n + 2p
D
n-e+p
Question 1202
Entity Relationship model shows the
A
Static view
B
Functional view
C
Dynamic view
D
All of the above
Question 1203
Maximum number of Simple graphs possible with n vertices
A
2(n)(n-1)/2
B
2(n-1)/2
C
2(n)(n+1)/2
D
2(n)(n+1)
Question 1204
Consider the NFA with epsilon-transitions below, which is meant to accept strings corresponding to a lexical token id. Here the token digit corresponds to the extended regular expression [0-9]and letter to [a-z A-Zl. In the diagram, a small incoming edge indicates a start state while a double circle indicates a final state. Which of the following extended regular expressions corresponds to the token id?
isro-23-q64
A
letter (letter|digit)*
B
(letter | digit)* letter
C
(letter | digit)*
D
letter (letter* | digit*)
Question 1205
For internal data communication through computer network, a 5 layer protocol hierarchy is proposed. Applications to be used in this network generate 270 bytes long messages, At each of the layers, a 6-byte header is added. What fraction of network bandwidth(in %) is wasted due to headers?
A
5%
B
20%
C
10%
D
15%
Question 1206
Match the following<br>  
Versions of 802.11   Speed of   Wireless LAN
(i) 8C2.11ac (P) 7 Gbps
(ii) 802.11 a/g (Q) 11 Mbps
(iii) 802.11 ad (R) 54 Mbps
(iv) 802.11 b (S) 3.5 Gbps
A
(i) — (S), (ii) — (R), (iii) — (P), (iv) — (Q)
B
(i) — (S), (ii) — (R), (iii) — (Q), (iv) — (P)
C
(i) — (R), (ii) — (S), (iii) — (P), (iv) — (Q)
D
(i) — (R), (ii) — (Q), (iii) — (P), (iv) — (S)
Question 1207
What is the Inorder predecesor of 15 in the Binary Search Tree shown below
isro-23-q67
A
18
B
7
C
9
D
13
Question 1208
Pointer p to an array of integers (of size 2 Bytes) is initialised to 200. What is the value of P+3?
A
206
B
203
C
212
D
204
Question 1209
In a priority queue, insertion and deletion be done at
A
Front
B
Back
C
Middle
D
Any position
Question 1210
Which of the following definitions is true ?
(i) A digital multiplexer takes one input from many inputs and outputs the selected one
(ii) Four select lines are required for 1-16 demultiplexer
(iii) Eight OR gates are required to implement an octal to binary encoder
A
(i) and (ii)
B
(ii) and (iii)
C
(i) alone
D
None of the above
Question 1211
The time delay obtained through an 8 bit serial register with 400 MHz clock is :
A
20 ns
B
2.5 us
C
20 us
D
2.5 ns
Question 1212
The complexity of matrix multiplication of two matrices A and B whose orders are m x n and n x p respectively is
A
O(m x p)
B
O(m x n2 x p)
C
O(m x n x p2)
D
O(m x n x p)
Question 1213
From a character string of length m, the number of sub-strings of all lengths that can be formed are:
A
m2
B
m
C
m(m+1)/2
D
m(log m)
Question 1214
A truth table will need how many rows if there are n variables.
A
2*n
B
n
C
2n
D
None of the above
Question 1215
In a producer-consumer scenario also known as Bounded-Buffer Problem, what would be the most appropriate synchronization primitive to ensure that the consumer waits when the buffer is empty?
A
Spinlock
B
Mutex lock
C
Semaphore
D
Monitors
Question 1216
Any attempt by a process to access memory allocated to OS or process of other user results into
A
Trap to OS
B
Context Switching
C
Page fault
D
Invocation to Scheduler Despatch
Question 1217
Consider the context-free grammar G below. Here S is the starting non-terminal symbol, while a and b are terminal symbols.
S —>aaSb|T
T->Tb|a
Which of the following statements is true about the language L(G) generated by G?
A
aabbaabb belongs to L(G) but aabb does not
B
aaaaabbb belongs to L(G) but aaaabb does not
C
aaaabb belongs to L(G) but aabbaabb does not
D
aaabb belongs to L G) but aaaaabbb not
Question 1218
Which of the following is not a connective of First Order Logic with reference to AI (Artificial Intelligence)?
A
^
B
V
C
<>
D
~
Question 1219
A hybrid Bayesian network contains
A
Only continuous variables
B
Only discrete variables
C
Both discrete and discontinuous variables
D
Both continuous and discrete variables
Question 1220
Match the following and select the correct option
 
(i) Encryption (P)Manipulation identification of a host (through NIC identifier)
(ii) MAC Cloning (Q) Determining version and name of OS and OS utilities
(iii) ARP Spoofing (R) Protecting the confidentiality
(iv) Finger printing (S)Poisoning the IP to MAC address mapping
A
(i)-(R),(ii)-(P),(iii)-(S),(iv) -(Q)
B
(i)-(P),(ii)-(R),(iii)-(S),(iv) -(Q)
C
(i)-(R),(ii)-(S),(iii)-(P),(iv) -(Q)
D
(i)-(R),(ii)-(Q),(iii)-(S),(iv) -(P)
Question 1221
"CREATE TABLE T" in SQL is an example of:
A
Normalization
B
DML
C
DDL
D
Primary key
Question 1221 Explanation: 
In SQL, the "CREATE TABLE" statement is part of the Data Definition Language (DDL). DDL is a subset of SQL that deals with the definition of database structures, including creating, modifying, and deleting tables and schemas. The "CREATE TABLE" statement specifically creates a new table in the database.
Question 1222
Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT CORRECT ?
(A) OSPF is based on distance-vector routing protocol.
(B) Both link-state and distance-vector routing are based on the least cost goal.
(C) BGP4 is based on the path-vector algorithm.
(D) The three-node instability can be avoided using split horizon combined with poison reverse.
(E) RIP is based on link state algorithm.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A), (D) and (E) Only
B
(A) and (B) Only
C
(B) and (C) Only
D
(B), (C) and (E) Only
Question 1222 Explanation: 
(A) OSPF is based on distance-vector routing protocol. - This statement is incorrect. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state routing protocol, not distance-vector.
(D) The three-node instability can be avoided using split horizon combined with poison reverse. - This statement is correct. Split horizon and poison reverse are techniques used to avoid the count-to-infinity problem in distance-vector routing protocols.
(E) RIP is based on the link-state algorithm. - This statement is incorrect. RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is a distance-vector routing protocol, not a link-state.
Question 1223
Match List - I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(А)-(III), (B)-(1), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
B
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
C
(A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
D
(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Question 1223 Explanation: 
Monoalphabetic Cipher (A): In a monoalphabetic cipher, each letter in the plaintext is replaced with another letter, creating a one-to-one relationship. So, (A)-(III) is correct.
DES (B): DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric-key algorithm, and it uses a round key in its encryption process. So, (B)-(I) is correct.
Stream Cipher (C): Stream ciphers encrypt data one bit or byte at a time, and they often use a feedback mechanism. So, (C)-(IV) is correct.
Polyalphabetic Cipher (D): Polyalphabetic ciphers use multiple substitution alphabets, creating a more complex relationship. So, (D)-(II) is correct
Question 1224
The prototyping model has the sequence:
(A) Customer Evaluation
(B) Quick design
(C) Requirements
(D) Implement
(E) Design
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(C)→(A)→(D)→(B)→(E)
B
(B)→ (C)→(A)→(D)→(E)
C
(C)→(B)→(D)→(A)→(E)
D
(E)→(B)→(C)→(D)→(A)
Question 1224 Explanation: 
Requirements (C):
Gather and analyze user needs and expectations to define system requirements.
Quick Design (B):
Create a basic, working model of the system, focusing on core functionalities and user interfaces.
Implement (D):
Build the prototype using appropriate tools and technologies.
Customer Evaluation (A):
Present the prototype to users for feedback and evaluation.
Gather suggestions for improvements and refinements.
Refine Design (E):
Incorporate user feedback into the design, addressing identified issues and enhancing features.
Iterate through steps 3-5 as needed until a satisfactory prototype is achieved.
Question 1225

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
B
(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
C
(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
D
(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Question 1226
A program that is used by other routines to accomplish a particular task, is called:
A
Micro program.
B
Micro operation
C
Routine
D
Subroutine
Question 1226 Explanation: 
A subroutine is a program that is designed to perform a specific task and is intended to be used by other parts of a program. It is a set of instructions designed to accomplish a particular task, and it is often used to perform common operations that may be needed at multiple points in a program.
Subroutines are reusable and can be called from different parts of a program to perform the same task, promoting code modularity and reusability. Therefore, in the context of programming, the term "subroutine" is used to describe a set of instructions designed to accomplish a specific task.
Micro program: A low-level program that controls the basic operations of a computer's hardware, often embedded in the hardware itself.
Micro operation: A single, elementary operation performed by a processor, such as fetching an instruction or adding two numbers.
Routine: A general term for a sequence of instructions that performs a specific task, but it doesn't necessarily imply reusability or being called by other routines.
Question 1227
Given as 4 GB (4.3 x 109 bytes) of virtual space and typical page size of 4 KB and each page table entry is 5 bytes. How many virtual pages would this imply? What is the size of whole page table?
A
107500 and 20480 bytes
B
215000 and 40960 bytes
C
10750 and 10240 bytes
D
43000 and 1024 bytes
Question 1228
Indexed/grouped allocation is useful as:
(A) It supports both sequential and direct access.
(B) Entire block is available for data.
(C) It does not require lots of space for keeping pointers.
(D) No external fragmentation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A) Only
B
(B) and (C) Only
C
(B) Only
D
(A), (B) and (D) Only
Question 1229
The Hue of a colour is related to its :
A
Luminance
B
Saturation
C
Incandescence
D
Wavelength
Question 1229 Explanation: 
Hue refers to the attribute of color that allows it to be classified as red, blue, green, etc., and it is determined by the dominant wavelength of the light.
Question 1230
Which of the following are commonly used parsing techniques in NLP (Natural Language Processing) for syntactic analysis,
(A) Top down parsing
(B) Bottom Up parsing
(C) Dependency parsing.
(D) Statistical machine translation
(E) Earley parsing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A), (C) (D),(E) Only
B
(B) (C) (D), (E) Only
C
(A) (B) (C), (E) Only
D
(A) and (B) Only
Question 1230 Explanation: 
(A) Top-Down Parsing:
Starts with the root of the sentence structure and works its way down, attempting to match grammar rules to the input sentence.
Examples include recursive descent parsing and LL parsers.
(B) Bottom-Up Parsing:
Starts with individual words or phrases and builds the structure upward, combining smaller structures into larger ones based on grammar rules.
Examples include shift-reduce parsing and LR parsers. (C) Dependency Parsing:
Focuses on identifying the relationships between words in a sentence, specifically which words are dependent on others.
Represents sentence structure as a dependency tree. (E) Earley Parsing:
A type of dynamic programming algorithm that can efficiently handle ambiguity and left-recursion in grammars.
It's a chart-based parsing algorithm that can be used for both top-down and bottom-up parsing. (D) Statistical Machine Translation:
Not a parsing technique for syntactic analysis. It's a method for translating text from one language to another using statistical models.
Question 1231
Match List - I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
B
(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
C
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
D
(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Question 1231 Explanation: 
(A) BCNF iff (II) all underlying domains contain scalar values only This is true because BCNF (Boyce-Codd Normal Form) requires that all attributes are functionally dependent on the primary key, and all domains should contain only atomic (scalar) values.
(B) 5 NF iff (III) every MVD is implied by the candidate keys This is true because 5NF (Fifth Normal Form) deals with multivalued dependencies (MVDs), and it requires that every MVD is implied by the candidate keys.
(C) 1 NF iff (IV) every FD is implied by the candidate keys This is true because 1NF (First Normal Form) deals with the elimination of repeating groups, and it ensures that every functional dependency (FD) is implied by the candidate keys.
(D) 4 NF iff (I) every ID is implied by the candidate keys This is true because 4NF (Fourth Normal Form) deals with multivalued dependencies, and it requires that every implied dependency (ID) is implied by the candidate keys.
Question 1232
Which data structure is typically used to implement a hash table?
A
Linked list
B
Array
C
Binary Tree
D
Stack
Question 1232 Explanation: 
In a hash table, an array is typically used to store the key-value pairs. The keys are hashed to index locations in the array using a hash function. This allows for efficient retrieval and storage of data, as the key can be used to directly access the corresponding value in the array. Arrays provide constant-time access to elements based on their index, making them a suitable data structure for implementing hash tables.
Question 1233
Let L-={ab, aa, baa}.
Which of the following strings are not in L.
A
abaabaaabaa
B
aaaabaaaa
C
baaaaabaaaab
D
baaaaabaa
Question 1233 Explanation: 
L is a language consisting of strings that can be formed by concatenating the strings "ab", "aa", and "baa".
To determine if a string is in L, we must check if it can be constructed using only those three strings.
Let's analyze each option:
abaabaaabaa: Can be formed as "ab" + "aa" + "baa" + "ab" + "aa" + "baa".
aaaabaaaa: Can be formed as "aa" + "aa" + "baa" + "aa" + "aa".
baaaaabaa: Can be formed as "baa" + "aa" + "baa" + "aa".
However, baaaaabaaaab cannot be formed using the strings in L.
Question 1234
What is the probability that a positive integer selected at random from the set of positive integers not exceeding 100 is divisible by either 2 or 5?
A
10/5
B
3/5
C
2/5
D
1/3
Question 1234 Explanation: 
The set of positive integers not exceeding 100 can be represented as {1, 2, 3, ..., 100}.
To find the probability that a randomly selected positive integer from this set is divisible by either 2 or 5, we need to find the count of numbers divisible by 2 or 5 and divide it by the total count of numbers.
Count of numbers divisible by 2: 1, 2, 3, ..., 100 Count = 100/2 = 50
Count of numbers divisible by 5: 5, 10, 15, ..., 100
Count = 100/5 = 20
However, numbers divisible by both 2 and 5 (i.e., divisible by 10) have been counted twice, so we need to subtract them once.
Count of numbers divisible by 10: 10, 20, 30, ..., 100
Count = 100/10 = 10
Now, apply the inclusion-exclusion principle:
Total count = Count of numbers divisible by 2 + Count of numbers divisible by 5 - Count of numbers divisible by 10 = 50 + 20 - 10 = 60
Probability = (Count of favorable outcomes) / (Total count) = 60 / 100
Simplify the fraction: Probability = 3/5
Question 1235
Let A={a, b} and L=A*. Let x={anbn, n>0). The languages L U X and X are respectively: (1) (2) (3) (4)
A
Not regular, Regular
B
Regular, Regular
C
Regular, Not regular
D
Not Regular, Not Regular
Question 1235 Explanation: 
L = A*: As mentioned before, this is a regular language representing all strings over alphabet A (a and b), including the empty string.
X = {a^n b^n, n>0}:This language contains strings with an equal number of a's and b's, both counts being greater than 0. The key thing to notice is that the number of a's and b's must be the same, and both must be greater than 0.
L U X: Combining L (all strings over A) with X (strings with equal and positive a's and b's) using union will still result in a regular language. L essentially adds all other strings not included in X (e.g., strings with only a's or b's, or strings with unequal counts).
X:This is where the irregularity comes in. The condition of having an equal and positive number of a's and b's requires more than just a regular expression to recognize. Regular expressions can represent repetition, concatenation, and alternation, but checking for equality of two variable-length parts (a's and b's) within the string goes beyond what they can handle.
Therefore, we have:
L U X: Regular because it's the union of two regular languages.
X: Not regular because it requires a condition that regular expressions cannot capture.
Question 1236
Arrange the following in ascending order:
(A) Remainder of 4916 when divided by 17
(B) Remainder of 2446 when divided by 9
(C) Remainder of 15517 when divided by 17
(D) Last digits of the number 745
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A), (B), (C), (D)
B
(A), (B), (D), (C)
C
(A), (C), (B), (D)
D
(D), (C), (B), (A)
Question 1237
Which of the statement is/are CORRECT?
(A) Moore and Mealy machines are finite state machines with output capabilities
(B) Any given Moore machine has an equivalent Mealy machine.
(C) Any given Mealy machine has an equivalent Moore machine.
(D) Moore machine is not a finite state machine.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A) and (B) Only
B
(A), (B) and (C) Only
C
(B) and (D) Only
D
(A), (B) and (D) Only
Question 1237 Explanation: 
(A) Moore and Mealy machines are finite state machines with output capabilities:
True. Both Moore and Mealy machines are fundamental types of finite state machines (FSMs) that have:
A finite set of states
Transitions between states based on input The ability to produce outputs
(B) Any given Moore machine has an equivalent Mealy machine:
True. Any Moore machine can be transformed into an equivalent Mealy machine that exhibits the same behavior. The transformation involves moving the output generation from being solely dependent on the current state (as in Moore) to also considering the current input (as in Mealy).
(C) Any given Mealy machine has an equivalent Moore machine:
True. Conversely, any Mealy machine can also be converted into an equivalent Moore machine. This involves introducing additional states to model the output behavior based solely on the current state, as required in a Moore machine.
(D) Moore machine is not a finite state machine:
False. As explained in statement (A), Moore machines are indeed a type of finite state machine, characterized by their specific output behavior.
Question 1238
In a feed forward neural network with the following specifications
The input layer has 4 neutrons, the hidden layer has 3 neurons and the output layer has 2 neurons using the sigmoid activation function for given input values [0.5,0.8,0.2,0.6] as well as the initial weights for the connections.
Input layer to hidden layer weights
WI: [0.1, 0.3, 0.5, 0.2]
W2: [0.2, 0.4, 0.6, 0.2]
W3: [0.3, 0.5, 0.7, 0.2]
Hidden layer to output layer weights
W4:[0.4,0.1, 0.3]
WS: [0.5,0.2.0.4]
What is the output of the output layer when the given a input values are passed through neural network?
Round the answer to two decimal places
A
[0.62, 0.68]
B
[0.72 0.78]
C
[0.82, 0.88]
D
[0.92,0.98]
Question 1238 Explanation: 
Here's the step-by-step calculation:
1. Input Layer to Hidden Layer:
Calculate weighted sums for each hidden neuron:
H1 = 0.1*0.5 + 0.3*0.8 + 0.5*0.2 + 0.2*0.6 = 0.51
H2 = 0.2*0.5 + 0.4*0.8 + 0.6*0.2 + 0.2*0.6 = 0.66
H3 = 0.3*0.5 + 0.5*0.8 + 0.7*0.2 + 0.2*0.6 = 0.81
Apply sigmoid activation function to each hidden neuron:
A1 = 1 / (1 + exp(-H1)) = 0.624
A2 = 1 / (1 + exp(-H2)) = 0.658
A3 = 1 / (1 + exp(-H3)) = 0.692
2. Hidden Layer to Output Layer:
Calculate weighted sums for each output neuron:
O1 = 0.4*A1 + 0.1*A2 + 0.3*A3 = 0.523
O2 = 0.5*A1 + 0.2*A2 + 0.4*A3 = 0.72
Apply sigmoid activation function to each output neuron:
Y1 = 1 / (1 + exp(-O1)) = 0.628 ≈ 0.62
Y2 = 1 / (1 + exp(-O2)) = 0.675 ≈ 0.68
Question 1239
Which of the following are example of CSMA channel sensing methods?
(A) 1-persistent
(B) 2-persistent
(C) p-persistent
(D) o-persistent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(A), (B) and (D) Only
B
(A), (C) and (D) Only
C
(B), (C) and (D) Only
D
(A), (B) and (C) Only
Question 1239 Explanation: 
A) 1-persistent:
A station with a frame to transmit immediately listens to the channel.
If the channel is idle, the station transmits immediately.
If the channel is busy, the station continues to listen until the channel becomes idle, and then transmits immediately.
(B) 2-persistent:
A station with a frame to transmit listens to the channel.
If the channel is idle, the station transmits with a probability of 2/3.
If the channel is busy, the station waits for a random amount of time and then repeats the process.
(C) p-persistent:
A station with a frame to transmit listens to the channel.
If the channel is idle, the station transmits with a probability of p (where 0 < p < 1).
If the channel is busy, the station waits for a fixed amount of time and then repeats the process.
Question 1240
In the content of Alpha Beta pruning i in game trees which of the following statements are correct regarding cut off procedures
(A) Alpha Beta pruning can eliminate with certainly when the value of a node exceeds both the alpha and beta bonds.
(B) The primarily purpose of Alpha-pruning is to save computation time by searching fewer nodes in the same tree.
(C) Alpha Beta pruning the optimal solution in all cases by exploring the entire game tree.
(D) Alpha and Beta bonds are initialized to negative and positive infinity respectively at the root node.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(A), (C), (D) only
B
(B), (C), (D) only
C
(A), (B), (D) only
D
(C ), (B) only
Question 1240 Explanation: 
(A) Alpha Beta pruning can eliminate with certainty when the value of a node exceeds both the alpha and beta bounds.
This statement is correct. When the value of a node exceeds both the alpha and beta bounds, it means that the subtree rooted at that node does not need to be explored further because it cannot affect the final result due to pruning.
(B) The primary purpose of Alpha-Beta pruning is to save computation time by searching fewer nodes in the same tree.
This statement is correct. Alpha-Beta pruning aims to reduce the number of nodes evaluated during the search process, thus saving computational time by eliminating the need to explore certain branches of the game tree.
(C) Alpha Beta pruning finds the optimal solution in all cases by exploring the entire game tree.
This statement is incorrect. Alpha-Beta pruning does not guarantee finding the optimal solution in all cases. It may still miss the optimal solution if the optimal path is pruned early in the search. However, it does guarantee finding the optimal solution in certain cases, particularly in game trees with specific properties.
(D) Alpha and Beta bounds are initialized to negative and positive infinity, respectively, at the root node. This statement is correct. Typically, in Alpha-Beta pruning, the alpha and beta bounds are initialized to negative and positive infinity, respectively, at the root node before the search begins.
Question 1241
What is the output of the following program?
#include
# define SQR(x) (x*x)
int main () {
int a, b=3;
a = SQR(b+2);
printf("%d",a);
return 0;
}
A
25
B
11
C
Garbage value
D
24
Question 1241 Explanation: 
1) 3 + 2 * 3 + 2
2) Perform multiplication: 3 + (2 * 3) + 2
3) Perform multiplication: 3 + 6 + 2
4) Perform addition: 11
Question 1242
A
(A), (B) and (C) Only
B
(B) and (C) Only
C
(C) (D) and (E) Only
D
(C) and (E) Only
E
∀n∃m
Question 1242 Explanation: 
(A) ∀(n) ∃(m) (n^2 < m): This statement is false. It claims that for any integer n, there exists an integer m such that n^2 is less than m. However, this is not true for negative integers. For example, if n = -2, then n^2 = 4, and there is no integer m greater than 4.

(B) ∃(n) ∀(m) (n < m^2): This statement is also false. It claims that there exists an integer n such that for all integers m, n is less than m^2. However, this is not possible because for any integer n, there will always be an integer m such that m^2 is less than or equal to n.

(C) ∃(n) ∀(m) (nm = m): This statement is true. It claims that there exists an integer n such that for all integers m, the product of n and m is equal to m. This is true for the integer n = 1, as 1 multiplied by any integer m equals m.

(D) ∃(n) ∃(m) (n^2 + m^2 = 6): This statement is false. It claims that there exist integers n and m such that the sum of their squares is 6. However, the only way to get a sum of 6 from two squares is 1^2 + 1^2 = 2 or 2^2 + 2^2 = 8, neither of which equals 6.

(E) ∃(n) ∃(m) (n + m=4 AND n-m=1): This statement is true. It claims that there exist integers n and m such that their sum is 4 and their difference is 1. This is true for the integers n = 2.5 and m = 1.5, as 2.5 + 1.5 = 4 and 2.5 - 1.5 = 1.
Question 1243
2-3-4 trees are B-trees of order 4. They are isometric of _____ trees
A
AVL
B
AA
C
2-3
D
Red-Black
Question 1243 Explanation: 
2-3-4 trees and Red-Black trees are known to be isometric, meaning they can be transformed into each other while preserving their key properties and order. While both are balanced search trees, they achieve balance in different ways.
Question 1244
The statement P(x): “x=x^2” .If the universe of disclosure consists of integers, which of the following have truth values
(A) P(0)
(B) P(1)
(C) P(2)
(D) ∃x P(x)
(E) ∀x P(X)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A
(A), (B) and (E) Only
B
(A), (B) and (C) Only
C
(A), (B) and (D) Only
D
(B), (C) and (D) Only
Question 1244 Explanation: 
(A) P(0): True, because 0 = 0^2.
(B) P(1): True, because 1 = 1^2.
(C) P(2): False, because 2 ≠ 2^2.
(D) ∃x P(x): True, because there exists at least one integer x (namely, 0 and 1) for which P(x) is true. (E) ∀x P(x): False, because not all integers satisfy the condition x = x^2.
Therefore, only statements (A), (B), and (D) have truth values in the given universe of discourse, making the answer
Question 1245
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer the options given below :
A
(II),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(III)
B
(II),(B)-(III),(C)-(I),(D)-(IV)
C
(III),(B)-(II),(C)-(IV),(D)-(I)
D
(III),(B)-(IV),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
Question 1246
Which of the statement are CORRECT ?
(A) Constructors are invoked automatically when the objects are created.
(B) Constructors do not have return types, not even void and therefore they cannot return values.
(C) Constructors cannot be inherited through a derived class and can call the base class constructors.
(D) Constructors can be declared as virtual.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(A), (B) and (D) only
B
(A), (B) and (C) Only
C
(B), (C) and (D) Only
D
(A),(C) and (D) only
Question 1246 Explanation: 
(A) Constructors are invoked automatically when the objects are created.
True. This is the primary purpose of constructors: to initialize objects when they're created, ensuring they're in a valid state.
(B) Constructors do not have return types, not even void, and therefore they cannot return values.
True. Constructors are not designed to return values. Their role is to set up the object's initial state, not to produce output.
(C) Constructors cannot be inherited, though a derived class can call the base class constructors.
True. Constructors are not inherited like regular member functions. However, derived classes can explicitly call constructors from their base classes to ensure proper initialization of inherited members.
(D) Constructors can be declared as virtual.
False. Constructors cannot be virtual. Virtual functions enable dynamic dispatch at runtime, but constructors are invoked during object creation, before polymorphism comes into play.
Question 1247
Arrange the following phases of a compiler as per their order of execution (start to end)
(A) Target code generation
(B) Syntax Analysis
(C) Code optimization
(D) Semantic Analysis
(E) Lexical Analysis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
(B) (E) (D) (A), (C)
B
(E) (D) (B), (A), (C)
C
(E), (B), (D),(C), (A)
D
(B), (D), (E), (A), (C)
There are 1247 questions to complete.

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