Question 1

In the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm, the size of the congestion window

A
does not increase
B
increases linearly
C
increases quadratically
D
increases exponentially
Question 1 Explanation: 
In slow start phase, window size will grow exponentially, when the threshold is reached and congestion avoidance phase begins. In congestion avoidance phase, the window is increased linearly.
Question 2

Let A be a sequence of 8 distinct integers sorted in ascending order. How many distinct pairs of sequences, B and C are there such that (i) each is sorted in ascending order, (ii) B has 5 and C has 3 elements, and (iii) the result of merging B and C gives A?

A
2
B
30
C
56
D
256
Question 2 Explanation: 
A can have sequence of 8 distinct integers which are sorted in ascending order.
→ If we are pick 3 elements from 8 sequence integers then remaining 5 elements are already in ascending order. After merging these elements then it gives A.
→ No. of possibilities of choosing 8 elements from total of 8 = 8C3
= 8!/3!5!
= 8 * 7
= 56
Question 3

not in 2NF
B
in 2NF but not 3NF
C
in 3NF but not in 2NF
D
in both 2NF and 3NF
Question 3 Explanation: 
Since R1 ∩ R2 = ∅, so the decomposition is lossless join. Now since all the attributes are keys, so R1 ∩ R2 will be a key of the decomposed relation.
And since every attribute is key so the decomposed relation will be in BCNF and hence in 3NF.
Question 4

not in 2NF
B
in 2NF but not 3NF
C
in 3NF but not in 2NF
D
in both 2NF and 3NF
Question 4 Explanation: 
Since R1 ∩ R2 = ∅, so the decomposition is lossless join.
Now since all the attributes are keys, so R1 ∩ R2 will be a key of the decomposed relation.
And since every attribute is key so the decomposed relation will be in BCNF and hence in 3NF.
Question 5

P only
B
P and R only
C
R only
D
P, Q and S only
Question 5 Explanation: 
P) True. Because every edge in cycle graph will become a vertex in new graph L(G) and every vertex of cycle graph will become an edge in new graph.
R) False. We can give counter example. Let G has 5 vertices and 9 edges which is planar graph. Assume degree of one vertex is 2 and of all others are 4. Now, L(G) has 9 vertices (because G has 9 edges) and 25 edges. But for a graph to be planar,
|E| ≤ 3|v| - 6
For 9 vertices |E| ≤ 3 × 9 - 6
⇒ |E| ≤ 27 - 6
⇒ |E| ≤ 21. But L(G) has 25 edges and so is not planar.
As (R) is false, option (B) & (C) are eliminated.
Question 6

Which one of the following is NOT logically equivalent to ¬∃x(∀y(α) ∧ ∀z(β))?

A
∀x(∃z(¬β)→∀y(α))
B
∀x(∀z(β)→∃y(¬α))
C
∀x(∀y(α)→∃z(¬β))
D
∀x(∃y(¬α)→∃z(¬β))
Question 6 Explanation: 
Option A:
∀x(∃z(¬β) → ∀y(α))
⇒ ∀x(¬∃z(¬β) ∨ ∀y(α))
⇒ ∀x(∀z(β)∨y(α))
⇒ ¬∃x¬(∀z(β)∨∀y(α))
⇒ ¬∃x(¬∀z(β)∧¬∀y(α))
A is Not equivalent to the given.
Option B:
∀x(∀z(β)→∃y(¬α))
⇒ ∀x(¬∀z(β)∨∃y(¬α))
⇒ ¬∃x¬(¬∀z(β)∨∃y(¬α))
⇒ ¬∃x(∀z(β)∨∀y(α))
B is Matching and equivalent to given.
Option C:
∀x(∀y(α)→∃z(¬β))
⇒ ∀x(¬∀y(α)∨∃z(¬β))
⇒ ¬∃x¬(¬∀y(α)∨∃z(¬β))
⇒ ¬∃x(∀y(α)∧z(β))
C is equivalent to the given.
Option D:
∀x(∃y(¬α)→∃z(¬β))
⇒ ∀x(¬∃y(¬α)∨∃z(β))
⇒ ∀x(∀y(α)∨∃z(β))
⇒ ¬∃x¬(∀y(α)∨∃z(β))
⇒ ¬∃x(¬∀y(α)∧¬∃z(β))
⇒ ¬∃x(¬∀y(α)∧∀z(¬β))
So D is Not equivalent to the given.
Question 7

A D flip-flop is to be connected to an 8085 microprocessor chip as a 1-bit output port with a port address of FF hex. Data bit D3 should be involved in the data transfer from CPU to the flip-flop. The flip-flop should be cleared on power ON.
(a) Using only one NAND gate (fan in of 10), one NOT gate and one D flip-flop. Draw the required interface logic circuit (only the relevant signals should be shown).
(b) Write a program to generate a square wave on the output of the flip-flop. ON and OFF periods of the square wave should be 7 bus cycles each.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 8

Consider the following program in Pseudo-Pascal syntax.

program what:
      var z: integer
       procedure recur(x):
       begin if x <= 40 then
                  begin x:x+z
                     recur(x);
                     z:=x+10
                  end
       end(*recur*)
   begin(*what*)
       z=10;
       recur(z);
       writeln(z)
   end 

(a) Suppose the parameter to the procedure ‘recur’ is passed by value.
i. What value is printed by program?
ii. How many times is ‘recur’ called?
(b) What value is printed by the program if the parameter is passed by reference?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 9

Consider the grammar

   S → bSe
   S → PQR
   P → bPc
   P → ε
   Q → cQd
   Q → ε
   R → dRe
   R → ε  

where S,P,Q,R are non-terminal symbols with S being the start symbol; b,c,d,e are terminal symbols and ‘ε’ is the empty string. This grammar generates strings of the form bi, cj, dk, em for some i,j,k,m ≥ 0.
(a) What is the condition on the values of i,j,k,m?
(b) Find the smallest string that has two parse trees.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 10

Let G = (V, E) be an undirected graph with a subgraph G1 = (V1, E1). Weights are assigned to edges of G as follows:

A single-source shortest path algorithm is executed on the weighted graph (V,E,w) with an arbitrary vertex ν1 of V1 as the source. Which of the following can always be inferred from the path costs computed?

A
The number of edges in the shortest paths from v1 to all vertices of G
B
G1 is connected
C
V1 forms a clique in G
D
G1 is a tree
Question 10 Explanation: 
Calculate the minimum weight of the graph by using single source shortest path, if the weight of the graph is 0 then G is Connected, then that is the shortest path. In case the weight of the graph is not 0 then the graph G is disconnected.
Question 11

Let L = {a1, a2, ......, an} n ≥ 0 be a list whose Pascal representation is

                  type list = record
                     next: ↑ list; val: integer end  

The following function returns a list in which a2i and a2i-1, 1 ≤ i ≤ [n/2] are interchanged. Complete the function by filling the boxes. Write the line number and the content of the box in your answer sheet.

1. function change (p: ↑ list): ↑ list;
2. var q.t: ↑ list;
3. begin 
4. if p = nil then change := p
5. else if p ↑ next = nil then change : ▭
6. else begin
7. q : p ↑ next;
8. ▭ := q;
9. t : q ↑ next;
10. ▭ := p;
11. ▭ := change(t)
12. end
13. end 
A
Theory Explanation.
Question 12

Consider a graph whose vertices are points in the plane with integer co-ordinates (x,y) such that 1≤x≤n and 1≤y≤n, where n≥2 is an integer. Two vertices (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) are adjacent iff ∣x1−x2∣ ≤ 1 and ∣y1–y2∣ ≤1. The weight of an edge {(x1,y1),(x2,y2)} is √(x1–x2)2 + (y1–y2)2
(a) What is the weight of a minimum weight-spanning tree in this graph? Write only the answer without any explanations.
(b) What is the weight of a maximum weight-spanning tree in this graph? Write only the answer without any explanations.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 13

Consider a hash table with n buckets, where external (overflow) chaining is used to resolve collisions. The hash function is such that the probability that a key value is hashed to a particular bucket is 1/n. The hash table is initially empty and K distinct values are inserted in the table.

(a) What is the probability that bucket number 1 is empty after the Kth insertion?
(b) What is the probability that no collision has occurred in any of the K insertions?
(c) What is the probability that the first collision occurs at the Kth insertions?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 14

Let F be the set of one-to-one functions from the set {1,2,…,n} to the set {1,2,…,m}, where m≥n≥1.
(a) How many functions are members of F?
(b) How many functions f in F satisfy the property f(i) = 1 for some i, 1≤i≤n?
(c) How many functions f in F satisfy the property f(i) < f(j) for all 1≤i≤j≤n?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 15

Let R be a reflexive and transitive relation on a set A. Define a new relation E on A as

 E = {(a,b) ∣ (a,b)∈R and (b,a)∈R} 

(a) Prove that E is an equivalence relation on A.
(b) Define a reason ≤ on the equivalence classes of E as E1 ≤ E2 if ∃a,b such that a∈E1, b∈E2 and (a,b)∈R. Prove that ≤ is a partial order.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 16

Consider the following function.

Function F (n, m: integer): integer;
begin
       If (n <= 0) or (m <= 0) then F:=1
       else
            F:= F(n-1, m) + F(n, m-1);
       end;

Use the recurrence relation to answer the following question. Assume that n, m are positive integers. Write only the answers without any explanation.
(a) What is the value of F(n,2)?
(b) What is the value of (n,m)?
(c) How many recursive calls are made to the function F, including the original call, when evaluating F(n,m).

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 17

A size-balanced binary tree is a binary tree in which for every node, the difference between the number of nodes in the left and right subtree is at most 1. The distance of a node from the root is the length of the path from the root to the node. The height of a binary tree is the maximum distance of a leaf node from the root.
(a) Prove, by using induction on h, that a size-balance binary tree of height h contains at least 2h nodes.
(b) In a size-balanced binary tree of height h≤1, how many nodes are at distance h−1 from the root? Write only the answer without any explanations.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 18

Construct a finite state machine with minimum number of states, accepting all strings over {a,b} such that the number of a's is divisible by two and the number of b's is divisible by three.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 19

Given that L is a language accepted by a finite state machine, show that LP and LR are also accepted by some finite state machines, where
LP = {s|ss' ∈ L, for some string s'}
LR = {s|s obtainable by reversing some string in L}

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 20

A language L is a subset of Pascal with the following constructs:

    (a) Expressions involving the operators '+' and '<' only
    (b) Assignment statements
    (c) 'while' statements and
    (d) Compound statements with the syntax 'begin...end'
    Give an unambiguous grammar for L.
A
Theory Explanation.
Question 21

Following is a state table for some finite state machine.

(a) Find the equivalence partition on the states of the machine.
(b) Give the state table for the minimal machine. (Use appropriate names for the equivalent states. For example if states X and Y are equivalent then use XY as the name for the equivalent state in the minimal machine.)

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 22

Let f = (w'+y)(x'+y)(w+x'+z)(w'+z)(x'+z)
(a) Express f as the minimal sum of products. Write only the answer.
(b) If the output line is stuck at 0, for how many input combinations will the value of f be incorrect?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 23

An array A contains n≥1 positive integers in the locations A[1], A[2],... A[n]. The following program fragment prints the length of a shortest sequence of consecutive elements of A, A[i], A[i+1],...A[j] such that the sum of their values is ≥M, a given positive number. It prints ‘n+1’ if no such sequence exists. Complete the program by filling in the boxes. In each case use the simplest possible expression. Write only the line number and the contents of the box.

1. begin
2. i: +1; j:=1;
3. Sum := ▭;
4. min: n; finish:=false;
5. While not finish do
6. If ▭ then
7. if j=n then finish:=true.
8.     else
9. begin
10.    j:=j+1;
11.    sum:=▭
12.        end
13. else
14. begin
15.        If(j-1) < min then min:=j-1;
16.        sum:=sum - A[i];
17.        i:=i+1;
18. end
19. writeln (min+1);
20. end.   
A
Theory Explanation.
Question 24

Consider the following piece of 'C' code fragment that removes duplicates from an ordered list of integers.

Node  *remove-duplicates(Node *head, int *j)
{
    Node *t1, *t2;
    *j=0;
    t1 = head;
    if (t1! = NULL) t2 = t1 →next;
    else return head;
    *j = 1;
    if(t2 == NULL) return head;
    while t2 != NULL)
    {
        if (t1.val != t2.val) --------------------------→ (S1)
        {
            (*j)++; t1 → next = t2; t1 = t2: ----------→ (S2)
        }
        t2 = t2 → next;
    }
    t1 → next = NULL;
    return head;
} 

Assume the list contains n elements (n≥2) in the following questions.
(a) How many times is the comparison in statement S1 made?
(b) What is the minimum and the maximum number of times statements marked S2 get executed?
(c) What is the significance of the value in the integer pointed to by j when the function completes?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 25

A B+ - tree of order d is a tree in which each internal node has between d and 2d key values. An internal node with M key values has M+1 children. The root (if it is an internal node) has between 1 and 2d key values. The distance of a node from the root is the length of the path from the root to the node. All leaves are at the same distance from the root. The height of the tree is the distance of a leaf from the root.
(a) What is the total number of key values in the internal nodes of a B+ - tree with l leaves (l≥2)?
(b) What is the maximum number of internal nodes in a B+ - tree of order 4 with 52 leaves?
(c) What is the minimum number of leaves in a B+ - tree of order d and height h(h≥1)?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 26

The language L, defined by the following grammar allows use of real or integer data in expressions and assignment statements.

    (assign-stmt):: = (LHS):= (E)
             (E) :: = (E) + (T)|(T)
             (T) :: = (T) * (V)|(V)
             (V) :: = id|((E))
           (LHS) :: = id 

It is required to convert expression and assignment strings of L into postfix strings that use the type-specific operators (+, i), (+, r), (*, i), (*, r), (:=, i) and (:=,r).
Write a syntax directed translation scheme to convert expression and assignment strings into the post-fix form. You may assume that the name and type of a variable can be obtained by making the function calls 'give-type (id)' and 'give-name (id)' respectively.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 27

Consider the following program fragment in Pascal:

   Program Main;
      var X : integer;
      procedure A:
         var Y : integer;
         procedure B:
            var Z : integer;
            procedure C:
               var Z : integer;
               begin(* Procedure C *)
               :
               end(* Procedure C *)
 begin(*Procedure B*)
    :
  C; (* call to C *)
  A; (* call to A *)
    :
 end(*Procedure B*)
     begin(* Procedure A *)
        :
        B; (* call to B *)
        :
     end(* Procedure A *)
  begin (* Main *)
        :
        A; (* call to A *)
        :
  end(* Main *) 

Assume that there are no calls to any procedures other than the ones indicated above. It is known that at some point of time during the execution of this program five activation records exist on the run-time stack. Describe the run-time stack at this point of time by clearly indicating the following: the top of the stack, the contents of the static link and dynamic link, and allocation of the local variables in each record.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 28

Following floating point number format is given
f is a fraction represented by a 6-bit mantissa (includes sign bit) in sign magnitude form e is a 4-bit exponent (includes sign hit) in sign magnitude form n = (f,e) = f, 2e is a floating point number.
Let A = 54.75 in decimal and
B = 9.75 in decimal.

(a) Represent A and B as floating point numbers in the above format.
(b) Show the steps involved in floating point addition of A and B.
(c) What is the percentage error (upto one position beyond decimal point) in the addition operation in (b)?

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 29

For merging two sorted lists of sizes m and n into a sorted list of size m+n, we required comparisons of

A
O(m)
B
O(n)
C
O(m+n)
D
O(logm+logn)
Question 29 Explanation: 
In best case, no. of comparisons is Min(m,n).
In worst case, no. of comparisons is m+n-1.
Then we require O(m+n) comparisons to merging two sorted lists.
Question 30

A binary tree T has n leaf nodes. The number of nodes of degree 2 in T is:

A
log2 n
B
n - 1
C
n
D
2n
Question 30 Explanation: 
A binary tree is a tree data structure in which each node has atmost two child nodes.
The no. of subtrees of a node is called the degree of the node. In a binary tree, all nodes have degree 0, 1 and 2.
The degree of a tree is the maximum degree of a node in the tree. A binary tree is of degree 2.
The number of nodes of degree 2 in T is "n - 1".
Question 31

The root directory of a disk should be placed

A
at a fixed address in main memory
B
at a fixed location on the disk
C
anywhere on the disk
D
at a fixed location on the system disk
E
anywhere on the system disk
Question 31 Explanation: 
Root directory can points to the various user directories. Then they will be stored in a way that user can't be easily modify them. Then they should be at fixed location on the disk.
Question 32

Find if the following statements in the context of software testing are TRUE or FALSE.
(S1) Statement coverage cannot guarantee execution of loops in a program under test.
(S2) Use of independent path testing criterion guarantees execution of each loop in a program under test more than once.

A
True, True
B
True, False
C
False, True
D
False, False
Question 32 Explanation: 
Note: Out of syllabus.
Question 33

Which of the following requirement specifications can be validated?

    (S1) If the system fails during any operation, there should not be any loss of data
    (S2) The system must provide reasonable performance even under maximum load conditions
    (S3) The software executable must be deployable under MS Windows 95, 2000 and XP
    (S4) User interface windows must fit on a standard monitor's screen
A
S4 and S3
B
S4 and S2
C
S3 and S1
D
S2 and S1
Question 33 Explanation: 
Note: Out of syllabus.
Question 34

A concurrent system consists of 3 processes using a shared resource R in a non-preemptible and mutually exclusive manner. The processes have unique priorities in the range 1.....3, 3 being the highest priority. It is required to synchronize the processes such that the resource is always allocated to the highest priority requester. The pseudo code for the system is as follows.

Shared Data 
mutex:semaphore = 1:/* initialized to 1*/
process[3]:semaphore = 0; /*all initialized to 0 */
R_requested [3]:boolean = false; /*all initialized to false */
busy: boolean = false; /*initialized to false */
Code for processes
begin process
my-priority:integer;
my-priority:=____; /*in the range 1...3*/
repeat
    request_R(my-priority);
    P (proceed [my-priority]);
    {use shared resource R}
    release_R (my-priority);
forever
end process;
Procedures
procedure request_R(priority);
P(mutex);
if busy = true then
    R_requested [priority]:=true;
else
 begin
    V(proceed [priority]);
    busy:=true;
 end
V(mutex); 

Give the pseudo code for the procedure release_R.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 35

A program P reads and processes 1000 consecutive records from a sequential file F stored on device D without using any file system facilities. Given the following

   Size of each record = 3200 bytes
   Access time of D = 10 msecs
   Data transfer rate of D = 800 × 103 bytes/second
   CPU time to process each record = 3 msecs 

What is the elapsed time of P if
(a) F contains unblocked records and P does not use buffering?
(b) F contains unblocked records and P uses one buffer (i.e., it always reads ahead into the buffer)?
(c) records of F are organized using a blocking factor of 2 (i.e., each block on D contains two records of F) and P uses one buffer?

You may assume that the CPU time needed to transfer a record from a buffer to a local variable of P is negligible.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 36

An operating system handles requests to resources as follows.

A process (which asks for some resources, uses them for some time and then exits the system) is assigned a unique timestamp are when it starts. The timestamps are monotonically increasing with time. Let us denote the timestamp of a process P by TS(P).

When a process P requests for a resource the OS does the following:
(i) If no other process is currently holding the resource, the OS awards the resource to P.
(ii) If some process Q with TS(Q) < TS(P) is holding the resource, the OS makes P wait for the resources.
(iii) If some process Q with TS(Q) > TS(P) is holding the resource, the OS restarts Q and awards the resources to P.
(Restarting means taking back the resources held by a process, killing it and starting it again with the same timestamp)

When a process releases a resource, the process with the smallest timestamp (if any) amongst those waiting for the resource is awarded the resource.
(a) Can a deadlock ever arise? If yes, show how. If not, prove it.
(b) Can a process P ever starve? If yes, show how. If not, prove it.

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 37

Consider the following relational database schema:

     EMP (eno name, age)
     PROJ (pno name)
     INVOLVED (eno, pno) 

EMP contains information about employees. PROJ about projects and INVOLVED about which employees involved in which projects. The underlined attributes are the primary keys for the respective relations.

(a) What is the relational algebra expression containing one or more of {σ,π,x,u,−} which is equivalent to SQL query.

select eno
from EMP, INVOLVED 
where EMP.eno=INVOLVED.eno  
and INVOLVED.pno=3 

(b) State in English (in not more than 15 words).

What the following relational algebra expressions are designed to determine
(i) πeno(INVOLVED) − πeno((πeno(INVOLVED) X πpno(PROJ))−INVOLVED)
(ii) πage(EMP) − πEageE(EMP) x EMP))

(Note: ρE(EMP) conceptually makes a copy of EMP and names it K (ρ is called the rename operator))

A
Theory Explanation.
Question 38

Given the following algorithm for sorting an array X of N numbers:

SUBROUTINE SORT(X,N)
   IF(N < 2)
       RETURN
   FOR(i=2 TO N INCREMENT BY 1)
     FOR(j=1 TO i INCREMENT BY 1) 
        IF (X[i] > X[j])
             CONTINUE
        TEMP X[i]
        X[i] = X[j]
        X[j] = TEMP
        END FOR
     END FOR
   END SUBROUTINE 

A good approximation of Halstead's estimated program length is

A
20
B
50
C
80
D
110
Question 39
If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [sick → infirm → moribund] is analogous to [silly → _______ → daft].<br> Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?  
A
frown
B
fawn
C
vein
D
vain
Question 39 Explanation: 
Sick → infirm → moribund: This sequence represents increasing severity of illness, with "sick" being the mildest and "moribund" being the most severe, close to death.
Silly → vain → daft: Similar to the first sequence, "silly" is the mildest form in this sequence, indicating a lack of good sense or judgment. "Vain" represents a more intense level of foolishness, often associated with excessive pride or self-importance in a way that is lacking in substance or value. Finally, "daft" is the most extreme, implying significant foolishness or even absurdity.
Therefore, "vain" best maintains the logical relationship within the second analogy as "infirm" does within the first analogy. The other options don't follow the same pattern of increasing intensity:
Question 40
The 15 parts of the given figure are to be painted such that no two adjacent parts with shared boundaries (excluding corners) have the same color. The minimum number of colors required is
A
4
B
3
C
5
D
6
Question 41
How many 4-digit positive integers divisible by 3 can be formed using only the digits {1,3,4,6,7}, such that no digit appears more than once in a number?
A
24
B
48
C
72
D
12
Question 42
The sum of the following infinite series is
A
11/3
B
7/2
C
13/4
D
9/2
Question 43
In an election, the share of valid votes received by the four candidates A, B, C, and D is represented by the pie chart shown. The total number of votes cast in the election were 1,15,000, out of which 5,000 were invalid.

Based on the data provided, the total number of valid votes received by the candidates B and C is
A
45000
B
49500
C
51750
D
54000
Question 44
Thousands of years ago, some people began dairy farming. This coincided with a number of mutations in a particular gene that resulted in these people developing the ability to digest dairy milk.
Based on the given passage, which of the following can be inferred?
A
All human beings can digest dairy milk.
B
No human being can digest dairy milk.
C
Digestion of dairy milk is essential for human beings.
D
In human beings, digestion of dairy milk resulted from a mutated gene.
Question 45
The probability of a boy or a girl being born is 1/2. For a family having only three children, what is the probability of having two girls and one boy?
A
3/8
B
1/8
C
1/4
D
1/2
Question 45 Explanation: 
There are 8 possible combinations with three children BBB, BBG, BGB, BGG, GBB, GBG, GGB, GGG.
In these possible results, there are three that give you exactly two girls and one boy .
Question 46
Person 1 and Person 2 invest in three mutual funds A, B, and C. The amounts they invest in each of these mutual funds are given in the table.

At the end of one year, the total amount that Person 1 gets is ₹500 more than Person 2. The annual rate of return for the mutual funds B and C is 15% each. What is the annual rate of return for the mutual fund A?
A
7.5%
B
10%
C
15%
D
20%
Question 47
Three different views of a dice are shown in the figure below.

The piece of paper that can be folded to make this dice is
A
A
B
B
C
CD
Question 48
Visualize two identical right circular cones such that one is inverted over the other and they share a common circular base. If a cutting plane passes through the vertices of the assembled cones, what shape does the outer boundary of the resulting cross-section make?
A
A rhombus
B
A triangle
C
An ellipse
D
A hexagon
Question 49
Consider the following statements:
(i) The mean and variance of a Poisson random variable are equal.
(ii) For a standard normal random variable, the mean is zero and the variance is one.
Which ONE of the following options is correct?
A
Both (i) and (ii) are true
B
(i) is true and (ii) is false
C
(ii) is true and (i) is false
D
Both (i) and (ii) are false
Question 49 Explanation: 
Statement (i): In a Poisson distribution, the mean and variance are indeed equal. This is represented by the formula: λ (lambda), where λ is the parameter of the Poisson distribution representing the average number of occurrences within a specific time interval or region. Statement (ii): A standard normal distribution is a specific type of normal distribution with a mean of 0 (zero) and a variance of 1 (one). Therefore, both statements (i) and (ii) are true descriptions of their respective probability distributions.
Question 50
Three fair coins are tossed independently. T is the event that two or more tosses result in heads. S is the event that two or more tosses result in tails. What is the probability of the event T ^  S ?
A
0
B
0.5
C
0.25
D
1
Question 50 Explanation: 
Events T and S are mutually exclusive: Event T represents getting two or more heads, which means there can be either exactly two heads (HHX or XHH) or all three heads (HHH) (where X represents a tail). Event S represents getting two or more tails, which means there can be either exactly two tails (XXH or XTX) or all three tails (TTT). No overlap in outcomes: It is impossible to have both two or more heads and two or more tails in the same outcome. You cannot have both two heads and two tails simultaneously in any single coin toss scenario. Therefore, since events T and S are mutually exclusive (they cannot occur together), the probability of their intersection (T ∩ S) is 0.
Question 51
Consider the matrix M =  [2,   -1 , 3    1 ]. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
A
The eigenvalues of M are non-negative and real.
B
The eigenvalues of M are complex conjugate pairs.
C
One eigenvalue of M is positive and real, and another eigenvalue of M is zero.
D
One eigenvalue of M is non-negative and real, and another eigenvalue of M is negative and real.
Question 52
Consider performing depth-first search (DFS) on an undirected and unweighted graph G starting at vertex s. For any vertex u in G,d[u]  is the length of the shortest path from s to u. Let (u,v) be an edge in G such that d[u]< d[v]. If the edge (u,v) is explored first in the direction from u to v during the above DFS, then (u,v)  becomes a ______ edge.
A
tree
B
cross
C
back
D
gray
Question 53
If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words  [dry → arid → parched] is analogous to [diet → fast → ________ ].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?
A
starve
B
reject
C
feast
D
Deny
Question 54
If two distinct non-zero real variables x and y are such that (x + y) is proportional  to (x — y) then the value of  x / y is    
A
depends on xy
B
depends only on x and not on y
C
depends only on y and not on x
D
is a constant
Question 55
Consider the following sample of numbers:
9, 18, 11, 14, 15, 17, 10, 69, 11, 13
The median of the sample is
A
13.5
B
14
C
11
D
18.7
Question 56
The number of coins of  Rs 1 , Rs 5 and Rs 10 denominations that a person has are in the ratio 5:3:13. Of the total amount, the percentage of money in Rs 5 coins is  
A
21%
B
14(2/7)%
C
10%
D
30%
Question 57
For positive non-zero real variables p and q, if  log(p2+q2)=log p+log q+2log3, then the value of (p4+q4)/p2q2 is
A
79
B
81
C
9
D
83
Question 58
In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)—(iv).
Select the best match for all the blanks.
Steve was advised to keep his head____(i)before heading___(ii)to bat; for, while he had a head___(ii)batting, he could only do so with a cool head______(iv) his shoulders.
A
(i) down (ii) down (iii) on (iv) for
B
(i) on (ii) down (iii) for (iv) on
C
(i) down (ii) out (iii) for (iv) on
D
(i) on (ii) out (iii) on (iv) for
Question 59
A rectangular paper sheet of dimensions 54 cm x 4 cm is taken. The two longer edges of the sheet are joined together to create a cylindrical tube. A cube whose surface area is equal to the area of the sheet is also taken. Then, the ratio of the volume of the cylindrical tube to the volume of the cube is
A
1 / π
B
2 / π
C
3 / π
D
4 / π
Question 60
The pie chart presents the percentage contribution of different macro nutrients to a typical 2,000 kcal diet of a person.

The total fat (all three types), in grams, this person consumes is
A
44.4
B
77.8
C
100
D
3,600
Question 61
A rectangular paper of 20 cm × 8 cm is folded 3 times. Each fold is made along the line of symmetry, which is perpendicular to its long edge. The perimeter of the final folded sheet (in cm) is
A
18
B
24
C
20
D
21
Question 62
The least number of squares to be added in the figure to make AB a line of symmetry is
A
6
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63
Q11
A
{−1, 1, 2}
B
{−2, −1, 1}
C
{0, 1}
D
{−1, 0, 1}
Question 64
Q12
A
−1
B
0
C
1
D
2
Question 65
Consider a system that uses 5 bits for representing signed integers in 2's complement format. In this system, two integers A and B are represented as A=01010 and B=11010. Which one of the following operations will result in either an arithmetic overflow or an arithmetic underflow?
A
A+B
B
A-B
C
B-A
D
2*B
Question 66
Consider a permutation sampled uniformly at random from the set of all permutations of {1, 2, 3, ⋯ , n} for some n ≥ 4. Let X be the event that 1 occurs before 2 in the permutation, and Y the event that 3 occurs before 4. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A
The events X and Y are mutually exclusive
B
The events X and Y are independent
C
Either event X or Y must occur
D
Event X is more likely than event Y
Question 67
Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
A
In the cycle stealing mode of DMA, one word of data is transferred between an I/O device and main memory in a stolen cycle
B
For bulk data transfer, the burst mode of DMA has a higher throughput than the cycle stealing mode
C
Programmed I/O mechanism has a better CPU utilization than the interrupt driven I/O mechanism
D
The CPU can start executing an interrupt service routine faster with vectored interrupts than with non-vectored interrupts
Question 68
A user starts browsing a webpage hosted at a remote server. The browser opens a single TCP connection to fetch the entire webpage from the server. The webpage consists of a top-level index page with multiple embedded image objects. Assume that all caches (e.g., DNS cache, browser cache) are all initially empty. The following packets leave the user’s computer in some order.
(i)    HTTP GET request for the index page
(ii)    DNS request to resolve the web server’s name to its IP address
(iii)    HTTP GET request for an image object
(iv)    TCP SYN to open a connection to the web server
Which one of the following is the CORRECT chronological order (earliest in time to latest) of the packets leaving the computer ?
A
(iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
B
(ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
C
(ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
D
(iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
Question 69
Given an integer array of size N, we want to check if the array is sorted (in either ascending or descending order). An algorithm solves this problem by making a single pass through the array and comparing each element of the array only with its adjacent elements. The worst-case time complexity of this algorithm is
A
both Ο(N) and Ω(N)
B
Ο(N) but not Ω(N)
C
Ω(N) but not Ο(N)
D
neither Ο(N) nor Ω(N)
Question 70
Consider the following C program: #include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
while(a < 10)
{
a = a / 12 + 1; a += b;
}
printf("%d", a);
return 0;
}
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
A
The program prints 9 as output
B
The program prints 10 as output
C
The program gets stuck in an infinite loop
D
The program prints 6 as output
Question 71
Consider the following C program:

Assume that the input to the program from the command line is 1234 followed by a newline character. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
A
The program will not terminate
B
The program will terminate with no output
C
The program will terminate with 4321 as output
D
The program will terminate with 1234 as output
Question 72
Let S be the specification: "Instructors teach courses. Students register for courses. Courses are allocated classrooms. Instructors guide students." Which one of the following ER diagrams CORRECTLY represents S?
A
(i)
B
(ii)
C
(iii)
D
(iv)
Question 73
In a B+ tree, the requirement of at least half-full (50%) node occupancy is relaxed for which one of the following cases?
A
Only the root node
B
All leaf nodes
C
All internal nodes
D
Only the leftmost leaf node
Question 73 Explanation: 
In many B+ tree implementations, the root node is allowed to have less than half of its slots occupied, as it can be merged with other nodes if necessary.
Question 74
Which of the following statements about a relation R in first normal form (1NF) is/are TRUE ?
A
R can have a multi-attribute key
B
R cannot have a foreign key
C
R cannot have a composite attribute
D
R cannot have more than one candidate key
Question 74 Explanation: 
Multi-attribute Key: This refers to a key in a relation (table) that consists of more than one attribute (column). In other words, it's a combination of attributes that uniquely identifies each tuple (row) in the relation. For example, if you have a table of employees and you use both "Employee ID" and "Department ID" together as the key, it would be a multi-attribute key because it involves more than one attribute. Composite Attribute: This refers to an attribute in a relation that is composed of multiple sub-attributes. It's essentially a single attribute that represents a grouping of related information. For instance, if you have an "Address" attribute in a table that includes sub-attributes like "Street", "City", "State", and "Zip Code", then "Address" is a composite attribute because it contains multiple components.
Question 75
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Question 76
Which of the following statements about threads is/are TRUE?    
A
Threads can only be implemented in kernel space
B
Each thread has its own file descriptor table for open files
C
All the threads belonging to a process share a common stack
D
Threads belonging to a process are by default not protected from each other
Question 76 Explanation: 
By default, threads within the same process share the same memory space and have access to each other's data. This lack of protection means that one thread can inadvertently overwrite or interfere with data being used by another thread within the same process.
Question 77
Which of the following process state transitions is/are NOT possible?
A
Running to Ready
B
Waiting to Running
C
Ready to Waiting
D
Running to Terminated
Question 78
Which of the following is/are Bottom-Up Parser(s)?
A
Shift-reduce Parser
B
Predictive Parser
C
LL(1) Parser
D
LR Parser
Question 78 Explanation: 
Bottom-Up parsers construct parse trees for input strings starting from the leaves (tokens) and working up to the root of the parse tree. Let's analyze each option: (A) Shift-reduce Parser: Shift-reduce parsing is a type of bottom-up parsing. It starts with the input string and tries to reduce it to the start symbol of the grammar by repeatedly applying grammar rules or shifting tokens onto the parsing stack until a reduction is possible. Therefore, this is a bottom-up parser. (B) Predictive Parser: Predictive parsing is a type of top-down parsing where the parser predicts which production rule to apply based on the current input symbol and a look-ahead symbol. Therefore, this is not a bottom-up parser. (C) LL(1) Parser: LL(1) parsing is a type of top-down parsing. It uses a left-to-right scan of the input, a leftmost derivation, and one-symbol lookahead. Therefore, this is not a bottom-up parser. (D) LR Parser: LR parsing is a type of bottom-up parsing. It constructs a rightmost derivation in reverse, starting from the leaves (tokens) and working up to the start symbol of the grammar. Therefore, this is a bottom-up parser. So, the bottom-up parser(s) among the given options are: Shift-reduce Parser and LR Parser
Question 79
Let A and B be two events in a probability space with P(A)=0.3,P(B)=0.5, and P(A∩B)=0.1. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A
The two events A and B are independent
B
P(A U B)=0.7
C
P(A∩Bc)=0.2, where Bc is the complement of the event B
D
P(Ac∩Bc)=0.4, where Ac and Bc are the complements of the events A and B, respectively
Question 80
Consider the circuit shown below where the gates may have propagation delays. Assume that all signal transitions occur instantaneously and that wires have no delays.
Which of the following statements about the circuit is/are CORRECT?
A
With no propagation delays, the output Y is always logic Zero
B
With no propagation delays, the output Y is always logic One
C
With propagation delays, the output Y can have a transient logic One after X transitions from logic Zero to logic One
D
With propagation delays, the output Y can have a transient logic Zero after X transitions from logic One to logic Zero
Question 81
TCP client P successfully establishes a connection to TCP server Q. Let NP denote the sequence number in the SYN sent from P to Q. Let NQ denote the acknowledgement number in the SYN ACK from Q to P. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
A
The sequence number NP is chosen randomly by P
B
The sequence number NP is always 0 for a new connection
C
The acknowledgement number NQ is equal to NP
D
The acknowledgement number NQ is equal to NP + 1
Question 82
Consider a 5-stage pipelined processor with Instruction Fetch (IF), Instruction Decode (ID), Execute (EX), Memory Access (MEM), and Register Writeback (WB) stages. Which of the following statements about forwarding is/are CORRECT?
A
In a pipelined execution, forwarding means the result from a source stage of an earlier instruction is passed on to the destination stage of a later instruction
B
In forwarding, data from the output of the MEM stage can be passed on to the input of the EX stage of the next instruction
C
Forwarding cannot prevent all pipeline stalls
D
Forwarding does not require any extra hardware to retrieve the data from the pipeline stages
Question 83
The number of spanning trees in a complete graph of 4 vertices labelled A, B, C, and D is _________
A
16
Question 83 Explanation: 
Number of spanning trees in a complete graph of n vertices are n(n-2) =4(4-2) =16
Question 84
Consider the following syntax-directed definition (SDD).

Given "MMLK" as the input, which one of the following options is the CORRECT value computed by the SDD (in the attribute S.val )?
A
45
B
50
C
55
D
65
Question 85
Consider the following grammar G, with S as the start symbol. The grammar G has three incomplete productions denoted by (1), (2), and (3).

Which one of the following options CORRECTLY fills in the incomplete productions?.
A
(1) S → Rf (2) T —> Ε (3) R → cTR
B
(1) S →fR (2) T —> Ε (3)R → cTR
C
(1) S →fR (2) T→cT (3) R→ cR
D
(1) S → Rf (2) T→cT (3) R→ cR
Question 86
Consider the following pseudo-code.
L1:t1=-1
L2:t2=0
L3:t3=0
L4:t4=4*t3
L5:t5=4*t2
L6:t6=t5*M
L7:t7=t4+t6
L8:t8=a[t7]
L9:if t8 <= max goto L11
L10:t1=t8
L11:t3=t3+1
L12: if t3 < M goto L4
L13:t2=t2+1
L14: if t2 < N goto L3
L15: max=t1
Which one of the following options CORRECTLY specifies the number of basic blocks and the number of instructions in the largest basic block, respectively ?
A
6 and 6
B
6 and 7
C
7 and 7
D
7 and 6
Question 87
Which of the following fields is/are modified in the IP header of a packet going out of a network address translation (NAT) device from an internal network to an external network?
A
Source IP
B
Destination IP
C
Header Checksum
D
Total Length
Question 87 Explanation: 
When a packet passes through a Network Address Translation (NAT) device from an internal network to an external network, the NAT device modifies the following fields in the IP header: Source IP: The NAT device replaces the source IP address in the IP header with its own external IP address. This allows devices on the external network to send responses back to the NAT device, which can then forward them to the appropriate internal device. Header Checksum: The header checksum is typically recalculated by the NAT device to ensure that it reflects any changes made to the IP header, such as the modification of the source IP address.
Question 88
Let A and B be non-empty finite sets such that there exist one-to-one and onto functions (i) from A to B and (ii) from AXA to AUB. The number of possible values of |A|is __________
A
2
Question 88 Explanation: 
Given: (i) There exists a one-to-one and onto (bijective) function from set A to set B. (ii) There exists a one-to-one and onto function from the Cartesian product of A with itself (AXA) to the union of A and B (AUB). For part (i), if there is a bijective function from set A to set B, it means that |A| = |B|, i.e., the cardinality of set A is equal to the cardinality of set B. For part (ii), if there is a one-to-one and onto function from AXA to AUB, it means that the cardinality of AXA is equal to the cardinality of AUB. Since we know that |A| = |B| from part (i), the cardinality of AXA is |A| × |A| = |A|2, and the cardinality of AUB is |A| + |B| = 2|A|. So, |A|2= 2|A|. Solving this equation for |A|, we get: |A|2 - 2|A| = 0 |A|(|A| - 2) = 0 This equation has two solutions: |A| = 0 and |A| = 2. Since A and B are non-empty finite sets, |A| cannot be 0. Therefore, the possible value of |A| is |A| = 2.
Question 89
Consider the operator precedence and associativity rules for the integer arithmetic operators given in the table below.
 
Operator Precedence Associativity
+ Highest Left
High Right
Medium Right
/ Low Right
 
The value of the expression 3+1+5∗2 / 7+2−4−7−6 / 2 as per the above rules is __________
A
6
Question 89 Explanation: 
3+1+5∗2 / 7+2−4−7−6 / 2  ⇒ [ 3+1] +5∗2 / 7+2−4−7−6 / 2      [ + is highest precedence and its associativity is left ] => [4+5]∗2 / 7+2−4−7−6 / 2 [ + is highest precedence and its associativity is left ] => 9*2  / [7+2]−4−7−6 / 2 [ + is highest precedence and its associativity is left ] => 9*2  / 9 −4−7−6 / 2 => 9*2  / 9 −4−[7−6] / 2 [ - is high precedence and its associativity is Right ] => 9*2  / 9 −[4−1] / 2 [ - is high precedence and its associativity is Right ] => 9*2  / [9 −3] / 2 [ - is high precedence and its associativity is Right ] => 9*2  / 6 / 2 [ *  is next  precedence and its associativity is Right ] => 18/6/2 =>18/[6/2] [ only / operator and  its associativity is Right ] => 18 / 3 => 6
Question 90
Consider the following two relations, R(A,B) and S(A,C):
S
A C
10 90
30 45
40 80
 
R
A B
10 20
20 30
30 40
30 50
50 95
  The total number of tuples obtained by evaluating the following expression
σB<C(R⋈R.A=S.A S)
is ______
A
2
Question 90 Explanation: 
Three rows are satisfying the condition R.A=S.A. out of three rows,only two rows satisfying B
Question 91
Consider a network path P--Q--R  between nodes P and R via router Q. Node P sends a file of size 106 bytes to R via this path by splitting the file into chunks of 103 bytes each. Node P sends these chunks one after the other without any wait time between the successive chunk transmissions. Assume that the size of extra headers added to these chunks is negligible, and that the chunk size is less than the MTU
Each of the links  P--Q and Q--R has a bandwidth of 106 bits/sec, and negligible propagation latency. Router Q immediately transmits every packet it receives from P to R, with negligible processing and queueing delays. Router Q can simultaneously receive on link P--Q and transmit on link Q--R .
Assume P starts transmitting the chunks at time t=0.
Which one of the following options gives the time (in seconds, rounded off to 3 decimal places) at which R receives all the chunks of the file?
A
8.000
B
8.008
C
15.992
D
16.000
Question 92
Consider the following two threads T1 and T2  that update two shared variables a and b. Assume that initially a=b=1. Though context switching between threads can happen at any time, each statement of T1 or T2  is executed atomically without interruption.
T1
a=a+1
b=b+1
T2
b=2*b
a=2*a
Which one of the following options lists all the possible combinations of values of a and b after both T1 and T2  finish execution?
A
(a = 4, b = 4); (a = 3, b = 3); (a = 4, b = 3)
B
(a = 3, b = 4); (a = 4, b = 3); (a = 3, b = 3)
C
(a = 4, b = 4); (a = 4, b = 3); (a = 3, b = 4)
D
(a = 2, b = 2); (a = 2, b = 3); (a = 3, b = 4)
Question 93
Consider the following recurrence relation:
T(n)=√nT(√n)+n for n>=1,
1 for n=1
Which one of the following options is CORRECT?
A
T(n)= Θ(n loglogn )
B
T(n)=Θ(n logn)
C
T(n)=Θ(n2 logn)
D
T(n)=Θ(n2loglogn)
Question 94
Consider a binary min-heap containing 105 distinct elements. Let k be the index (in the underlying array) of the maximum element stored in the heap. The number of possible values of k is
A
53
B
52
C
27
D
1
Question 95
An array [82, 101, 90, 11, 111, 75, 33, 131, 44, 93] is heapified. Which one of the following options represents the first three elements in the heapified array?
A
82, 90, 101
B
82, 11, 93
C
131, 11, 93
D
131, 111, 90
Question 95 Explanation: 
After heapifying the given array, the root element will be the maximum value. So, the root element is 131. Now, let's consider the options again: (A) 82, 90, 101 - This cannot be correct because the root element, which is the maximum, is not included. (B) 82, 11, 93 - This cannot be correct because the second element is not necessarily the second maximum in the array. (C) 131, 11, 93 - This cannot be correct because 11 and 93 are not necessarily the next largest values after the root. (D) 131, 111, 90 - This is the most likely option because after the root (131), the next largest values in the array are 111 and 90.
Question 96
The symbol → indicates functional dependency in the context of a relational database. Which of the following options is/are TRUE?
A
(X,Y)→ (Z,W) implies X→ (Z,W)
B
(X,Y)→ (Z,W) implies (X,Y)→ Z
C
((X,Y)→ Z and W→ Y) implies (X,W)→ Z
D
(X→Yand Y→ Z) implies X→ Z
Question 96 Explanation: 
(A) (X,Y) → (Z,W) implies X → (Z,W) This statement is not necessarily true. The functional dependency (X,Y) → (Z,W) means that for any given value of X and Y, there is a unique value of Z and W. However, this does not imply that for any given value of X, there is a unique value of Z and W. So, option (A) is FALSE. (B) (X,Y) → (Z,W) implies (X,Y) → Z This statement is TRUE. If (X,Y) functionally determines (Z,W), then it also functionally determines Z. This is because for any given combination of X and Y, there is a unique value of Z according to the functional dependency. So, option (B) is TRUE. (C) ((X,Y) → Z and W → Y) implies (X,W) → Z This statement is TRUE. If X and Y together determine Z and W determines Y, then X and W together determine Z. This is because for any given combination of X and W, we can find the corresponding values of Y and then use (X,Y) → Z to determine the value of Z. So, option (C) is TRUE. (D) (X → Y and Y → Z) implies X → Z This statement is TRUE. If X determines Y and Y determines Z, then X determines Z. This is because the transitive property of functional dependency applies here. So, option (D) is TRUE
Question 97
Let G be a directed graph and T a depth first search (DFS) spanning tree in G that is rooted at a vertex v. Suppose T is also a breadth first search (BFS) tree in G, rooted at v. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for every such graph G and tree T ?
A
There are no back-edges in G with respect to the tree T
B
There are no cross-edges in G with respect to the tree T
C
There are no forward-edges in G with respect to the tree T
D
The only edges in G are the edges in T
Question 97 Explanation: 
(A) Not True: Back edges are still possible in this scenario, as explained before. (B) Not True: While the BFS aspect reduces the likelihood of cross-edges, it's not guaranteed. Imagine a graph with a cycle that connects back to an earlier explored level. Such a cycle would create a cross-edge in G relative to T. (C) True: In a BFS tree, all vertices at a level are explored before moving to the next level. This ensures that for any two connected vertices in G: If they are in the same level of T, there cannot be a forward edge because BFS explores neighbors at a level before moving deeper (they would be explored in the opposite order if it were a forward edge). If one vertex is an ancestor of the other in T, it cannot be a forward edge by definition (a forward edge points from a vertex to its descendant). Therefore, since T is both a DFS spanning tree and a BFS tree rooted at v, all edges in T must be either back edges (pointing to an ancestor) or edges that explore neighbors at the same level. This eliminates the possibility of forward edges in G with respect to T.
Question 98
Consider the following read-write schedule S over three transactions T1, T2, and T3, where the subscripts in the schedule indicate transaction IDs: S: r1(z); w1(z); r2(x); r3(y); w3(y); r2(y); w2(x); w2(y);
Which of the following transaction schedules is/are conflict equivalent to S ?
A
T1T2T3
B
T1T3T2
C
T3T2T1
D
T3T1T2
Question 99
Consider a Boolean expression given by F(X,Y,Z) = Σ(3,5,6,7).
Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
A
F(X,Y,Z)=Π(0,1,2,4)
B
F(X,Y,Z)=XY+YZ+XZ
C
F(X,Y,Z) is independent of input Y
D
F(X,Y,Z) is independent of input X
Question 99 Explanation: 
(A) F(X, Y, Z) = Π(0, 1, 2, 4) This statement represents the product of terms (AND operation) for the minterms (0, 1, 2, 4). However, the actual expression uses the sum of terms (OR operation) denoted by Σ. Here's the key point: The given minterms (3, 5, 6, 7) can be interpreted in two ways: Standard Interpretation (Sum of Terms): This is the more common interpretation, where the expression represents the OR operation of the minterms. In this case, the statement (A) would be incorrect. Less Common Interpretation (Negation of Product of Terms): In some contexts, a Boolean expression can be written as the negation of its complement. The complement of F(X, Y, Z) would be the product of terms for all combinations where the output is 0 (maxterms). In this specific case, the maxterms would be (0, 1, 2, 4). Taking the negation (NOT operation) of the complement would result in the original expression F(X, Y, Z). So, under this less common interpretation, statement (A) could be considered correct. (B) F(X, Y, Z) = XY + YZ + XZ This statement represents an OR operation (sum of terms) using product of variables (XY, YZ, XZ). However, these specific terms don't directly correspond to the minterms (3, 5, 6, 7).
Question 100
Let A be any nxm matrix, where m>n. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the system of linear equations Ax=0?
A
There exist at least m-n linearly independent solutions to this system
B
There exist m-n linearly independent vectors such that every solution is a linear combination of these vectors
C
There exists a non-zero solution in which at least m-n variables are 0
D
There exists a solution in which at least n variables are non-zero
Question 101

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE?
A
States 2 and 4 are distinguishable in M
B
States 3 and 4 are distinguishable in M
C
States 2 and 5 are distinguishable in M
D
Any string w with n(w)=n1(w) is in L(M)
Question 102
The chromatic number of a graph is the minimum number of colours used in a proper colouring of the graph. Let G be any graph with n vertices and chromatic number k Which of the following statements is/are always TRUE?
A
G contains a complete subgraph with k vertices
B
G contains an independent set of size at least n/k
C
G contains at least k(k−1)/2 edges
D
G contains a vertex of degree at least k
Question 102 Explanation: 
The existence of a proper k-coloring implies the existence of color classes (sets of vertices with the same color) that form independent sets. In a worst-case scenario, where all color classes except one have fewer than n/k vertices, the remaining color class must have at least n/k vertices to ensure all vertices are colored.
Dense graphs with a chromatic number k are more likely to have at least k(k-1)/2 edges
Question 103
Consider the following C function definition.
int f(int x, int y) {
for (int i=0; i x=x+x+y;
}
return x;
}
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the above function?
A
If the inputs are x=20, y=10, then the return value is greater than 220
B
If the inputs are x=20, y=20, then the return value is greater than 220
C
If the inputs are x=20, y=10, then the return value is less than 210
D
If the inputs are x=10, y=20, then the return value is greater than 220
Question 103 Explanation: 
The function f(int x, int y) takes two integer arguments x and y. It uses a for loop that iterates y times. Inside the loop, the value of x is updated using the expression x = x + x + y. Analyzing Statements: (A) If the inputs are x=20, y=10, then the return value is greater than 220 Let's simulate the function call with x = 20 and y = 10: Iteration 1: x = 20 + 20 + 10 = 50 Iteration 2: x = 50 + 50 + 10 = 110 ... (similar updates in every iteration) Iteration 10 (assuming y = 10): x = ... + ... + 10 = ~210 (The exact value will be slightly higher than 210) Therefore, statement (A) is False. The return value is likely around 210, not greater than 220. (B) If the inputs are x=20, y=20, then the return value is greater than 220 Similar to (A), with y = 20, the final value of x will be significantly higher than 220. Statement (B) is True. (C) If the inputs are x=20, y=10, then the return value is less than 210 As shown in the analysis of (A), the return value is around 210. Statement (C) is False. (D) If the inputs are x=10, y=20, then the return value is greater than 220 With x = 10 and y = 20, the final value of x will be even higher than in (B). Statement (D) is True.
Question 104
A rule in a limited entry decision table is a
A
row of the table consisting of condition entries
B
row of the table consisting of action entries
C
column of the table consisting of condition entries and corresponding action entries
D
columns of the table consisting of conditions of the stub
Question 104 Explanation: 
A limited entry decision table is a structured way to formulate requirements and test cases when dealing with complex business rules. Using a decision table will make it easier to write requirements that cover all alternative conditions. In these tables, the upper half of the table lists the conditions being tested while the lower half lists the possible actions to be taken and each column represents a certain type of condition or rule.
Question 105
Dynamic address translation
A
is part of the operating system paging algorithm
B
is useless when swapping is used
C
is the hardware necessary to implement paging
D
storage pages at a specific location on disk
Question 105 Explanation: 
Dynamic address translation is the hardware necessary to implement paging as it converts the logical address to physical address
Question 106
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 106 Explanation: 
From the given data is determinant = 3
The determinant of 2x2 matrix is (ad-bc), If the elements are a,b,c and d.
From the given matrix, a=3,b=3,c=x and d=5 then ad-bc =15-3x
15-3x=3 ⇒ 3x=12 ⇒ x=4
Question 107

A graphic display system has a frame buffer that is 640 pixels wide, 480 pixels high and 1 bit of color depth. If the access time for each pixel on the average is 200 nanoseconds, then the refresh rate of this frame buffer is approximately :

A
16 frames per second
B
19 frames per second
C
21 frames per second
D
23 frames per second
Question 107 Explanation: 
Given data,
- Width (or) wide = 640 pixels
- Height (or) High = 480 pixels
- Color depth =1 bit/pixel
- Access time of each pixel on the average = 200ns
- Refresh rate of frame buffer = ?
Step-1: Graphic display system = 640 * 480 =307200
Step-2: Memory required for Graphic display system = 640 * 480 * 1 = 307200
Step-3: Total screen access time = Memory required for Graphic display system * Access time of each pixel
= 307200 * 200 ns
= 61440000 ns
Step-4: Refresh rate of frame buffer per second =(10-9)/61440000
= 16.27604166 frames per second
[ Note: 10-9 = 1000000000 ]
Question 108

The period of a signal is 100 ms. Its frequency is

A
1003 Hertz
B
10−2 KHz
C
10−3 KHz
D
105 Hertz
Question 108 Explanation: 
First we change 100 ms to seconds, and then we calculate the frequency from the period (1 Hz = 10−3 kHz).
100 ms = 100 × 10-3s = 10-1s
f = 1/T = 1/10-1Hz = 10 Hz = 10 × 10-3kHz = 10-2kHz
Question 109

CMOS is a Computer Chip on the motherboard, which is :

A
RAM
B
ROM
C
EPROM
D
Auxiliary storage
Question 109 Explanation: 
Complementary metal-oxide Semiconductor(CMOS) is a random access memory which stores computer start up information which is used by BIOS.
Question 110
Copying a process from memory to disk to allow space for other processes is called:
A
Swapping
B
Demand Paging
C
Deadlock
D
Page Fault
Question 110 Explanation: 
→ Swapping was an early virtual memory technique. An entire program would be swapped out (or rolled out) from RAM to disk, and another one would be swapped in (or rolled in). → A swapped-out program would be current but its execution would be suspended while its RAM was in use by another program.
Question 111
Find the odd one out
A
Merge Sort
B
Travelling Salesman Problem
C
Knapsack Problem
D
Optimal Binary Search Tree Problem
Question 111 Explanation: 
Merge Sort → Divide and Conquer
Travelling Salesman Problem → Dynamic Programming
Knapsack Problem → Dynamic Programming
Optimal Binary Search Tree Problem → Dynamic Programming
Question 112
What is 2's complement of (101)​ 3​ ?
A
(010​ ) ​ 3
B
(011​ )3
C
(121​ ) ​ 3
D
(121​ ) ​ 2
Question 112 Explanation: 
Given base is r=3. So, 2’s complement is diminished radix complement or (r-1) complement. (r-1)’s complement is 222-101= 121
Question 113
Which of this is not a network edge device?
A
PC
B
Server
C
Smartphone
D
Switch
Question 113 Explanation: 
● PC, Server and Smartphones are devices which are used for various purposes where as Switch is networking device.
● A network switch (also called switching hub, bridging hub, officially MAC bridge) is a computer networking device that connects devices on a computer network by using packet switching to receive, process, and forward data to the destination device.
Question 114
The example of implied addressing is
A
Stack addressing
B
Indirect addressing
C
Immediate addressing
D
None of the above
Question 114 Explanation: 
-----> Operand is (implicitly) on top of stack
e.g. ADD Pop top two items from stack and add
-----> The stack mode of addressing is a form of implied addressing,the machine instructions need not include a memory reference but implicitly operate on top of stack.
Question 115
The degree of multi programming is controlled by:
A
CPU Scheduler
B
long term Scheduler
C
Context Switching
D
Medium term Scheduler
Question 115 Explanation: 
→ The long-term scheduler, or admission scheduler, decides which jobs or processes are to be admitted to the ready queue (in main memory); that is, when an attempt is made to execute a program, its admission to the set of currently executing processes is either authorized or delayed by the long-term scheduler. Thus, this scheduler dictates what processes are to run on a system, and the degree of concurrency to be supported at any one time – whether many or few processes are to be executed concurrently, and how the split between I/O-intensive and CPU-intensive processes is to be handled.
→ The long-term scheduler is responsible for controlling the degree of multiprogramming.
Question 116
How many addition and subtraction are required if you perform multiplication of 5(multiplicand) and -30(Multiplier) using Booth algorithm?
A
2,1
B
1,2
C
1,1
D
2,2
Question 116 Explanation: 
Step-1: 2’s complement of 30 is=00011110
Step-2: Append 0 in LSB of 2’s complement number=000111100
Step-3: Use the following codes. Procedure starts with LSB
(00→ 0)
(11→ 0)
(01→ +1)
(10→ -1)
1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
0 0 -1 0 0 0 +1 -1
Step-4: There are total 1 additions and 2 subtractions
Question 117
The decimal equivalent of the Hexadecimal number(AC7B)​ 16​ is:  
A
32564
B
44155
C
50215
D
43562
Question 117 Explanation: 
= Ax16​ 3​ + Cx16​ 2 ​ + 7x16​ 1 ​ + Bx16​ 0
= 10x16​ 3​ +12x16​ 2​ + 7x16 + 11
= 40960 + 3072 + 112 +11
= ​ 44155
Question 118
How will you free the allocated memory?  
A
remove(var-name)
B
free(var-name)
C
delete(var-name)
D
dalloc(var-name)
Question 118 Explanation: 
Dynamically allocated memory created with either calloc() or malloc() doesn't get freed on their own. You must explicitly use free() to release the space.
Syntax of free()
free(ptr);
This statement frees the space allocated in the memory pointed by ptr.
Question 119
What are the primary characteristics that distinguish a cell from a packet?
A
Cells are generally smaller that packets
B
Cells do not incorporate physical address
C
all cell have the same fixed length
D
packet cannot be switched
Question 119 Explanation: 
● Frames and packets, in general, can be of variable length, depending on their contents; in contrast, a cell is most often a message that is fixed in size.
● For example, the fixed-length, 53-byte messages sent in Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) are called cells. Like frames, cells usually are used by technologies operating at the lower layers of the OSI model.
Question 120
If attributes of relation schema R is member of some candidate key then this type of attributes are classified as:
A
atomic attribute
B
candidate attribute
C
non prime attribute
D
prime attribute
Question 120 Explanation: 
→ ​ In the relational model of databases, a candidate key of a relation is a minimal superkey for that relation; that is, a set of attributes such that:
1. the relation does not have two distinct tuples (i.e. rows or records in common database language) with the same values for these attributes (which means that the set of attributes is a superkey)
2. there is no proper subset of these attributes for which (1) holds (which means that the set is minimal).
● Candidate keys are also variously referred to as primary keys, secondary keys or alternate keys.
● The constituent attributes are called prime attributes. Conversely, an attribute that does not occur in ANY candidate key is called a non-prime attribute.
Ex: AB, BC, CD are candidate keys of R(ABCD). In the FDs set one attribute may not be part of all the FDs.
Question 121

Suppose a system has 12 instances of some resources with n processes competing for that resource. Each process may require 4 instances of the resource. The maximum value of n for which the system never enters into deadlock is

A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 121 Explanation: 
→ Here, every process requirement is 4 instances of the resource.
→ If we allocates 3 instance( one instance less than the requirement of each process) of the resource and to one process we allocate its minimum requirement then in that way with limited available instance of resource, without entering into deadlock we can fulfill requirement of maximum number of processes.
→ Now in question it is given that we have 12 instance then using above strategy we can allocate resources to 3 process without entering into deadlock.
Question 122

Consider the following statements related to AND-OR Search algorithm.

    S1 : A solution is a subtree that has a goal node at every leaf.
    S2 : OR nodes are analogous to the branching in a deterministic environment
    S3 : AND nodes are analogous to the branching in a non-deterministic environment.

Which one of the following is true referencing the above statements?

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
A
S1- False, S2- True, S3- True
B
S1- True, S2- True, S3- True
C
S1- False, S2- True, S3- False
D
S1- True, S2- True, S3- False
Question 122 Explanation: 
• An and–or tree is a graphical representation of the reduction of problems (or goals) to conjunctions and disjunctions of subproblems (or subgoals).
• A solution in an AND-OR tree is a sub tree whose leaves are included in the goal set.
Question 123
Four matrices M1, M2, M3 and M4 of dimensions pxq, qxr, rxs and sxt respectively can be multiplied is several ways with different number of total scalar multiplications. For example, when multiplied as ((M1 X M2) X (M3 X M4)), the total number of multiplications is pqr + rst + prt. When multiplied as (((M1 X M2) X M3) X M4), the total number of scalar multiplications is pqr + prs + pst. If p = 10, q = 100, r = 20, s = 5 and t = 80, then the number of scalar multiplications needed is
A
248000
B
44000
C
19000
D
25000
Question 123 Explanation: 


Question 124

Which homogeneous 2D matrix transforms the figure (a) on the left side to the figure (b) on the right ?

 
A
B
C
D
Question 124 Explanation: 
The homogeneous coordinates of the cartesian point (x,y) is (x,y,1) and the transformation Matrix is a 3x3 Matrix.
The image in figure a is translated (by 1 unit in x axis), scaled (2 units in y axis) and rotated (90 degrees counterclockwise) to figure in b.
Question 125

Identify the correct sequence in which the following packets are transmitted on the network by a host when a browser requests a web page from a remote server, assuming that the host has been restarted.

A
HTTP GET request, DNS query, TCP SYN
B
DNS query, TCP SYN, HTTP GET request
C
TCP SYN, DNS query, HTTP GET request
D
DNS query, HTTP Get request, TCP SYN
Question 125 Explanation: 
Sequence in which the given packets are transmitted on the network by a host when a browser requests a web page from a remote server, assuming that the host has been restarted:
Step 1: DNS query is sent to Domain name server to convert the Domain name into it’s IP address.
Step 2: TCP SYN request packet is sent by sender to establish a connection for data transmission.
Step 3: HTTP GET request is used to request data from a specified IP address.
Question 126

Which of the following is true for semi-dynamic environment ?

A
The environment itself does not change with the passage of time but the agent’s performance score does.
B
The environment change while the agent is deliberating.
C
Even if the environment changes with the passage of time while deliberating, the performance score does not change.
D
Environment and performance score, both change simultaneously.
Question 126 Explanation: 
Semi- Dynamic environment :
The environment itself does not change with the passage of time but the agent’s performance score does.
Question 127
Suppose T(n)=2T(n/2)+n, T(0)=T(1)=1 which one of the following is false?
A
T(n)=O(n2)
B
T(n)=O(nlogn)
Question 127 Explanation: 
Question 128

Who among the following devised the ryotwari system during the british rule in india?

A
Lord Dalhousie
B
Warren Hastings
C
Lord Minto
D
Capt. Alexander read
Question 128 Explanation: 
The Ryotwari system was a land tenure system in British India, introduced by Sir Thomas Munro in 1820 based on system administered by Captain Alexander Read in the Baramahal district. It allowed the government to deal directly with the peasant (ryot) for revenue collection, and gave the peasant freedom to give up or acquire new land for cultivation. The peasant was assessed for only the lands he was cultivating.
Question 129

Among the various electrical safety device in the options, the one based on the heating effect of electric current is the:

A
protective relay
B
circuit breaker
C
fuse
D
surge protectors
Question 129 Explanation: 
A fuse is an electrical safety device that operates to provide overcurrent protection of an electrical circuit. Its essential component is a metal wire or strip that melts when too much current flows through it, thereby interrupting the current. It is a sacrificial device; once a fuse has operated it is an open circuit, and it must be replaced or rewired, depending on type.
Question 130

Consider the following statements

    S1: A heuristic is admissible if it never overestimates the cost to reach the goal
    S2: A heuristic is monotonous if it follows triangle inequality property.

Which one of the following is true referencing the above statements?

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
A
Statement S1 is true but statement S2 is false.
B
Statement S1 is false but statement S2 is true.
C
Neither of the statements S1 and S2 are true.
D
Both the statements S1 and S2 are true.
Question 130 Explanation: 
A heuristic function is said to be admissible if it never overestimates the cost of reaching the goal, i.e. the cost it estimates to reach the goal is not higher than the lowest possible cost from the current point in the path.
Question 131

Match the following secret key algorithm (List-1) with the corresponding key lengths (List-2) and choose the correct answer from the code given below,

   LIST-1	      List-2
a) Blow Fish	  (i) 128-256 bits
b) DES	         (ii) 128 bits
c) IDEA	        (iii) 1-448 bits
d) RC5	         (iv) 56 bits
Codes:
A
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)- (iv), (d)-(i)
B
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
C
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
D
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Question 131 Explanation: 
• Blowfish is an encryption algorithm that can be used as a replacement for the DES or IDEA algorithms. It is a symmetric (that is, a secret or private key) block cipher that uses a variable-length key, from 32 bits to 448 bits, making it useful for both domestic and exportable use.
• DES uses a 64-bit key, but eight of those bits are used for parity checks, effectively limiting the key to 56-bits.
• IDEA (International Data Encryption Algorithm) is an encryption algorithm which uses a block cipher with a 128-bit key, and is generally considered to be very secure. It is considered among the best publicly known algorithms.
• RC5 has a variable block size (32, 64 or 128 bits), key size (0 to 2040 bits) and number of rounds (0 to 255). The original suggested choice of parameters were a block size of 64 bits, a 128-bit key and 12 rounds.
Question 132

Which of the following statement/s is/are true ?

    (i) Facebook has the world’s largest Hadoop cluster.
    (ii) Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:
A
Neither (i) nor (ii)
B
Both (i) and (ii)
C
(i) only
D
(ii) only
Question 132 Explanation: 
→ The Data warehouse Hadoop cluster at Facebook has become the largest known Hadoop storage cluster in the world.
Here are some of the details about this single HDFS cluster:
1. 21 PB of storage in a single HDFS cluster
2. 2000 machines
3. 12 TB per machine (a few machines have 24 TB each)
4. 1200 machines with 8 cores each + 800 machines with 16 cores each
5. 32 GB of RAM per machine
6. 15 map-reduce tasks per machine
That's a total of more than 21 PB of configured storage capacity! This is larger than the previously known Yahoo!'s cluster of 14 PB.
→ Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data.
Question 133

Consider the midpoint (or Bresenham) algorithm for rasterizing lines given below :

(1) Input (x1,y1) and (x2,y2)
(2) y = y1
(3) d = f(x1+1, y1+½) // f is the implicit form of a line
(4) for x = x1 to x2
(5) do
(6)       plot (x,y)
(7)       if (d<0)
(8)       then
(9)           y = y+1
(10)         d = d+(y1 - y2) + (x2 - x1)
(11)     else
(12)         d = d+(y1 - y2)
(13)     end
(14) end

Which statements are true ?

    P: For a line with slope m>1, we should change the outer loop in line (4) to be over y.
    Q: Lines (10) and (12) update the decision variable d through an incremental evaluation of the line equation f.
    R: The algorithm fails if d is ever 0.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :
A
Q and R only
B
P only
C
P and Q only
D
P, Q and R
Question 133 Explanation: 
From the code given in question gives information that the algorithm will work if d is ever 0, So the statement R is false.
Line 10 and 12 will update the value of d , So the statement Q is true.
Question 134

Article 45 of the constitution of india provides provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of:

A
6 years
B
9 years
C
12 years
D
10 years
Question 134 Explanation: 
Article 45 shall stand Substituted by Constitution (Eighty Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, s. 3 (which is yet not in force, date to be notified later on) as --
"45 . Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years -- The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years."
Question 135

Article 26 of the constitution of india deals with:

A
validation of certain acts and regulations
B
equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
C
freedom to manage religious affairs
D
prohibition of trafficking in human beings
Question 135 Explanation: 
Freedom to manage religious affairs Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
(a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
(b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion
(c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property
(d) to administer such property in accordance with law
Question 136

In which of the following states is the tuluni festival celebrated?

A
Arunachal pradesh
B
Manipur
C
Nagaland
D
Sikkim
Question 136 Explanation: 
The Tuluni Festival of Nagaland is commended around the second seven day stretch of the long stretch of July.The most noteworthy celebration celebrated by the Sumi Naga clan of Nagaland is the Tuluni Festival. This celebration is commended to cheer the most bounteous and productive period of the year in Nagaland. The Sumi clan in Nagaland praises the Tuluni Festival with magnificence and greatness.
Amid the Tuluni Festival there are petitions and contributions that are given to Litsaba, who is the god of productivity who gives life and insurance to the crops. During the Tuluni Festival in Nagaland , a flagon is made with the leaf of plantain, to serve the rice lager. Tuluni is the name of this wine is devoured by the Sumi clan. "anni' is another name for 'Tuluni' which means the period of plenteous harvests.
Question 137

Which team won the ICC world twenty20 2016(Men's) tournament?

A
England
B
West Indies
C
South africa
D
Australia
Question 137 Explanation: 
England and the West Indies were both contesting the tournament final for a second time, having won one previous tournament each (in 2010 and 2012, respectively). West Indian captain Darren Sammy won the toss and elected to bowl, as he had done throughout the tournament. England posted a total of 155/9 from their 20 overs, with Joe Root top-scoring with 54 runs from 36 balls. For the West Indies, Carlos Brathwaite took 3/23 and Samuel Badree took 2/16, including a maiden. The West Indies subsequently reached their target with just two balls to spare. They required 19 runs from the final over, bowled by Ben Stokes, which Brathwaite reached by hitting four consecutive sixes. Marlon Samuels scored 85 not out from 66 balls – the highest score in World T20 final history – and was named the final Man of the Match for the second time. The match was played to a near-capacity crowd, with 66,000 people in attendance.
1. West Indies won the toss and elected to field.
2. Marlon Samuels (WI) made the highest score in a World T20 final.
3. West Indies became the first team to win both the men's and women's World Twenty20s on the same day, with the women defeating Australia by 8 wickets.
Question 138

The asian development bank(ADB) has approved a USD 346 million loan for road improvements in which of the following states?

A
Telangana
B
Maharashtra
C
Karnataka
D
Gujarat
Question 138 Explanation: 
India on Thursday signed a $346 million loan agreement with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) to finance improvement of over 400 km of state highways that will enhance connectivity and access to economic centres across 12 districts in Karnataka.
This would be in addition to an ongoing road improvement project financed by the ADB with a loan of $315 million which involves upgradation of about 615 km of state roads.
The loan agreement for the Karnataka State Highways Improvement III Project (KSHIP-III) was signed between Sameer Kumar Khare, Joint Secretary in the Finance Ministry and Kenichi Yokoyama, Country Director of ADB’s India Resident Mission.
Kenichi Yokoyama said the new loan will continue ADB support to the Karnataka government's statewide road improvement programme, and will also help improve road safety.
Question 139

In which country was the ninth edition of the mountain echoes literature festival held in august 2018?

A
Sri lanka
B
India
C
China
D
Bhutan
Question 139 Explanation: 
Bhutan Mountain Echoes Literary Festival definitely holds an important position among all Bhutan festivals. 2018 ninth edition of the literary festival, and the organiser has already announced the names of guests who are coming in to the festival. The festival is set to be held from August 23 to 25, 2018.
Question 140

______ can produce a virtual image larger than the object

A
Concave lens
B
Concave mirror
C
Convex mirror
D
Plane mirror
Question 140 Explanation: 
A converging lens (one that is thicker in the middle than at the edges) or a concave mirror is also capable of producing a virtual image if the object is within the focal length. Such an image will be magnified. In contrast, an object placed in front of a converging lens or concave mirror at a position beyond the focal length produces a real image. Such an image may be magnified or reduced depending on the position of the object.
Question 141

From the given options, select the word that can be formed using the letters from the given word

ALTERNATE

A
TAVERN
B
LANTERN
C
TALENT
D
TANNER
Question 141 Explanation: 
→ TAVERN: Here, V is not present in ALTERNATE.
→ LANTERN: Here, N appears 2 times but actual given word having only one ‘N’ letter.
→ TALENT: It is completely formed in given word ALTERNATE.
→ TANNER: Here, N appears 2 times but actual given word having only one ‘N’ letter.
Question 142

Select the option that is different from the other three options

A
Resentful
B
Serene
C
Desolate
D
Sad
Question 142 Explanation: 
→ Serene synonyms are calm, peaceful and untroubled.
→ Resentful, Desolate and Sad are same category.
Question 143

Select the options that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term

CEGI:XVTR::FHJL:?

A
OQSU
B
USPO
C
VSQO
D
USQO
Question 143 Explanation: 
Question 144

Select the option that is different from the other three options

A
117
B
78
C
60
D
52
Question 144 Explanation: 
Here, 117 and 78 difference is 13*3
78 and 52 difference is 13*2
52 and 39 difference is 13*1
So, 60 is the odd one because difference is 13.
Actual difference is 39, 52, 78, 117.
Question 145

'Restaurant' is related to 'chef; in the same way as 'garage' is related to:

A
car
B
vehicle
C
mechanic
D
accountant
Question 145 Explanation: 
→ Restaurant is related to chef
→ Garage is related to mechanic
Question 146

Choose the correct options that will complete the given number series:

2, 2, 3, 8, 35, ?, 1421

A
204
B
40
C
408
D
70
Question 146 Explanation: 
The pattern in the serial is *1 – 1, *2 –2, *3 –3, *4 –4, *5 –5 i.e.,
3 (1st term) * 1 - 1 = 2 (2nd term)
2 (2nd term) * 2 - 2 = 2 (3rd term)
2 (3rd term) * 3 - 3 = 3 (4th term) and so on…
Going by this pattern the next number in the series will be 35 * 6 – 6 = 204
Question 147

Ruby met Nisha at a party. Nisha introduced herself as the eldest daughter of the brother-in-law of Ruby's friends mother?How is Ruby's friend related to Nisha?

A
Niece
B
Friend
C
Cousin
D
Daughter
Question 147 Explanation: 
→ Nisha introduced herself as the eldest daughter of the brother-in-law of Ruby's friends mother is nothing but cousin.
Question 148

Five children are standing in a single file line in ascending order of their heights. Q is second in line. P and R are taller than O. N is taller than P but shorter than R. P is the middle of the line. Who is at end of the line?

A
P
B
O
C
R
D
Q
Question 148 Explanation: 
Here, Q is already mentioned 2 position in a line.
P is middle means 3rd position.
N is taller than P means but shorter than R means 4th position.
O is shorter than P and R means 1st position.
R is end of the line.
O, Q, P, N, R
Question 149

If the seventh day of the month is four days after friday, what day will it be on the thirty first day of the month?

A
Tuesday
B
Wednesday
C
Friday
D
Monday
Question 149 Explanation: 
7th day of the month is four days after friday is Tuesday.
14th day- Tuesday
21st day- Tuesday
28th day-Tuesday
29th-wednesday
30th-thursday
31st- friday
Question 150
 
A
14
B
7
C
15
D
13
Question 151

Abhi bought an article and sold it at a loss of 10%. If he had bought it for 20% less and sold it for Rs.121 more, he would have had a profit of 40%. If he decides to sell it for Rs.506, what will he percentage gain/loss be?

A
Loss 8%
B
Gain 8%
C
Loss 5.50%
D
Gain 5.5%
Question 152

A shopkeeper sold an article for Rs.494 after giving a discount of 18% on its marked proce. had he NOT given the discount, he would have earned a profit of 25% on the cost price. What is the cost price(in Rs) of the article?

A
Rs.484
B
Rs.480
C
Rs.410
D
Rs.450
Question 153

In folding the HCF of two numbers by the division method, the quotients are 1 and 6 respectively. If the HCF of the two numbers in 300, then their LCM will be:

A
12600
B
6300
C
8400
D
2100
Question 154

Of three numbers, the first is 7 times the second and is also 4 times the third. If the average of the three numbers is 299/7 , what is the sum of the first and the third number?

A
736/7
B
253/7
C
115
D
110
Question 155
   
A
20
B
1/2
C
2
D
1/20
Question 156

A vessel contains a solution of A and B in the ratio 5:7. If 4 1/2L of the solution is replaced by the sme quality of A, then their ratio becomes 9:7. How much(in liters) of liquid B was there in the bucket initially?

A
15
B
21
C
7 1/2
D
10 1/2
Question 157

There are eleven numbers whose average is 64. The first number is 4 more than second but 10 less than the third. The average of the numbers from the fourth to the seventh is 62.5, and the average of the remaining numbers is 65.5. What is the average of the second and the third number?

A
65.5
B
64
C
65
D
64.5
Question 158

A bag contains coins of Rs.1, 50 paise and 25 paise in the ratio 4:3:8. If the total amount in the bag is Rs.240, then the number of 50 paise coins is:

A
96
B
128
C
256
D
192
Question 159

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word

AUDACITY
A
boldness
B
courage
C
timidity
D
nerve
Question 160

Select the wrongly spelt word

A
improbable
B
impudent
C
impression
D
impropreity
Question 161

Select the option which is NOT an antonym of another word by way of adding the prefix 'in-'.

A
indomitable
B
individualism
C
incompetent
D
incoherent
Question 162

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Divyanshu didn't like to work at a corporate. He wants to start____ own business.

A
our
B
their
C
his
D
my
Question 163

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

____ their clothes were proper, they didn't look smart.

A
Whether
B
Despite
C
Although
D
Because
Question 164

In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been underlined. one of them is incorrect. Choose the incorrect word or phrase from the given options.

Most of the projects is struggling to make progress due to various like land acquisition, forest clearance or release of funds from the government.

A
release of funds
B
to make progress
C
due to
D
is struggling
Question 165

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word

STEALTHY
A
direct
B
daring
C
unrestricted
D
sly
Question 166

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Usually she has milk, but today she____hot herbal tea because she has a sore throat.

A
had taken
B
was taking
C
takes
D
is taking
Question 167

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

This ward is meant for critically____children.

A
injury
B
injured
C
injurious
D
injuring
Question 168
Which of the following statements are not correct?
S1: 3NF decomposition is always lossless join and dependency preserving
S2: 3NF decomposition is always lossless join but may or may not be dependency preserving
S3: BCNF decomposition is always lossless join and dependency preserving
S4: BCNF decomposition is always lossless join but may or may not be dependency preserving
A
Only S1
B
Only S4
C
boh S1 and S4
D
Both S2 and S3
Question 168 Explanation: 
→ Sometimes, BCNF may not be functional dependency preserving.
→ lossless join should be compulsory in any normal form.
Question 169
According to the given language, which among the following expression does it corresponds to? Language L={xɛ{0,1}|x is of length 4 or less}
A
(0+1+0+1+0+1+0+1)4
B
(0+1)4
C
(01)4
D
(0+1+ɛ)4
Question 169 Explanation: 
The extended notation would be (0+1)4 but however, we may allow some or all the factors to be ε. Thus ε needs to be included in the given regular expression.
Question 170
Using bisection method, one root of X4-X-1 lies between 1 and 2. After second iteration the root may lie in interval:
A
(1.25,1.5)
B
(1,1.25)
C
(1,1.5)
D
None of the options
Question 170 Explanation: 
Given data.
root= X4-X-1.
Root lies Between 1 and 2,
After second iteration=?
Using bisection method.
f(1)=X4-X-1
=1-1-1
= -1
f(2)=X4-X-1
= 24 -2 -1
=13
Given constraint that “root lies between 1 and 2”
Iteration-1: x1=(a+b)/2
=(1+2)/2
= 1.5
f(1.5) = 2.5625
Iteration-2: x2=(a+b)/2
=(1+1.5)/2
=1.25
f(1.25)=0.19140625 >0
Root may lie in between (1, 1.25)
Algorithm - Bisection Scheme
Given a function f (x) continuous on an interval [a,b] and f (a) * f (b) < 0
Do
c=(a+b)/2
if f(a)*f(c)< 0 then b=c
else a=c
while (none of the convergence criteria C1, C2 or C3 is satisfied)
More info:
Bisection method is the simplest among all the numerical schemes to solve the transcendental equations. This scheme is based on the intermediate value theorem for continuous functions .
Consider a transcendental equation f(x)=0 which has a zero in the interval [a,b] and f(a)*f(b)<0. Bisection scheme computes the zero, say c, by repeatedly halving the interval [a,b]. That is, starting with
c = (a+b) / 2
The interval [a,b] is replaced either with [c,b] or with [a,c] depending on the sign of f (a) * f (c) . This process is continued until the zero is obtained. Since the zero is obtained numerically the value of c may not exactly match with all the decimal places of the analytical solution of f (x) = 0 in the interval [a,b]. Hence any one of the following mechanisms can be used to stop the bisection iterations :
C1. Fixing a priori the total number of bisection iterations N i.e., the length of the interval or the maximum error after N iterations in this case is less than | b-a | / 2N.
C2. By testing the condition | ci - c i-1| (where i are the iteration number) less than some tolerance limit, say epsilon, fixed a priori.
C3. By testing the condition | f (ci ) | less than some tolerance limit alpha again fixed a priori.
http://mat.iitm.ac.in/home/sryedida/public_html/caimna/transcendental/bracketing%20methods/bisection/bisection.html
Question 171
In a cache memory if total number of sets are 's', then the set offset is:
A
28
B
log2s
C
s2
D
s
Question 171 Explanation: 
If S is the number of sets in our cache, then the set index has s=log2 S bits.
→ Note that in a fully-associative cache, there is only 1 set so the set index will not exist. The remaining bits are used for the tag.
→ If ℓ is the length of the address (in bits), then the number of tag bits is t = ℓ − b − s.
Question 172
Which of the following is machine independent optimization?
A
Loop optimization
B
Redundancy Elimination
C
Folding
D
All of the options
Question 172 Explanation: 

Question 173
A stack organized computer has which of the following instructions?
A
Zero address
B
one address
C
two address
D
three address
Question 173 Explanation: 
Zero-Address Instructions:
A stack-organized computer does not use an address field for the instructions ADD and MUL. The PUSH and POP instructions, however, need an address field to specify the operand that communicates with the stack. The following program shows how X=(A+B)*(C+D) will be written for a stack-organized computer. (TOS stands for top of stack).

To evaluate arithmetic expressions in a stack computer, it is necessary to convert the expression into reverse Polish notation. The name “zero-address” is given to this type of computer because of the absence of an address field in the computational instructions.
Question 174
Let G be a grammar in CFG and Let W 1,W2ɛ L(G) such that |W1|=|W2| then which of the following statement is TRUE?
A
Any derivation of W1 has exactly the same number of steps as any derivation of W2
B
Different derivation have different length
C
Some derivation of W1 may be shorter the derivation of W2
D
None of the options
Question 174 Explanation: 
Given data,
W1 and W2 are 2 strings,
|W1|=|W2| means same length
Example CFG grammar:
S→ Cbb | cc
C→ a
W1=cc W2=Cbb
As per the grammar, W1 require only one derivation S→ cc
W2 requires two derivations S→ Cbb→ abb
It means W1 is smaller than W2.
Question 175
Find the smallest number y such that y*162 (y multiplied by 162) is perfect cube:
A
24
B
27
C
36
D
38
Question 175 Explanation: 
Prime factorize: 162
⇒162 =2×3×3×3×3 = 33×(2×3)
For (2×3) to be a perfect cube, it should be multiplied by (22×32)
∴ Required number = y = 22×32 = 36
Question 176
A regular expression is (a+b*c) is equivalent to :
A
Set of strings with either a or one or more occurences of b followed by c.
B
(b*c+a)
C
Set of strings with either a or zero or more occurence of b followed by c
D
Both (B) and (C)
Question 176 Explanation: 
Given regular expression is (a+b*c). It means either a or zero or more occurence of b followed by c. But according to option A, they given “one or more occurences of b”. So, it is false.
Question 177
Consider the following four processes with their corresponding arrival time and burst time :

What is the average turnaround time (in ms) for these processes using FCFS scheduling algorithm ?
A
15
B
12.8
C
13
D
none of the options
Question 177 Explanation: 
Given, FCFS it means first come first serve. And also it is pure preemptive scheduling.

Average Turnaround Time =(8+13.4+14.2+15.6)/4=(51.2)/4=12.8
Question 178
In how many ways 8 girl and 8 boys can sit around a circular table so that no two boys sit together?
A
(7!)2
B
(8!)2
C
7!8!
D
15!
Question 178 Explanation: 
→ First fix one boy and place other 7 in alternative seats so total ways is 7! Because they are seated in circular table. (n-1)!.
→ Now place each girl between a pair of boys. So, total ways of seating arrangement of girls is 8!
→ Finally, 7!8! Possible ways are possible.
Question 179
Recursive enumerable language are not closed under___
A
Set difference
B
Complement
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
None of the options
Question 179 Explanation: 
→ Recursively enumerable languages are not closed under set difference or complementation.
→ The set difference L-P may or may not be recursively enumerable.
→ If L is recursively enumerable, then the complement of L is recursively enumerable if and only if L is also recursive.
Question 180
Let A be an array of 31 numbers consisting of a sequence of 0’s followed by a sequence of 1’s. The problem is to find the smallest index i such that A[i] is 1 by probing the minimum number of locations in A. The worst case number of probes performed by an optimal algorithm is________
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
5
Question 180 Explanation: 
→ If we apply binary search to find the first occurrence of 1 in the list, it will give us the smallest index i where 1 is stored.
→ As in this array sequence of 0’s is followed by sequence of 1’s, the array is sorted. We can apply binary search directly without sorting it.
→ So number of probes = ⌈(log2 31)⌉
= ⌈4.954196310386876⌉
⇒5
Question 181
Which of the following are undecidable?
P1: The language generated by some CFG contains any words of length less than some given number n.
P2: Let L1 be CFL and L2 be regular, to determine whether L1 and L2 have common elements
P3: Any given CFG is ambiguous or not
P4: For any given CFG G, to determine whether ɛ belongs to L(G)
A
P2 only
B
P1 and P2 only
C
P2 and P3 only
D
P3 only
Question 181 Explanation: 
Decidable Problems
A problem is decidable if we can construct a Turing machine which will halt in finite amount of time for every input and give answer as ‘yes’ or ‘no’. A decidable problem has an algorithm to determine the answer for a given input.
Examples
Equivalence of two regular languages:Given two regular languages, there is an algorithm and Turing machine to decide whether two regular languages are equal or not.
Finiteness of regular language: Given a regular language, there is an algorithm and Turing machine to decide whether regular language is finite or not.
Emptiness of context free language: Given a context free language, there is an algorithm whether CFL is empty or not.

Undecidable Problems
A problem is undecidable if there is no Turing machine which will always halt in finite amount of time to give answer as ‘yes’ or ‘no’. An undecidable problem has no algorithm to determine the answer for a given input.
Examples
Ambiguity of context-free languages: Given a context-free language, there is no Turing machine which will always halt in finite amount of time and give answer whether language is ambiguous or not.
Equivalence of two context-free languages: Given two context-free languages, there is no Turing machine which will always halt in finite amount of time and give answer whether two context free languages are equal or not.
Everything or completeness of CFG: Given a CFG and input alphabet, whether CFG will generate all possible strings of input alphabet (∑*)is undecidable.
Regularity of CFL, CSL, REC and REC: Given a CFL, CSL, REC or REC, determining whether this language is regular is undecidable.
Question 182
Consider a non pipelined machine with 6 stages. the length of each stage are 20ns, 10ns, 30ns, 25ns, 40ns, and 15ns respectively. Suppose for implementing the pipelining the machine adds 5ns of overhead to each stage for clock skew and set up. What is the speed up factor of the pipelining system (ignoring any hazard impact) ?
A
7
B
14
C
3.11
D
6.22
Question 182 Explanation: 
Given data,
Non pipelined machine with 6 stages,
Length of each stage=20,10,30,25,40,15 ns.
Implementing the pipelining the machine adds each stage=5ns overhead.
Speed up factor of the pipelining system=?

Step-1: Non pipeline for 1 instruction to all stages=20+10+30+25+40+15 ns
=140 ns
Step-2: Per cycle adds 5ns overhead to each stage =25,15,35,30,45,20 ns
= 45 ns
Step-3: Speedup factor= Time non pipelining / Time with pipeline
= 140/45
= 3.11 ns
Question 183
Which of the following is added to page table in order to track whether a page of cache has been modified since it was read from the memory?
A
Reference bit
B
Dirty bit
C
Tag Bit
D
Valid Bit
Question 183 Explanation: 
A dirty bit (or) modified bit is a bit that is associated with a block of computer memory and indicates whether or not the corresponding block of memory has been modified. The dirty bit is set when the processor writes to (modifies) this memory.
→ The bit indicates that its associated block of memory has been modified and has not been saved to storage yet. When a block of memory is to be replaced, its corresponding dirty bit is checked to see if the block needs to be written back to secondary memory before being replaced or if it can simply be removed.
→ Dirty bits are used by the CPU cache and in the page replacement algorithms of an operating system.
→ Dirty bits can also be used in Incremental computing by marking segments of data that need to be processed or have yet to be processed.
Question 184
A system has 3 processes sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a maximum of 2 units then, deadlock.
A
Can never occur
B
Has to occur
C
May occur
D
None of the options
Question 184 Explanation: 
If the system is deadlocked, it implies that each process is holding one resource and is waiting for one more. Since there are 3 processes and 4 resources, one process must be able to obtain two resources. This process requires no more resources and therefore it will return its resources when done
Question 185
What is the meaning of regular expression  * 001 *?
A
Any string containing '1' as substring
B
Any string containing '01' as substring
C
Any string containing '011' as substring
D
All string containing '001' as substring
Question 185 Explanation: 
∑* means it may be zero or any string. The above regular expression should contain 001.
Question 186
Let G be a complete undirected graph on 8 vertices of G are labelled, then the number of distinct cycles of length 5 in G is equal to:
A
15
B
30
C
56
D
60
E
None of the above
Question 186 Explanation: 
Given data,
8 vertices and distinct cycles length=5
Step-1: To find number of distinct cycles
C(n,r)=C(8,5)
=8! / (5!(8−5)!)
=56
Total number of distinct cycles we can get n-1= 5-1 = 4
= 56*4
= 224
Question 187
Which of the following is TRUE?
A
Every relation in 3NF is also in BCNF
B
A relation R is in 3NF if every non prime attributes of R is fully functionally dependent on every key of R
C
Every relation in BCNF is also in 3NF
D
No relation can be in both BCNF and 3NF
Question 187 Explanation: 
BCNF is a stronger version 3NF. So straight from definition of BCNF every relation in BCNF will also be in 3NF.
Question 188
Consider the relation scheme R(A,B,C,D) with following FD set   F={A → CE, B → D, AE → D}, Identify the highest normal form satisfied by the relation R
A
2NF
B
BCNF
C
3NF
D
1NF
Question 188 Explanation: 
FD set F={ A→CE, B→D, AE→D }
AB+={A,B,C,D,E} it clearly shows that right side, there is no B. So, definitely candidate key require B.
→ The functional dependency B→D violates 2NF requirement. It is a partial dependency, D is partially dependent on B, where B is a proper subset of a candidate key.
Question 189
The time taken to switch between user and kernel modes of execution be t1 while the time taken to switch between two processes be t2. Which of the following is TRUE?
A
t1>t2
B
t1=t2
C
t1< t2
D
Nothing can be said about the relation between t1 and t2
Question 189 Explanation: 
→ A context switch (also sometimes referred to as a process switch or a task switch) is the switching of the CPU (central processing unit) from one processor thread to another.
→ Context switches can occur only in kernel mode. Kernel mode is a privileged mode of the CPU in which only the kernel runs and which provides access to all memory locations and all other system resource
→ Other programs, including applications, initially operate in user mode, but they can run portions of the kernel code via system calls
→ The existence of these two modes in Unix-like operating systems means that a similar, but simpler, operation is necessary when a system call causes the CPU to shift to kernel mode. This is referred to as a mode switch rather than a context switch, because it does not change the current process.
→ Context switch between the processes involves mode switch also.
Question 190
In conservative two phase locking protocol, a transaction
A
Should release all the locks only at beginning of transaction
B
Should release exclusive locks only after the commit operation
C
Should acquire all the exclusive locks at beginning of transaction
D
Should acquire all the locks at beginning of transaction
Question 190 Explanation: 
Conservative 2PL prevents deadlocks
. The difference between 2PL and C2PL is that C2PL's transactions obtain all the locks they need before the transactions begin. This is to ensure that a transaction that already holds some locks will not block waiting for other locks.
→ In heavy lock contention, C2PL reduces the time locks are held on average, relative to 2PL and Strict 2PL, because transactions that hold locks are never blocked.
→ In light lock contention, C2PL holds more locks than is necessary, because it is hard to tell what locks will be needed in the future, thus leads to higher overhead.
→ Also, a transaction will not even obtain any locks if it cannot obtain all the locks it needs in its initial request. Furthermore, each transaction needs to declare its read and write set (data items to be read/written during transaction), which is not always possible. Because of these limitations, C2PL is not used very frequently.
Question 191
Let u and V be two vectors in R 2 whose euclidean norms satisfy |u|=2|v|. What is the value α such that w=u+αv bisects the angle between u and v?
A
2
B
1
C
1/2
D
-1
Question 191 Explanation: 

Let u, v be vectors in R2, increasing at a point, with an angle θ.
A vector bisecting the angle should split θ into θ/2,θ/2
Means ‘w’ should have the same angle with u, v and it should be half of the angle between u and v.
Assume that the angle between u, v be 2θ (thus angle between u,w=θ and v,w=θ) Cosθ=(u∙w)/(∥u∥ ∥w∥) ⇾①
Cosθ=(v∙w)/(∥v∥ ∥w∥) ⇾②
①/②⇒1/1=((u∙w)/(∥u∥ ∥w∥))/((v∙w)/(∥v∥ ∥w∥))⇒1=((u∙w)/(∥u∥))/((v∙w)/(∥v∥))
⇒(u∙w)/(v∙w)=(∥u∥)/(∥v∥) which is given that ∥u∥=2 ∥v∥
⇒(u∙w)/(v∙w)=(2∥v∥)/(∥v∥)=2 ⇾③
Given ∥u∥=2∥v∥
u∙v=∥u∥ ∥v∥Cosθ
=2∙∥v∥2 Cosθ
w=u+αv
(u∙w)/(v∙w)=2
(u∙(u+αv))/(v∙(u+αv))=2
(u∙u+α∙u∙v)/(u∙v+α∙v∙v)=2a∙a=∥a∥2
4∥v∥2+α∙2∙∥v∥2 Cosθ=2(2∥v∥2 Cosθ+α∙∥v∥2/sup>)
4+2αCosθ=2(2Cosθ+α)

4+2αCosθ=4Cosθ+2α⇒Cosθ(u-v)+2α-4=0
4-2α=Cosθ(4-2α)
(4-2α)(Cosθ-1)=0 4-2α=0

Question 192
The grammar S→ aSb | bSa | SS | ɛ is :
A
Unambiguous CFG
B
Ambiguous CFG
C
Not a CFG
D
Deterministic CFG
Question 192 Explanation: 

Question 193
If any string of a language L can be effectively enumerator in a lexicographic by an enumerator in a lexicographic order then language L is___
A
Regular
B
Context free but not regular
C
Recursive but not necessarily context free
D
Recursively enumerable but not necessarily recursive
Question 193 Explanation: 
The given language L is to be recursively enumerable. The TM which accepts the language which is in lexicographic order. If the language is not in lexicographic order which is not accepted by TM. The give 'L' is recursive but not necessarily context free.
Question 194
Which of the following is not a deliverable of the structured system analysis?
A
Data flow diagram
B
Prototype model
C
Entity Relationship diagram
D
Data dictionary
Question 194 Explanation: 
→ Prototype model is used when the customers do not know the exact project requirements beforehand. In this model, a prototype of the end product is first developed, tested and refined as per customer feedback repeatedly till a final acceptable prototype is achieved which forms the basis for developing the final product.
Question 195
If for a given binary search tree(BST) the pre order traversal is 41,23,11,31,62,50,73. then which of the following is its postorder traversal?
A
11,31,23,50,73,62,41
B
31,11,23,50,41,62,73
C
11,31,50,23,73,62,41
D
11,31,23,50,62,73,41
Question 195 Explanation: 
Option B is wrong, because pre order first element is root element and post order last element is root element.
According to pre order we will get below graph based on Inorder is 11,23,31,41,50,62,73.

Question 196
Consider a complete binary tree where the left and the right subtrees of the root are max heaps. The lower bound for the number of operations to convert the tree to a heap is:
A
Ω(logn)
B
Ω(nlogn)
C
Ω(n)
D
Ω(n2)
Question 196 Explanation: 
→ We can apply Heapify (node) which take log n time. The lower bound for the number of operations to convert the tree to a heap is log n.
Question 197
The collection of turing recognizable languages are closed under:
i.Union
ii.Intersection
iii.complement
iv.Concatenation
v.star closure
A
i only
B
Both i,iv
C
i,ii,iv and v
D
All of the options
Question 197 Explanation: 
The collection of turing recognizable languages are closed under
1)Union
2)Intersection
3)Concatenation
4)Star closure
Question 198
Which of the following statements is/ are false?
S1: LR(0) grammar and SLR(1) grammar are equivalent
S2: LR(1) grammar are subset of LALR(1) grammars
A
S1 only
B
S1 and S2 both
C
S2 only
D
None of the options
Question 198 Explanation: 
The space of grammars:
FALSE: S1: LR(0) grammar and SLR(1) grammar are equivalent
FALSE: S2: LR(1) grammar are subset of LALR(1) grammars
Question 199
The condition for total participation of entity in a relationship is__
A
Maximum cardinality should be one
B
Minimum cardinality should be one
C
Minimum cardinality should be zero
D
None of the options
Question 199 Explanation: 

Question 200
Which of the following regular expression is equal to (r1+r2)*?
A
r1*r2*
B
(r1r2)*
C
r1*r2*+r1r2
D
(r1*r2*)*
Question 200 Explanation: 
→ We can also get many number of r1 and many number of r2.
→ Given in regular expression to get together also many number of occurrences. So, correct answer is option D.
Question 201
If the number of networks and number of hosts in class B are 2m, (2n -2) respectively. Then the relation between m,n is:
A
3m=2n
B
7m=8n
C
8m=7n
D
2m=3n
Question 201 Explanation: 
Total number of networks in class-B network is 214
Total number of hosts per network is 216-2
Substitute 8m and 7n
⇒ 14*8=16*7
112=112
Question 202
Which of the following is true?
S1: The power of a multi tape Turing machine is greater than the power of a single tape turing machine
S2: Every non deterministic Turing machine has an equivalent deterministic Turing machine
A
S1
B
S2
C
Both S1 and S2
D
None of the options
Question 202 Explanation: 
S1:In turing machine if we increase the number of tape then also language accepted by that machine is same as single tape turing machine.so there expressing power is same
S2:Non-Deterministic TM is equivalent to DTM
Question 203
Which of the following is TRUE?
A
mealy and moore machine are language acceptors
B
Finite state automata is language translator
C
NPDA is more powerful than DPDA
D
mealy machine is more powerful than moore machine
Question 203 Explanation: 
→ NPDA(Non deterministic Pushdown Automata) and DPDA(Deterministic Pushdown Automata) are not equivalent in power.
→ NPDA is more powerful than DPDA which means for every language for which a dpda exist, there exist an NPDA but there are some languages that are accepted by NPDA but are not accepted by DPDA.
→ In case of DFA and NFA they are equivalent in power. So for every language accepted by DFA there exists an NFA and vice versa.
Hence,we can’t convert NPDA to DPDA always and we can convert NFA to an equivalent DFA always.
Question 204
Which of the following is/are not features of RISC processor?
i.Large number of addressing modes
ii.Uniform instruction set
A
i only
B
ii only
C
Both i and ii
D
None of the options
Question 204 Explanation: 
The standard features of RISC processors are listed below:
1. RISC processors use a small and limited number of instructions.
RISC processors only support a small number of primitive and essential instructions. This puts emphasis on software and compiler design due to the relatively simple instruction set.
2. RISC machines mostly uses hardwired control unit.
Most of the RISC processors are based on the hardwired control unit design approach. In hardwired control unit, the control units use fixed logic circuits to interpret instructions and generate control signals from them. It is significantly faster than its counterpart but are rather inflexible.
3. RISC processors consume less power and have high performance.
RISC processors have been known to be heavily pipelined this ensures that the hardware resources of the processor are utilized to a maximum giving higher throughput and also consuming less power.
4. Each instruction is very simple and consistent.
Most instructions in a RISC instruction set are very simple that get executed in one clock cycle. 5. RISC processors use simple addressing modes.
RISC processors don’t have as many addressing modes and the addressing modes these processors have are rather very simple. Most of the addressing modes are for register operations and do not refer memory.
6. RISC instruction is of uniform fixed length.
The decision of RISC processor designers to provide simple addressing modes leads to uniform length instructions. For example, instruction length increases if an operand is in memory as opposed to in a register. a. This is because we have to specify the memory address as part of instruction encoding, which takes many more bits. This complicates instruction decoding and scheduling.
7. Large Number of Registers.
The RISC design philosophy generally incorporates a larger number of registers to prevent in large amounts of interactions with memory
Question 205
The optimization phase in a compiler gererally:
A
Reduces the space of the code
B
Optimization the code to reduce execution time
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
Neither (A) nor (B)
Question 205 Explanation: 
→ An optimizing compiler is a compiler that tries to minimize or maximize some attributes of an executable computer program.
→ The most common requirement is to minimize the time taken to execute a program; a less common one is to minimize the amount of memory occupied.
→ The growth of portable computers has created a market for minimizing the power consumed by a program
Question 206
Which one is the correct translation of the following statement into mathematical logic?
"None of my friends are perfect"
A
~∃x(p(x) ⋀ q(x))
B
∃x(~p(x) ⋀ q(x))
C
∃x(~p(x) ⋀ ~q(x))
D
∃x(p(x) ⋀ ~q(x))
Question 206 Explanation: 
F(x) ⇒ x is my friend
P(x) ⇒ x is perfect
There doesn't exist any person who is my friend and perfect
Question 207
If x is a one dimensional array, then:
A
*(x+i) is same as *(&x[i])
B
&x[i] is same as x+i-1
C
*(x+i) is same as *x[i]
D
*(x+i) is same as *x+i
Question 207 Explanation: 
⇒The statement *(x+i) means Value at “i” location of “ x address”.
⇒* is nothing but Value at address location
⇒&x[i] means address of ith element
⇒*(&x[i]) means Value at “i” location of “ x address”.
We can also write it into *(X+i) = X[i] =*(&x[i])
Question 208
The string 1101 does not belong to the set represented by:
A
(00+(11)*0)
B
1(0+1)*101
C
(10)*(01)*(00+11)*
D
110*(0+1)
E
Option-1 and 3
Question 208 Explanation: 
Every 11 followed by 0 and no single occurrence of 1 is possible. So it cannot generate 1101 (or) 11011
Question 209
INCA(Increase register A by 1) is an example of which of the following addressing mode?
A
Immediate addressing
B
Indirect addressing
C
Implied addressing
D
Relative addressing
Question 209 Explanation: 
→ Implied addressing refers to instructions that comprise only an opcode without an operand; for example, the INCA (“increment accumulator”) instruction.
→ An implied sequence commences when the PC reaches the opcode for an implied instruction
(a). loads that opcode into the IR
(b). Increments the PC (c). Recognizing that this is an implied instruction, the CPU executes it and continues on to the next instruction.
→ Instructions that use implied addressing are: CLRIM, DECA, DECX, HALT, INCA, INCX, NOP, POPA, POPSR, PUSHA, PUSHSR, ROLC, RORC, RTI, RTS, SETIM, SHL, and SHR.
Question 210
Let n is the length of string to test for membership, then the number of table entry in CYK algorithm is:
A
n(n+1)
B
n2 +1
C
n2 -1
D
n(n+1)/2
Question 210 Explanation: 
→ CYK algorithm takes O(n) time to compute any one entry of the table by a method.
→ There are total n(n+1)/2 table entries, the whole table construction process takes O(n3) time in worst case.
Question 211
The total number of page faults for the reference string 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 using FIFO page replacement policy for a process m if 3 frames are allocated to its are:
A
9
B
10
C
8
D
11
Question 211 Explanation: 

Total number of page faults are 10.
Question 212
When the sum of all possible two digit numbers formed from three different one digit natural numbers are divided by sum of the original three numbers, the result is:
A
26
B
24
C
20
D
22
Question 212 Explanation: 
Let a,b,c be 3 different digits, the sum of the different 2 digit numbers formed with them is
=(a*10+b)+(b*10+a)+(a*10+c)+(c*10+a)+(b*10+c)+(c*10+b)
=2(a+b+c)(10+1)
=22
Question 213
The number of integers between 1 and 500(both inclusive) that are divisible by 3 or 5 or 7 is__
A
269
B
20
C
271
D
272
Question 213 Explanation: 

Let A = number divisible by 3
B = numbers divisible by 5
C = number divisible by 7
We need to find “The number of integers between 1 and 500 that are divisible by 3 or 5 or 7" i.e.,|A∪B∪C|
We know,
|A∪B∪C|=|A|+|B|+C-|A∩B|-|A∩C|-|B∩C|+|A∩B|
|A|=number of integers divisible by 3
[500/3=166.6≈166=166]
|B|=100
[500/5=100]
|C|=71
[500/7=71.42]
|A∩B|=number of integers divisible by both 3 and 5 we need to compute with LCM (15)
i.e.,⌊500/15⌋≈33
|A∩B|=33
|A∩C|=500/LCM(3,7) 500/21=23.8≈28
|B∩C|=500/LCM(5,3) =500/35=14.48≈14
|A∩B∩C|=500/LCM(3,5,7) =500/163=4.76≈4
|A∪B∪C|=|A|+|B|+|C|-|A∩B|-|A∩C|-|B∩C|+|A∩B∩C|
=166+100+71-33-28-14+4
=271
Question 214
Which of the following statement(S) is/are true in the context of interpreters? S1: Interpreters process program according to the logical flow of control through the program S2: Interpreter translates and executes the error free instruction before it goes to the second S3: Interpreter processing time is less compared with compiler S4. LISP and Prolog are interpreted languages
A
Only S1
B
Only S3
C
Only S1,S2 and S3
D
Only S1, S2 and S4
Question 214 Explanation: 
S1: TRUE: Interpreters process program according to the logical flow of control through the program
S2: FALSE: Interpreter translates and executes the instruction before it goes to the second line but not doing error free operations.
S3: FALSE: Compiler more faster than interpreter
S4: FALSE:LISP and Prolog are interpreted rather than compiler based
Question 215
Consider the relation schema R(A,B,C,D) with following functional dependency set F={A→ BC, C→ D}; The relation R is in ___
A
2NF
B
BCNF
C
3NF
D
1NF
Question 215 Explanation: 
Given, functional dependencies are F={A→ BC, C→ D}
Finding candidate key of given relation is relation is
A+={A,B,C} because we don’t have an A element in right hand side.
A→ BC dependency A is the candidate key and also part of FD. So, it is lossless.
C→ D is following Transitive dependency. So, it never become 3NF.
According to given choices, A is the correct choice.
Question 216
Which of the following statement is true?
A
Deterministic Context free language are closed under complement
B
Deterministic Context free language are not closed under union
C
Deterministic Context free language are closed under intersection with regular set
D
All of the options
Question 216 Explanation: 
→ Deterministic Context free language are closed under complement
→ Deterministic Context free language are not closed under union
→ Deterministic Context free language are closed under intersection with regular set
Question 217
Which machine is equally powerful in both deterministic and non deterministic form?
A
PDA
B
TM
C
LBA
D
None of the options
Question 217 Explanation: 
→ NPDA is more powerful than DPDA because
1)DPDA accept only a proper subset of CFL's ie. LL grammars.
2)NPDA can accept any CFL, which makes them more powerful over DPDA
→ Deterministic TM is equal power to Non deterministic TM
Question 218
Which of the following is a correct hierarchical relationships of the following where
L1: Set of languages accepted by NFA
L2: Set of languages accepted by DFA
L3: Set of languages accepted by DPDA
L4: Set of languages accepted by NPDA
L5: Set of recursive languages
L6. Set of recursively enumerable languages?
A
L1,L2⊂ L3⊂ L4⊂ L5⊂ L6
B
L1⊂L2⊂ L3 ⊂L4⊂ L5 ⊂L6
C
L2⊂L1⊂ L3 ⊂L4⊂ L5⊂ L6
D
L1⊂L2⊂ L3⊂ L4⊂ L6⊂ L5
Question 218 Explanation: 
Question 219
Consider two matrices M1 and M2 with M1*M2 =0 and M1 is non singular. Then which of the following is true?
A
M2 is non singular
B
M2 is null Matrix
C
M2 is the identity matrix
D
M2 is transpose of M1
Question 219 Explanation: 
M2 is null Matrix
The easiest way we can prove this is by looking at the determinant, since det(AB)=det(A)det(B)
and a matrix A is singular iff det(A)=0
Question 220
Which machine is equally powerful in both deterministic and nondeterministic form?
A
Pushdown automata
B
Turing machine
C
Linear Bounded Automata
D
None of the options
Question 220 Explanation: 
→ Deterministic turing machine and nondeterministic turing machine are same in terms of power.
→ NPDA is more powerful than DPDA.
Question 221
Let G be a simple undirected graph on n=3x vertices (x>=1) with chromatic number 3, then maximum number of edges in G is:
A
n(n-1)/2
B
nn-2
C
nx
D
n
Question 221 Explanation: 
Given undirected graph on n=3x vertices (x>=1) with chromatic number 3.
→ Maximum number of edges are=n.

Question 222
Which of the following is false?
A
Interrupts which are initially by an instruction are software interrupts
B
When a subordinate is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instruction is stored in the stack pointer
C
A micro program which is written as 0's and 1's is a binary micro program
D
None of the options
Question 222 Explanation: 
→ An interrupt is a signal to the processor emitted by hardware or software indicating an event that needs immediate attention
→ Hardware interrupts are used by devices to communicate that they require attention from the operating system.
→ A software interrupt is caused either by an exceptional condition in the processor itself, or a special instruction in the instruction set which causes an interrupt when it is executed.
Question 223
A RAM chip has 7 address lines, 8 data lines and 2 chips select lines. Then the number of memory locations is___
A
212
B
210
C
219
D
213
Question 223 Explanation: 
Given data,
address line=7
Data lines=8
Chip selected lines=2
Step-1: Total address lines are 27 and chips select lines
Step-2: The chips select lines are 22
Step-3: Total address and chip selected lines are 27 * 22 = 29
Step-4: Number of memory locations for 8 data lines =29 * 23
= 212
Question 224
Which of the following is equivalent regular expressions?
i.((01)*(10)*)*
ii.(10+01)*
iii.(01)*+(11)*
iv.(0*+(11)*+0*)*
A
i and ii
B
ii and iii
C
iii and iv
D
iv and i
Question 224 Explanation: 
→ The set of strings generated by the expression ((01)*(10)*)* are
{ε,01,10,0110,0101,1010,010110,01011010, ……}
→ The set of strings generated by the expression (10+01)* are
{ε,10,01,1010,0101,0110,101010,010101….}
→ The set of strings generated by the expression (01)*+(11)* are
{ε,01,11,0101,1111,010101,111111…}
→ The set of strings generated by the expression (0*+(11)*+0*)*are
{ε,0,11,00,000,011,110,0110,00110,01100,.....}
Compare the strings which are generated by option-1 and option-2.
Question 225
On a set A={a,b,c,d} a binary operation * is defined as given in the following table.

The relation is:
 
A
Commutative but not associative
B
neither commutative nor associative
C
Both commutative and associative
D
Associative but not commutative
Question 226
We have 10 stage pipeline, where the branch target conditions are resolved at stage 5. How many stalls are there for an incorrect predicted branch?
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
4
Question 226 Explanation: 
→ A branch predictor is a digital circuit that tries to guess which way a branch (e.g. an if–then–else structure) will go before this is known definitively.
→ The purpose of the branch predictor is to improve the flow in the instruction pipeline.
→ The technique involves only executing certain instructions if certain predicates are true.
→ Branch prediction is typically implemented in hardware using a branch predictor.
→ Branch target conditions resolved at stage 5 means upto 4 stages there are incorrect branch target conditions are there.
→ So Branch condition is resolved at nth stage means, the number of stalls are (n-1)
Question 227
A two word instruction is stored in a location A. The operand part of instruction holds B. if the addressing mode is relative, the operand is available in location
A
A+B+2
B
A+B+1
C
B+1
D
A+B
Question 227 Explanation: 
It is given that instruction size is 2 words, and it’s starting address is A.
When executing the present instruction program counter gets incremented to the address of the next instruction.
So, latest value in PC=A+2.
In the instruction operand value is B, which is used as a offset for the effective address calculation.
So, Effective address= Program counter + Offset.
Here Program counter= A+2, Offset = B
Effective address= A+2+B
Question 228
Correct expression for UDP user datagram length is
A
length of UDP=length of IP - length of IP header
B
length of UDP=length of UDP - length of UDP header
C
length of UDP=length of IP + length of IP header
D
length of UDP=length of UDP + length of UDP header
Question 228 Explanation: 
→ Total length of the datagram in bytes.
→ The size of the data by computing "total length - header length"
→ A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP datagram the defines the total length. There is another field in the IP datagram that defines the length of the header. So if we subtract the length of a UDP datagram that is encapsulated in an IP datagram, we get the length of UDP user datagram.
Question 229
In binary search tree which traversal is used for getting ascending order values?
A
Inorder
B
Preorder
C
Postorder
D
None of the above
Question 229 Explanation: 
To traverse a binary search tree in inorder following operations are carried-out
(i) Traverse the left most subtree starting at the left external node,
(ii) Visit the root, and
(iii) Traverse the right subtree starting at the left external node.
The Inorder traversal of the above tree will outputs: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10
Question 230
The automaton which allows transformation to a new state without consuming any input symbols:
A
NFA
B
DFA
C
NFA-ɛ / NFA-l
D
All of the above
Question 230 Explanation: 
→ NFA-l or e-NFA is an extension of Non deterministic Finite Automata which are usually called NFA with epsilon moves or lambda transitions.

We extend the class of NFAs by allowing instantaneous (ε) transitions:
1. The automaton may be allowed to change its state without reading the input symbol.
2. In diagrams, such transitions are depicted by labeling the appropriate arcs with ε.
3. Note that this does not mean that ε has become an input symbol. On the contrary, we assume that the symbol ε does not belong to any alphabet.
Question 231
Complement of a DFA can be obtained by:
A
making starting state as final state
B
make final as a starting state
C
make final states non-final and non final as final
D
None of the options
Question 231 Explanation: 
→ If (Q, ∑, δ, q0, F) be a DFA that accepts a language L, then the complement of the DFA can be obtained by swapping its accepting states with its non-accepting states and vice versa. Note: If we want to complement an NFA, we have to first convert it to DFA and then have to swap states as in the previous method.
Question 232
Concatenation operation refers to which of the following set operations:
A
Union
B
Dot
C
Kleene
D
none of the options
Question 232 Explanation: 
→ It does not matter in which order we group the expression with the operators as they are associative.
→ If one gets a chance to group the expression, one should group them from left for convenience. For instance, 012 is grouped as (01)2.
Question 233
Which of the following statement is true?
A
mealy and moore machine are language acceptors
B
Finite state automata is language translator
C
NPDA is more powerful than DPDA
D
mealy machine is more powerful than moore machine
Question 233 Explanation: 
→ NPDA is more powerful than DPDA because
1.DPDA accept only a proper subset of CFL's ie. LL grammars.
2.NPDA can accept any CFL, which makes them more powerful over DPDA
Question 234
If file size is large and if it is to be accessed randomly then which of the following allocation strategy should be best to use in a system?
A
Linked allocation
B
Indexed allocation
C
Contiguous allocation
D
None of the options
Question 234 Explanation: 
Contiguous:All blocks of a file are stored contiguously.
Advantages:
Faster access as all blocks are nearby.
Suitable for small sequentially accessed file
Disadvantages:
Poor performance if file grows or shrinks.

Linked Allocation:Each block stores pointer to next block
Advantages:
No fragmentation.
Suitable for large sequentially accessed file
Disadvantages:
Random access is not possible, If one link is lost, cannot access subsequent blocks
Note: In File Allocation Table (FAT) all links are cached in a table for faster access.

Indexed Allocation:A single bock stores indexes of all blocks of a file.
Advantage:
Suitable for large randomly accessed file
Eg: UNIX inode stores the first 12 or so data block pointers and then singly, doubly, and triply indirect pointers.
Question 235
Microprocessors are used in which generation of computers?
A
Ist generation
B
IInd generation
C
IIIrd generation
D
IV generation
Question 235 Explanation: 
In the history of computing hardware, computers using
1. Vacuum tubes were called the first generation;
2. Transistors and diodes, the second;
3. Integrated circuits, the third;
4. Microprocessors, the fourth.
5. Whereas previous computer generations had focused on increasing the number of logic elements in a single CPU, the fifth generation, it was widely believed at the time, would instead turn to massive numbers of CPUs for added performance.
Question 236
Close-loop control mechanism try to:
A
Remove congestion after it occurs
B
Remove congestion after sometime
C
Prevent congestion before it occurs
D
Prevent congestion before sending packets
Question 236 Explanation: 
We can divide congestion control mechanisms into two broad categories:
open-loop congestion control (prevention)
closed-loop congestion control (removal).

Question 237
PGP encrypts data using a block cipher called:
A
International data encryption algorithm
B
private data encryption algorithm
C
Internet data encryption algorithm
D
none of the options
Question 237 Explanation: 
→ International data encryption algorithm(IDEA) was used in Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) v2.0 and was incorporated after the original cipher used in v1.0, BassOmatic, was found to be insecure.
→ IDEA is an optional algorithm in the OpenPGP standard. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called international data encryption algorithm.
→ IDEA operates on 64-bit blocks using a 128-bit key and consists of a series of 8 identical transformations (a round, see the illustration) and an output transformation (the half-round).
→ The processes for encryption and decryption are similar.
Question 238
Operating system maintains the page table for:
A
each process
B
each thread
C
each instruction
D
each address
Question 238 Explanation: 
Role of the page table → In operating systems that use virtual memory, every process is given the impression that it is working with large, contiguous sections of memory.
→ Physically, the memory of each process may be dispersed across different areas of physical memory, or may have been moved (paged out) to another storage, typically to a hard disk drive.
→ When a process requests access to data in its memory, it is the responsibility of the operating system to map the virtual address provided by the process to the physical address of the actual memory where that data is stored.
→ The page table is where the operating system stores its mappings of virtual addresses to physical addresses, with each mapping also known as a page table entry (PTE).
Question 239
Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
A
CDMA
B
CSMA/CA
C
ALOHA
D
None of the Options
Question 239 Explanation: 
A wireless LAN system allows a station using infrared, visible light, or radio wave to communicate with similarly configured stations in the vicinity, or to communicate with remote stations via a nearby base station that is connected to a wired network. The most prevalent wireless LANs used today are those based IEEE 802.11. These standards use similar medium access control protocol and frame format as the Ethernet, and therefore IEEE 802.11 - based wireless LANs have been referred to as wireless Ethernets.
A wireless LAN can be characterized by the following attributes
Architecture
Physical layer
Medium access control layer
Architecture
Based on IEEE 802.11 standards, wireless LANs can be classified as follows: infrastructure and ad hoc. With the ad hoc architecture, wireless stations communicate directly with each other on an ad hoc basis.
Physical Layer
The physical layer is characterized by the following three elements: the frequency band, the multiple access method (which are similar to "multiplexing" in the wired environment, and the data rate.
Medium Access Control (MAC) Layer
This layer provide the same function as the MAC layer in the wired LAN environment. IEEE 802.11, instead of using Ethernet's CSMA/CD, specifies a scheme called CSMA/CA.
CA stands for Collision Avoidance. (In the wireless environment, since a station may not be able to hear all other stations, CD, Collision Detection is not feasible)
Question 240
If L1 and L2 are regular sets then intersection of these two will be:
A
Regular
B
Non regular
C
Recursive
D
Non Recursive
Question 240 Explanation: 
If L1 and If L2 are two regular languages, their intersection L1 ∩ L2 will also be regular.
Example
L1= {am bn | n ≥ 0 and m ≥ 0} and L2= {am bn ∪ bn am | n ≥ 0 and m ≥ 0}
L3 = L1 ∩ L2 = {am bn | n ≥ 0 and m ≥ 0} is also regular.
Question 241
The smallest integer that can be represented by an 8-bit number in 2's complement form is:
A
-256
B
-128
C
-127
D
0
Question 241 Explanation: 
→ For n bit 2’s complement numbers, range of number is -(2(n-1)) to +(2(n-1)-1)
→ The smallest integer that can be represented by an 8-bit number in 2’s complement form is =-(2(n-1))
= -128
Question 242
Non contiguous memory allocation splits program into blocks of memory called ___ that can be loaded in non adjacent holes in main memory
A
Pages
B
Frames
C
Partition
D
Segments
Question 242 Explanation: 
Noncontiguous memory allocation splits programs into blocks of memory called Segments that can be loaded into non adjacent “holes” in main memory.
Question 243
In a full binary tree number of nodes is 63 then the height of the tree is:
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
6
Question 243 Explanation: 
⌈log2n⌉
=log263
=6
Question 244
let P,Q,R be a regular expression over Z. If P does not contain null string, then R=Q+RP has a unique solution____
A
Q*P
B
QP*
C
Q*P*
D
(P*Q*)*
Question 244 Explanation: 
→ According to arden’s theorem, we can directly find the answer is QP*
→ In order to find out a regular expression of a Finite Automaton, we use Arden’s Theorem along with the properties of regular expressions.
Statement:
Let P and Q be two regular expressions.
If P does not contain null string, then R = Q + RP has a unique solution that is R = QP*
Proof:
R=Q+(Q+RP)P [After putting the value R=Q+RP]
=Q+QP+RPP
When we put the value of R recursively again and again, we get the following equation:
R=Q+QP+QP2+QP3…..
R=Q(ε+P+P2+P3+…. )
R=QP*[As P* represents (ε+P+P2+P3+….)]
Question 245
Total number of simple graphs that can be drawn using six vertices are:
A
215
B
214
C
213
D
212
Question 245 Explanation: 
To get total number of simple graphs, we have a direct formula is 2(n(n-1)/2).
=26(5)/2
=215
Question 246
The 2-3-4 tree is a self balancing data structure, which is also called:
A
2-4 tree
B
B+ tree
C
B-Tree
D
None of the options
Question 246 Explanation: 
In computer science, a 2–3–4 tree (also called a 2–4 tree) is a self-balancing data structure that is commonly used to implement dictionaries.
The numbers mean a tree where every node with children (internal node) has either two, three, or four child nodes:
→ a 2-node has one data element, and if internal has two child nodes;
→ a 3-node has two data elements, and if internal has three child nodes;
→ a 4-node has three data elements, and if internal has four child nodes.
Question 247
A 3.5 inch micro floppy high density disk contains he data__
A
720 MB
B
1.44 MB
C
720 KB
D
1.44 KB
Question 247 Explanation: 
→ The 3.5-Inch floppy diskettes have dimensions of 8.9cm in width by 9.3cm in height and are referred to as floppies because of the circular magnetic floppy within the hard shell.
→ 3.5-inch floppy diskettes come in sizes of 720 KB low-density, 1.44 MB high density capacity, and IBM even developed an Extended Density disk capable of holding 2.88 MB.
Question 248
A subnet mask in class C can have ___ 1's with the remaining bits 0's
A
10
B
24
C
12
D
7
Question 248 Explanation: 
→ Subnet mask for class C is 255.255.255.0.
→ Convert 255.255.255.0 into binary format.
11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000.
→ Total number of 1’s are 24. And total number of 0’s are 8.
Question 249
What is the value of acknowledgement field in segment?
A
Number of previous bytes to receive
B
Total number of bytes to receive
C
Number of next bytes to receive
D
Sequence of zero's and one's
Question 249 Explanation: 
Acknowledgement field in a segment defines the number of next bytes to receive.
Question 250
The number (25)6 base 6 is equivalent to __ in binary number system
A
11001
B
10001
C
11000
D
10000
Question 250 Explanation: 
(25)6=(10001)2
Here, First we have to convert (25)6 into decimal number system. Then we have to convert into binary. (25)6=(17)10=(10001)2
Question 251
Which of the following is a class B host address?
A
230.0.0.0
B
130.4.5.6
C
230.7.6.5
D
30.4.5.6
Question 251 Explanation: 
→ Class A addresses only include IP starting from 1.x.x.x to 126.x.x.x only. The IP range 127.x.x.x is reserved for loopback IP addresses.
→ Class B IP Addresses range from 128.0.x.x to 191.255.x.x. The default subnet mask for Class B is 255.255.x.x.
→ Class C IP addresses range from 192.0.0.x to 223.255.255.x. The default subnet mask for Class C is 255.255.255.x.

Note: Class A addresses 127.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255 cannot be used and is reserved for loopback and diagnostic functions.
Private IP Addresses:

Question 252
There is a need to create a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. which one is used as classful subnet mask?
A
255.255.255.192
B
255.255.255.248
C
255.255.255.240
D
255.255.255.224
Question 252 Explanation: 
You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets with 14 hosts-this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts.
Question 253
What is compaction?
A
a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
B
a paging technique
C
a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
D
a technique for overcoming fatal error
Question 253 Explanation: 
→ Compaction refers to combining all the empty spaces together and processes. Compaction helps to solve the problem of fragmentation, but it requires too much of CPU time.
→ It moves all the occupied areas of store to one end and leaves one large free space for incoming jobs, instead of numerous small ones.
→ In compaction, the system also maintains relocation information and it must be performed on each new allocation of job to the memory or completion of job from memory.
Question 254
How can we set a cookie visibility scope to local storage?
A
$
B
%
C
/
D
All of the options
Question 254 Explanation: 
Setting the path of a cookie to “/” gives scoping like that of localStorage and also specifies that the browser must transmit the cookie name and value to the server whenever it requests any web page on the site
Question 255
A finite automaton accepts which type of language:
A
Type 0
B
Type 1
C
Type 2
D
Type 3
Question 255 Explanation: 

Question 256
Which NetWare protocol provides link state routing?
A
NLSP
B
RIP
C
SAP
D
NCP
Question 256 Explanation: 
→ NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement Protocol) advertises network services.
→ NCP (NetWare Core Protocol)provides client-to-server connections and applications.
→ RIP is a distance vector routing protocol.
Question 257
Which layer connects the network support layers and user support layers?
A
Transport layer
B
Network layer
C
Data link layer
D
Session layer
Question 257 Explanation: 
→ Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers.
→ Session, presentation and application layers are user support layers.
→ Transport layer layer connects the network support layers and user support layers
Question 258
Process is in a ready state____
A
When process is scheduled to run after some execution
B
When process is unable to run until some task has been completed
C
When process is using the CPU
D
None of the above
Question 258 Explanation: 
When process is unable to run until some task has been completed, the process is in blocked state and if process is using the CPU, it is in running state.
Question 259
(0+ɛ)(1+ɛ) represents:
A
{0,1,01,ɛ}
B
{0,1,ɛ}
C
{0,1,01,11,00,10,ɛ}
D
{0,1}
Question 259 Explanation: 
(0+ ε) (1+ε)= (ε+0) (ε+1)
={ ε, 0, 1, 01 }
Question 260
The average search time of hashing, with linear probing will be less if the load factor:
A
is far less than 1
B
equals 1
C
is far greater than 1
D
none of the options
Question 260 Explanation: 
→ In other words, insert, remove and search operations can be implemented in O(1), as long as the load factor of the hash table is a constant strictly less than one.
Question 261
How many times the word "PROCESS" will be printed when executing the following program?
main()
{
printf("process");
fflush();
fork();
fork();
}
A
8
B
4
C
6
D
7
Question 261 Explanation: 
→ fflush() is typically used for output stream only. Its purpose is to clear (or flush) the output buffer and move the buffered data to console (in case of stdout) or disk (in case of file output stream).
→ The two fork() calls create 3 child processes, and hence "PROCESS" will be executed 4 times if we don't use fflush.
→ If we put a '\n' at end of printf or use fflush(stdout); only 1 printf will be done.
Question 262
If a planner graph, having 25 vertices divides plane into 17 different regions. Then how many edges are used to connect the vertices in this graph
A
20
B
30
C
40
D
50
Question 262 Explanation: 
Euler’s Formula : For any polyhedron that doesn’t intersect itself (Connected Planar Graph), F(faces) + V(vertices) − E(edges) = 2.
Here as given, F=?,V=25 and E=17
→ F+25-17=2
→ 40
Question 263
Merge sort uses:
A
Divide and conquer
B
Backtracking
C
Heuristic approach
D
Greedy approach
Question 263 Explanation: 
→ Merge Sort is a divide and conquer algorithm. It works by recursively breaking down a problem into two or more sub-problems of the same or related type, until these become simple enough to be solved directly.
→ The solutions to the sub-problems are then combined to give a solution to the original problem.
→ So Merge Sort first divides the array into equal halves and then combines them in a sorted manner.
Question 264
What is the relation between DFA and NFA on the basis of computational power?
A
DFA>NFA
B
NFA>DFA
C
Equals
D
Can't be said
Question 264 Explanation: 
Both NFA and DFA having same computational power, as both defines the same class of regular languages.
Question 265
Which of the following is illegal declaration in C language?
A
char*str="Raj is a research scholar";
B
charstr[25]="Raj is a research Scholar";
C
charstr[40]="Raj is a research Scholar";
D
char[] str="Raj is a research Scholar";
Question 265 Explanation: 
The initialization of variable in option D is not valid.
Variable initialization syntax : Datatype varible_name[size]="sring"
(or)
Datatype variable_name[ ]=”string”
Question 266
In Ipv4 addresses, classful addressing is replaced with:
A
Classless addressing
B
Classful addressing
C
Subnet advertising
D
None of the options
Question 266 Explanation: 
→ Classful addressing is replaced with classless addressing.
→ The problem with this classful addressing method is that millions of class A address are wasted, many of the class B address are wasted, whereas, number of addresses available in class C is so small that it cannot cater the needs of organizations.
→ Class D addresses are used for multicast routing, and are therefore available as a single block only. Class E addresses are reserved.
Note: Because of these problems, Classful networking was replaced by Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) in 1993.
Question 267
An ethernet destination address 07-01-12-03-04-05 is:
A
Unicast address
B
Multicast address
C
Broadcast address
D
All of the options
Question 267 Explanation: 
Here, Shortcut method to find out using MAC address is
The first octant of MAC address written in binary format.
07=0000 0111.
The least significant bit 0 then unicast, 1 means Multicast and entire 8 bits are 1’s then broadcast.
Question 268
If a random coin is tossed 11 times, then what is the probability that for 7th toss head appears exactly 4 times?
A
5/32
B
15/128
C
35/128
D
None of the options
Question 268 Explanation: 
→ To find probability that for the 7th toss head appears exactly 4 times. We have find that past 6 run of tosses.
→ Past 6 tosses, What happen we don’t know. But according to 7th toss, we will find that head appeared for 3 times.
→ Any coin probability of a head=½ and probability of a tail=½
→ If we treat tossing of head as success,then this leads to a case of binomial distribution.
→ According to binomial distribution, the probability that in 6 trials we get 3 success is
6C3*(½)3 *(½)3= 5/16 (3 success in 6 trials can happen in 6C3 ways). → 7th toss, The probability of obtaining a head=1/2
→ In given question is not mention that what happens after 7 tosses.
→ Probability for that for 7th toss head appears exactly 4 times is =(5/16)*(1/2)
=5/32.
Question 269
When we use slow start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increase__unit it reaches a threshold
A
Additively
B
Multiplicatively
C
Exponentially
D
None of the options
Question 269 Explanation: 
→ In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
→ ​TCP slow start is an algorithm which balances the speed of a network connection. Slow start gradually increases the amount of data transmitted until it finds the network’s maximum carrying capacity.
​→ TCP slow start is one of the first steps in the congestion control process. It balances the amount of data a sender can transmit (known as the congestion window) with the amount of data the receiver can accept (known as the receiver window).
→ The lower of the two values becomes the maximum amount of data that the sender is allowed to transmit before receiving an acknowledgment from the receiver.
Question 270
The open file table has a/an __ associated with each file.
A
file content
B
file permission
C
open count
D
close count
Question 270 Explanation: 
Open count indicates the number of processes that have the file open
Question 271
The process of loading the operating system into memory is called:
A
Booting
B
Spooling
C
Thrashing
D
Formatting
Question 271 Explanation: 
The operating system is loaded through a bootstrapping process, more succinctly known as booting. A boot loader is a program whose task is to load a bigger program, such as the operating system.
Question 272
Why is one-time password safe?
A
it is easy to generate
B
it cannot be shared
C
it is different for every access
D
it can be easily decrypted
Question 272 Explanation: 
One time password is safe since it is generated per access and thus cannot be brute forced or deduced.
Question 273
How many DFA's exits with two states over input alphabet {0,1}?
A
16
B
26
C
32
D
64
Question 273 Explanation: 
Number of DFA’s = 2n * n(2*n)
=22*24
=4*16
=64
Question 274
The address field of linked list:
A
contain address of next node
B
may contain null character
C
contain address of next pointer
D
both (A) and (B)
Question 274 Explanation: 
→ Each record of a linked list is often called an 'element' or 'node'.
→ The field of each node that contains the address of the next node is usually called the 'next link' or 'next pointer'.
→ The remaining fields are known as the 'data', 'information', 'value', 'cargo', or 'payload' fields. Note: Option C is also correct.
Question 275
Given two sorted list of size 'm' and 'n' respectively. he number of comparisons needed in the worst case by the merge sort algorithm will be:
A
m*n
B
minimum of m,n
C
Maximum of m,n
D
M+n-1
Question 275 Explanation: 
→ To merge two lists of size m and n, we need to do m+n-1 comparisons in worst case.
→ Since we need to merge 2 at a time, the optimal strategy would be to take smallest size lists first.
→ The reason for picking smallest two items is to carry minimum items for repetition in merging.
Question 276
Complement of (a+b)* will be:
A
π
B
C
a
D
b
Question 276 Explanation: 
Given expression accept all string so complement will accept nothing
Question 277
In a particular system it is observed that, The cache performance gets improved as a result of increasing the block size of he cache. The primary reason behind this is:
A
Programs exhibits temporal locality
B
Programs have small working set
C
Read operation is frequently required rather than write operation
D
Programs exhibits spatial locality
Question 277 Explanation: 
Helps improve miss rate b/c of principle of locality:
1)Temporal locality says that if something is accessed once, “it will probably be accessed again soon"
2)Spatial locality says that if something is accessed, something nearby it will probably be accessed
Note: Larger block sizes help with spatial locality. Easiest way to reduce miss rate is to increase cache block size
Question 278
Starvation can be avoided by which of the following statement:
i.By using shortest job first resource allocation policy
ii.By using first come first serve resources allocation policy
A
i only
B
i and ii only
C
ii only
D
None of the options
Question 278 Explanation: 
Starvation possible in SJFS allocation policy because it is preemptive and always giving priority to shortest jobs.
→ Starvation never happen into FCFS because it is purely non preemptive allocation strategy.
Question 279
Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the:
A
Process tend to be I/O bound
B
Locality of reference is applicable to the process
C
size of pages is reduced
D
Process tend to be CPU bound
Question 279 Explanation: 
We can reduce page faults using some methods
1.We can increase size of main memory
2.Decreasing the degree of multiprogramming
3.Locality of reference is applicable to the process
4.Possible to increase the page size.
Question 280
The expression 5-2-3*5-2 will evaluate to 19, if:
A
'-' is left associative and '*' has precedence over '-'
B
'-' is right associative and '*' has precedence over '-'
C
'-' is right associative and '-' has precedence over '*'
D
'-' is left associative and '-' has precedence over '*'
Question 280 Explanation: 
Evaluation procedure:
Step-1: 5-2-3*5-2 will be 19.
Step-2: if it is treated as (5-(2-3))*(5-2)
Step-3: - has precedence over * and if it associates from the right.
Question 281
Finite automata requires minimum__ number of stacks
A
1
B
0
C
2
D
none of the options
Question 281 Explanation: 
Finite automata doesn’t require any stack operation
Question 282
In boolean algebra 1+1+1+1...800 times ones=___
A
1
B
0
C
11
D
800
Question 282 Explanation: 
In Boolean Algebra, the operator + represents OR operation.
I.1+ X = 1. So 1+(1+1…+1)= 1+(X)= 1
II.0+ X = X
Question 283
The function f(x)= (x2 - 1)/(x-1) at x=1 is:
A
Continuous and differentiable
B
Continuous but not differentiable
C
Differentiable but not continuous
D
Neither continuous nor differentiable
Question 283 Explanation: 
For a given f(x) can not be defined at x=1 because the function gives 0/0 .
So we can’t any thing about continuous or differentiable .So suitable options are neither continuous nor differentiable.

Question 284
If X,Y and Z are three exhaustive and mutually exclusive events related with any experiment and the P(X)=0.5P(Y) and P(Z)=0.3P(Y). then P(Y)=___
A
0.54
B
0.66
C
0.33
D
0.44
Question 284 Explanation: 
If X,Y and Z are three exhaustive and mutually exclusive events, the
P(X)+P(Y)+P(Z)=1
Given data is P(X)=0.5P(Y) and P(Z)=0.3P(Y)
Substitute the values in the above equation
0.5P(Y)+P(Y)+0.3P(Y) =1
1.8P(Y)=1
P(Y)=1/1.8=0.5555
Question 285
In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in:
A
Codes
B
Blocks
C
IPs
D
Sizes
Question 285 Explanation: 
→ When we have run out of class A and B addresses, and a class C block is too small for most midsize organizations.
→ To overcome the problem of address depletion and give more organizations access to internet, classless addressing was designed and implemented.
→ The size of the block (the number of addresses) varies based on the nature and size of the entry. For example, a household may be given only two addresses; a large organization may be given thousands of addresses. An ISP, may be given thousands or hundreds of thousands based on the number of customer it may serve.
→ To simplify the handling of addresses, the Internet authorities impose three restrictions on classless address blocks:
1. The addresses in a block must be contiguous, one after the other.
2. The number of addresses in a block must be a power of 2 (1, 2, 4,8, .... ).
3. The first address must be evenly divisible by the number of address.
Question 286
The demands of the fragmentation are:
A
Complex routers
B
Open to DOS attack
C
No overlapping of fragments
D
(A) and (B) both
Question 286 Explanation: 
→ IP fragmentation is the process of breaking up a single Internet Protocol (IP) packet into multiple packets of smaller size. Every network link has a characteristic size of messages that may be transmitted, called the maximum transmission unit (MTU).
→ The support for fragmentation of larger packets provides a protocol allowing routers to fragment a packet into smaller packets when the original packet is too large for the supporting data link frames.
→ IP fragmentation exploits (attacks) use the fragmentation protocol within IP as an attack vector.
IP fragment over lapped:
The IP fragment overlapped exploit occurs when two fragments contained within the same IP packet have offsets that indicate that they overlap each other in positioning within the packet. This could mean that either fragment A is being completely overwritten by fragment B, or that fragment A is partially being overwritten by fragment B.
Overlapping fragments may also be used in an attempt to bypass Intrusion Detection Systems
Question 287
If P is risk probability, L is loss, then is computed as
A
RE=P/L
B
RE=P+L
C
RE=P*L
D
RE=2*P*L
Question 287 Explanation: 
Risk Exposure(RE) is determined using the following relationship RE = P*L
where P is the probability of occurrence for a risk, and L is the cost to the project should the risk occur.
Question 288

Which statement about bank rate in India is correct?

A
RBI gives loan to commercial banks at this rate against collateral
B
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) determines bank rate in India
C
The ministry of finance determines bank rate
D
This is the rate at which commercial banks lend to their customers
Question 289

Which of the following steps are taken to control inflation?

A
Reduction I bank rate
B
Decreasing government expenditure
C
Decreasing cash reserve ratio (CRR)
D
Increasing the money supply in the economy
Question 290

Which of the following kings assumed the title of Gangaikonda chola?

A
Vijaydevraya
B
Rajaraja chola
C
Samudragupta
D
Rajendra I
Question 291

Who established the Christi order in India?

A
Nizamuddin Aulia
B
Bhaktiyar Kaki
C
Farid-ud-Din-Ganj-i-Shakar
D
Khwaja Moinuddin
Question 292

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

A
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the parliament
B
Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the parliament
C
Lok Sabha is the permanent house of the parliament
D
Rajya Sabha is the permanent house of the parliament
Question 293

Which of the following statements is correct?

A
The governor appoints the chief minister of a state
B
The president appoints the chief minister of a state
C
The chief minister appoints the governor of a state
D
The prime minister appoints the governor of a state
Question 294

Which Port was first developed after India lost Karachi Port to Pakistan?

A
Marmagao
B
Nhava Sheva
C
Paradeep
D
Kandla
Question 295

Millions of years ago. The area now occupied by the Himalayas and the northern plains was under___________.

A
the Tethys sea
B
the Shipkila pass
C
Lake Mansarovar
D
River Satluj
Question 296

What are Metalloids?

A
Unreactive, inert elements
B
Elements that show the properties of both metals and non-metals
C
Mixtures formed by the combination of two or more non-metals
D
Compounds formed by the combination of two or more elements
Question 297

Which is the longest bone in human body?

A
Back bone
B
Hip bone
C
Thigh bone
D
Shoulder bone
Question 298

_________ is a folk theatre form comprising music, dance, make-up, costume and dialogue.

A
Bharatanatyam
B
Ghoomar
C
Yakshgana
D
Bagurumba
Question 299

Who among the following authored the popular Bengali novel Hajar Churashir Maa?

A
Tarashankar Bandopadhyaya
B
Ashapurna Devi
C
Mahasweta Devi
D
Bishnu Dey
Question 300

In the year 1957, who among the following became the first recipient of the Padma Shri award in Sports category?

A
Mihir Sen
B
Milkha Singh
C
Balbir Singh
D
Sardar Singh
Question 301

Which of the following was chosen as the Best Feature Film in the 63rd National Film Awards?

A
Court
B
Nannu Avanalla Ayalu
C
Baahubali – The Beginning
D
Prem Ratan Dhan payo
Question 302

Who is the first man to hold both the 100 metres and 200 metres world records since fully automatic time became mandatory?

A
Usain Bolt
B
Asafa Powel
C
Carl Lewis
D
Tyson Gay
Question 303

Select the related letters / numbers from the given alternatives,

BHEK: YVSP: :DGJM:?
A
FILO
B
WTQN
C
WYAC
D
NQTX
Question 304

Select the related letters / numbers from the given alternatives,

12 : 20 : : 30 : ?
A
36
B
40
C
42
D
44
Question 305

Select the one which is different from other three alternatives

A
Safe : Secure
B
Kind : Cruel
C
Clear : Vague
D
Shallow : Deep
Question 306

Select the one which is different from other three alternatives

A
6 : 15
B
8: 23
C
10 : 31
D
12 : 37
Question 307

Choose the correct alternative from the given ones which will complete the series;

4, 9, 20, 43, ? 185
A
88
B
90
C
92
D
96
Question 308

Choose the correct alternative from the given ones which will complete the numbers/letter series.

NBM, KEP, HHS, ? , BNY
A
EJW
B
EKU
C
EKV
D
FLV
Question 309

Pointing to a lady in a photograph Savita said, “Her father’s only son’s wife is my mother-in-law”. How is that lady in the photograph related to the Savita’s husband?

A
Aunt
B
Mother
C
Cousin
D
Sister – in – Law
Question 310

Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, V and X are sitting in a row, facing North. ‘P’ is to the immediate left of ‘Q’, but on the immediate right of ‘R’. ‘S’ is on the right of ‘P’ but is on the left of ‘T’, ‘V’ is on the left of ‘X’ who is to the left of ‘R’, Who is sitting right in the middle?

A
X
B
S
C
R
D
P
Question 311

From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word,

CLASSIFICATION
A
FICTION
B
NATIONAL
C
LIAISON
D
NILOTIC
Question 312

If in a certain code languages STRONG is written as QVPQLI. How would SILVER be written in the same code language?

A
TJMWFS
B
QGJTCP
C
QKJXCT
D
REVLIS
Question 313

Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system, Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

3X2=10, 4X3=14, 6X5=22, 7X6=?
A
42
B
36
C
30
D
26
Question 314

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below.

People, Carpenters, Books
A
B
C
D
Question 315

Sachin walked 7 Km West of his house and turned to his left and walked 5 Km. Then he moves 10 Km towards East and then again 3 Km West, Finally, he turns left and walks 2 Km. How far and in which direction is Sachin from his house i,e, starting point?

A
7 Km towards South
B
7 Km towards West
C
10 Km towards North
D
10 Km towards East
Question 316

Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the conclusions can definitely be drawn from these statements.

    Statements:
    (i) All Books are Pens.
    (ii) All Pens are Pencils.
    Conclusions:
    I. All Pencils are Books.
    II. Some Pencils are Books.
A
Only conclusion I follows
B
Only conclusion II follows
C
Both conclusion I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
Question 317

Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when mirror is held at MN?

A
B
C
D
Question 318

The least number which when divided by 12, 16, 24 and 36 leaves remainder 7 in each case:

A
139
B
144
C
151
D
295
Question 319

The length, breadth and height of a room are respectively 825 cm. 675 cm and 450 cm, what is longest tape which can measure the three dimensions of room exactly?

A
25 cm
B
50 cm
C
55 cm
D
75 cm
Question 320

Let X varies inversely as Y and Y = 60 when X = 1.5. What is the value of X, when Y= 4.5?

A
20
B
809
C
30
D
45
Question 321

If 25, X, 2X, 72 are in proportion then what is value of X?

A
20
B
24
C
30
D
32
Question 322

The simple interest on certain sum of money at 6% per annum for 3 ½ years is ₹ 200. What is the sum invested?

A
₹ 1000
B
₹ 900
C
₹ 800
D
₹ 700
Question 323

The compound interest on ₹ 48,000 for 1 year at 10% per annum compounded half-yearly in Rs is;

A
4800
B
4920
C
5800
D
10080
Question 324

A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above cost price and gives a discount of 20%. What is his net profit or loss?

A
gain 4%
B
loss 4%
C
loss 5%
D
no profit no loss
Question 325

By selling 50 pens, a shopkeeper gained the amount equal to selling price of 10 pens, what is his profit percent?

A
403%
B
503%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 326

Two vessels A and B contains water and sprit in the ratio 3 : 4 and 5 : 2 respectively. They are mixed in the ratio 4 : 5. What is the ratio of water and sprit in the new mixture?

A
3 : 2
B
2 : 3
C
30 : 37
D
37 : 30
Question 327

A train of length 110 m is moving with a speed of 90 Km/h and another train of length 130 m is moving with a speed of 36 Km/h in the same direction along parallel tracks. What is the time taken in seconds by the faster train to cross the slower train?

A
223
B
263
C
16
D
18
Question 328

The speed of a boat in still water is 30 Km/h and speed of stream is 6 Km/h. What is the time taken by the boat to cover a distance of 5 Km in upstream direction?

A
50 minutes
B
16 min 40 seconds
C
10 minutes
D
8 min 20 seconds
Question 329

The sum of infinite G.P 8, -4, -2, -1, _______ is:

A
16/3
B
8/3
C
5
D
8
Question 330

A and B working together can finish a work in 20 days, A, B and C working together can finish same work in 15 days. In how many days, B alone can finish twice the same work?

A
120/7
B
60
C
90
D
120
Question 331

From the top of a 60 m high tower, the angle of depression of top and bottom of a building are 300 and 450 respectively. What is the height of building?

A
20(3-√3) m
B
20√3 m
C
30√3 m
D
30(√3-1) m
Question 332

What are the values of K for which the equation x2 + Kx + 1 = 0 has no real roots?

A
-2< K< 2
B
-2 < K < 2
C
2 < K < -2
D
2 < K < -2
Question 333

Fill in the blank with appropriate words.

He does not like to be kept waiting for so long. Next time, make sure you __________ on time.

A
reaching
B
reach
C
are reach
D
reached
Question 334

Find the error in the following sentences.

Whenever there is excess raining, the standing crops tend to get damaged.

A
there is
B
raining
C
tend to
D
damaged
Question 335

It was a long journey by train but we were well equipped with food and water to lasted us the way.

A
by train
B
we were
C
food and water
D
to lasted
Question 336

Choose the correct synonyms of the underlined words.

I witnessed an injured man being picked up by an auto rickshaw driver. Who reached him to hospital. I marveled at the latter’s sense of duty.

A
admired
B
looked
C
shocked
D
mocked
Question 337

Sunita and I are good friends but since she quite temperamental I am always unsure of the response she will give me.

A
clever
B
moody
C
naughty
D
popular
Question 338

Choose the correct antonyms of the underlined words.

Not everyone enjoys going on a cruise as the waters can get choppy at sea.

A
disturbed
B
turbulent
C
calm
D
dangerous
Question 339

The travelers found themselves in a predicament when no one opened the door in the night.

A
dilemma
B
good fortune
C
place
D
spotlight
Question 340

Choose the word that is spelt correctly.

A
ilumination
B
creasion
C
hallucination
D
imajination
Question 341

Find the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.

My brother was ready to go out and play cricket at the drop of a hat even during exam times. Which exasperated my mother

A
as soon as possible
B
at any given opportunity
C
very hesitatingly
D
whenever his friends dropped by
Question 342

Find the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.

The teacher asked the student to stop beating around the bush.

A
come straight to the point
B
not to tell a lie
C
be bold and face the reality
D
be shy and troubled
Question 343

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

“All is not lost yet.” Our lawyer said after listening to strong arguments by our case with fresh arguments.”

A
counsel
B
councilor
C
consul
D
consulate
Question 344

The way to the National Park was ________ a village which was said to be full of bandits.

A
though
B
thought
C
thorough
D
through
Question 345

Fill in the blank with the correct voice form.

Let’s not worry about what hs happened so far. Let’s concentrate on what _________ for the underprivileged by us.

A
will be doing
B
we have done
C
can be done
D
can be doing
Question 346

Fill in the blank with the correct voice form.

The match __________ with great enthusiasm by all of us as the Indian team was playing.

A
is being watched
B
were watched
C
was watching
D
was being watched
Question 347

Read the passage and arrange the sentences B to E in the correct order. The sentence marked ‘A’ comes in the beginning and the sentence marked ‘F’ comes at the end of the passage.

    A. We had a wonderful holiday in Europe this summer when we flew from Delhi to Paris.
    B. We travelled from Paris to Switzerland by bus.
    C. In Paris we saw the Eiffel Tower, many palaces and churches.
    D. Our last stop was in Italy where we went to Florence, Venice and Rome.
    E. In Switzerland we took a train to the highest mountain top in Europe called Jungfrau.
    F. From Rome we flew back to Delhi.
A
CBED
B
ECDB
C
CEBD
D
BEDC
Question 348
The following figure represents
A
Pure sine wave
B
Pulse code modulation
C
Sampling
D
Rarefaction
Question 348 Explanation: 
A sine wave or sinusoid is a mathematical curve that describes a smooth periodic oscillation. A sine wave is a continuous wave. It is named after the function sine, of which it is the graph. It occurs often in pure and applied mathematics, as well as physics, engineering, signal processing and many other fields. Its most basic form as a function of time (t) is:

where:
A = amplitude, the peak deviation of the function from zero.
f = ordinary frequency, the number of oscillations (cycles) that occur each second of time.
ω = 2πf, angular frequency, the rate of change of the function argument in units of radians per second
φ = phase, specifies (in radians) where in its cycle the oscillation is at t = 0.
When
φ is non-zero, the entire waveform appears to be shifted in time by the amount
φ /ω seconds. A negative value represents a delay, and a positive value represents an advance.
Question 349
Which of the following devices takes data sent from one network device and forwards it to the destination node based on MAC address ?
A
Hub
B
Modem
C
Switch
D
Gateway
Question 349 Explanation: 
→ Switch takes data sent from one network device and forwards it to the destination node based on MAC address.
→ Physical layer uses HUB and repeater
→ Data link layer uses Switch. MAC address comes into data link layer.
Question 350
In the following sentence, one part has an error. Choose the one which has the error.    
A
The city has become impossible
B
to live
C
mainly because
D
the prices are prohibitive.
Question 351
Choose the description that best captures the meaning of the word GNOMIC.
A
of genome structure and behaviour,established by researchers
B
clever and wise, but sometimes difficult to understand
C
of metallic substances that are soluble in water
D
slowly working on your mind but hard to experience physically
Question 352
Choose the description the best captures the meaning of the word DEPLOY.
A
detain soldiers for physical examination and security alert in military camps
B
remove somebody, especially a ruler, from power after a long revolution
C
to move soldiers into a position where they are ready for military action
D
disapprove of something in strong terms on ethical grounds
Question 353
Choose the word/phrase that best expresses the meaning of the underlined word : It is absolutely imperative that we finish all work by March 2019.
A
duty-bound
B
needing immediate attention
C
of imperial command
D
obligatory
Question 354
What does the following idiom mean? Choose the correct option. An embarrassment of riches
A
so many good things that it is difficult to choose just one
B
so few good things that it is practically impossible to choose
C
plenty of riches of which you are embarrassed owing to your bad behaviour
D
too much of wealth that makes you feel embarrassed among poor people
Question 355
Complete the sentence given below by using the correct form of the verb with the help of the options that follow. Throughout the trial, the accused ____ himself as the victim.
A
has portrayed
B
portrayed
C
will have portrayed
D
shall portray
Question 356
Improve the underlined phrase in the following sentence with the help of the given options :
The man has not been keeping well for a long time. He didn't look quite the self this morning.
A
look quite the same person
B
look quite the self as usual
C
seem quite himself
D
quite seem himself
Question 357
Complete the sentence given below by using the correct form of the verb with the help of the options that follow.
I can still vividly remember my grandfather _____ me to play cards.
A
teach
B
taught
C
has taught
D
teaching
Question 358
Improve the underlined phrase in the following sentence with the help of the
given options :
The administration was quite helpful. They tried everything they could possibly improve the situation.
A
they possibly could to improve
B
they could possible to improve
C
they could to possibly improve
D
they possibly to could improve
Question 359
Choose the word nearly opposite in meaning to the given word : FLUSTERED
A
Confident
B
Easy
C
Limited
D
Agile
Question 360
कामायनी के नारी पात्र हैं
A
श्रद्धा, इड़ा
B
इड़ा, पिंगला
C
प्रज्ञा, चेतना
D
मेधा, शची
Question 360 Explanation: 
All hindi Questions and Answers given by

Nagendra Prasad Singh Patel,
Research Scholar,
University of Hyderabad
Question 361
कर्म की दृष्टि से क्रिया के भेद हैं
A
सकर्मक, द्विकर्मक
B
द्विकर्मक, प्रेरणार्थक
C
अकर्मक, सकर्मक
D
मुख्य, सहायक
Question 362
‘सुंदर’ शब्द से बनी भाववाचक संज्ञा है
A
सौंदरता
B
सौंदर्य
C
सौंदर्यता
D
सुंदरत्व
Question 363
खड़ी बोली हिंदी का कविता में सबसे पहले प्रयोग किस कवि की रचनाओं में प्राप्त होता है ?
A
भारतेंदु हरिश्चन्द्र
B
अमीर खुसरो
C
नजीर अकबराबादी
D
हजारी प्रसाद द्विवेदी
Question 364
रस के संदर्भ में विभाव के भेद हैं
A
अनुभाव , संचारी
B
आलंबन ,उद्दीपन
C
साधारणीकरण, आस्वादन
D
नायक, नायिका
Question 365
‘पद’ का शाब्दिक अर्थ नहीं है
A
अधिकारी
B
पैर
C
ओहदा
D
चरण
Question 366
अनेकार्थ शब्द के रूप में ‘कर’ का कौन सा अर्थ अनुपयुक्त है ?
A
हाथ
B
टेक्स
C
किरण
D
काम
Question 367
हाथ में लेकर प्रयोग किया जाने वाला हथियार कहलाता है
A
अस्त्र
B
शस्त्र
C
प्रक्षेपास्त्र
D
गोला –बारूद
Question 368
“अनजान संदिग्ध व्यक्ति को  घर के पीछे देखकर मेरा ...........” रिक्त स्थान के लिए उपयुक्त मुहावरा होगा
A
माथा भन्ना जाना
B
माथा ठनकना
C
माथा गर्म होना
D
माथा झुकजाना
Question 369
“वह ऐसी भूल कर बैठा है कि पिता के सामने जाने में ....का अनुभव कर रहा है |”   रिक्त स्थान के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द होगा
A
घृणा
B
लज्जा
C
करुणा
D
आतंक
Question 370
All the seats in the Panchayats are filled by persons chosen through
A
Direct elections from national constituencies
B
Direct elections from assembly constituencies
C
Indirect elections from territorial constituencies
D
Direct elections from territorial constituencies
Question 371
Arrange India, China and Pakistan in ascending chronological order in terms of introduction of economic reforms:
A
Pakistan, China, India
B
China, India, Pakistan
C
Pakistan, India, China
D
China, Pakistan, India
Question 372
The time period of the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution introduced by Mao Government in China under which students and professionals were sent to work and learn from the countryside :
A
1956 - 1966
B
1960 - 1966
C
1966 - 1976
D
1970 - 1976
Question 373
Which of the following is the correct hierarchical arrangement (in ascending order) of taxonomic categories?
A
Species → Genus→ Family → Order → Class → Phylum or Division → Kingdom
B
Species → Genus → Order → Family → Class → Phylum or Division → Kingdom
C
Species → Genus → Family → Class → Order → Phylum or Division → Kingdom
D
Species → Family -→ Genus → Order → Class → Phylum or Division → Kingdom
Question 374
As per Article 243-G of the Constitution of India, the Panchayats have the power to implement schemes for economic development and social justice in matters listed in which of the following schedules ?
A
Eleventh Schedule
B
Twelfth Schedule
C
Ninth Schedule
D
Sixth Schedule
Question 375
which one the following divides the Earth into two equal parts ?
A
Arctic Circle
B
Great Circle
C
Small Circle
D
Antarctic Circle
Question 376
Who among the following persons is the founder of 'Anand Van'?
A
Rabindranath Tagore
B
Vinoba Bhave
C
Baba Amte
D
Aurobindo Ghosh
Question 377
The date of Mahabharata war as 3102 B.C. is mentioned in which inscription ?
A
Allahabad (Prayag) Pillar Inscription of Samundragupta
B
Aihole Inscription of Pulakesin II
C
Bhitari Pillar Inscription of Skandagupta
D
Nandsa Inscription of A.D. 226
Question 378
Mithali Dorai Raj is
(1) a female cricketer
(2) a member of the Indian women's hockey team
(3) a well known woman chess player
(4) a woman biker and social activist
A
1992
B
1998
C
1993
D
1978
Question 379
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established in
A
1992
B
1998
C
1993
D
1978
Question 380
In a family, there are three sisters and one brother.
(i) Arti is a year older than Nidhi.
(ii) Anku is two years younger than Nidhi, but one year younger than Shantanu.
Who is the youngest among all ?
A
Anku
B
Arti
C
Nidhi
D
Shantanu
Question 381
A cyclist runs 3 km due north and turns left. After cycling 4 km, he turns right and moves 5 km. He again turns right and moves 10 km. How far is he now from his original position ?
A
13 km
B
10 km
C
8 km
D
5 km
Question 382
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in two rows, three in each, facing each other. 'T' is not at the end of any row. 'S' second to the left of 'U'. 'R', the neighbour of "T, is sitting diagonally opposite to 'S'. 'Q' is the neighbour of U'. Which of the following persons are in the same row ?
A
RTQ
B
UQR
C
SQU
D
PTU
Question 383
Identify the term which differs from the other terms in some way and select the answer from the given options. ACFJ, BDGK, CEHL, DEHM, EGJN
A
BDGK
B
CEHL
C
EGJN
D
DEHM
Question 384
If MINERAL is coded as QRSTUVW and SOUND is coded as ABCSD, then READER would be coded as ?
A
TUDVUT
B
QDZCDQ
C
UTVDTU
D
SBFEFS
Question 385
In a class ⅗ of the students are girls and rest are boys. If 2/9 of the girls and ¼ of the boys are absent, what part of the total number of students is present?
A
17/25
B
18/49
C
23/30
D
23/36
Question 386
Complete the series 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?
A
1135
B
1235
C
1288
D
1335
Question 387
Discover the relationship between the first pair of words and complete the second pair from the given options. Speed: Odometer :: Current:?
A
Ammeter
B
Barometer
C
Voltameter
D
Thermometer
Question 388
Speed of CPU is measured in
A
GHz
B
Gbps
C
pps
D
ppm
Question 389
Hitting_____ and ____ keys will open a dialogue box for searching a word in a webpage.
A
Esc, S
B
Esc, N
C
Ctrl, F
D
Ctrl, S
Question 390
Which of the following is not an operating System ?
A
Unix
B
Linux
C
Ubuntu
D
Python
Question 391
English letters on the keyboard can be typed in ______case by pressing _____ simultaneously with the letters.
A
lower, shift
B
upper, shift
C
lower, escape
D
upper, escape
Question 392
Which of the following operations can be used to make a copy of a file in a new folder ?
A
Drag and drop
B
Cut-Copy-Paste
C
Cut-Paste
D
Copy-Paste
Question 393
CC in e-mail stands for
A
Copy cat
B
Carbon copy of e-mail
C
Copy to consumer of e-mail
D
Create a copy of e-mail
Question 394
Choose the best options in the context of internet banking: _____usually execute on personal computers, and ____run on powerful computers.
A
Servers, Clients
B
Clients, Servers
C
Servers, Operating system
D
0perating system, Clients
Question 395
What is the full form of CPU ?
A
Centre Processing Unit
B
Central Processing Unit
C
Core Processing Unit
D
Core Product Unit
Question 396
Malicious software is known as
A
Maliciousware
B
Malware
C
Badware
D
Illegalware
Question 397
Light pen and joystick are_____
A
Portals
B
Output devices
C
Input devices
D
Processing devices
Question 398
The hearing impaired child cannot be identified and intervention provided to him/her before the age of
A
12 months
B
2 years
C
6 months
D
Four or five years
Question 399
Children with mental retardation have
A
locomotor problems
B
aggressive and destructive behaviour
C
limitation in adaptive skills for daily functioning
D
barriers in visual acuity
Question 400
Identify the statements that are consistent with the medical model of disability :
I. The diagnosis of physical body of a child is important.
II. The children are valued in their own
III. Intervention is defined by the diagnosis.
IV. Disability is caused by the way society is organised.
A
I and III
B
II and III
C
II and IV
D
I, II and III
Question 401
What kind of social response is essential for education of CWSN ?
A
As human beings they need help and pity from the society
B
An attitude of benevolence
C
An attitude of isolation and indifference
D
Like normal children they need and deserve independence in living and equal opportunities and participation
Question 402
Which of the following is not included as disability area in the PWD Act, 1995 ?
A
Leprosy-cured person
B
Mentally retarded
C
Hearing impaired
D
Autistic child
Question 403
Which of the following reduce the efficiency of communication ?
I. Repetition and reproduction of message
II. Large volume of communication
III. Organisation of messages in flow
IV. Verbal presentation interspersed
A
I and II ।
B
III and IV
C
I, II and III
D
II, III and IV
Question 404
Select the correct sequence in the process of communication.
A
Message, communicator, medium, effect, receiver
B
Communicator, message, medium, receiver, effect
C
Message, medium, communicator, receiver, effect
D
Communicator, medium, message, receiver, effect
Question 405
According to Cybernetic theory, the basic function of communication is
A
to help individuals adjust to their environment
B
to enable individuals to fulfil their "potentialities
C
processing of information in order to control the environment in which one lives
D
to help individuals maintain equilibrium in social relationships
Question 406
Which of the following ensures universal access of ICT and other digital learning gadgets among students ?
A
Virtual Classroom
B
Shaala Saarth
C
Smart Classroom
D
Infibeam
Question 407
The pedagogical advantage of analysis and interpretation of achievement test is that
A
Teacher is able to identify brilliant students
B
Teacher is able to identify weak students
C
Teacher is able to assess the learners' achievement and can re-plan his/her teaching strategies in future
D
Teacher is able to grade his/her learners
Question 408
Echolalia in autistic children refers to
A
constant repetition of a portion of another's spoken words/speech
B
constant movement of the limbs
C
constant blinking of eyes
D
flapping of hands
Question 409
Analysis of all achievement tests can be done with teachers' knowledge of
A
Mathematics
B
Statistics
C
Science
D
Simple arithmetic tools
Question 410
The most important feature of a good test
A
Construction
B
Conduct
C
Language
D
Evaluation
Question 411
The most essential feature of a chemistry laboratory is
A
Effective ventilation and water drainage system
B
Adequate furniture
C
Adequate chemicals and equipments
D
Availability of gas connection
Question 412
Various commissions and committees have emphasized, in the context of school library that
A
There should be sufficient number of books
B
Books should be relevant to interests of the children
C
Learners should have open access to books
D
More books on local culture should be there
Question 413
Some content 'B' of a lesson plan could not be covered while teaching on a day. For next day's lessons the teacher should
A
Teach 'B' without including in next day's lesson plan
B
Include 'B' in next day's lesson plan
C
Ignore 'B' and go ahead with second day's lesson plan
D
Compress the content of next day's lesson plan and teach 'B' along with it
Question 414
Which plan has a close link with Distance Education ?
A
Annual Plan
B
Instructional Plan
C
Unit Plan
D
Lesson Plan
Question 415
Factors affecting gradation of content should ignore
A
Psychology of learners
B
Social and cultural ethos
C
Innate potential of learners
D
Linguistic abilities of learners
Question 416
Which one of the following is not a step of curriculum designing?
A
Selection of content
B
Gradation of content
C
Organisation of content
D
Curricular motives
Question 417
A transient of 100ms is to be captured on a digital storage oscilloscope on full screen in the horizontal direction. If the transient is to be recorded at a sampling rate of 100kS/s. What should the minimum size of the acquisition memory be?
A
5K
B
10K
C
15K
D
20K
Question 417 Explanation: 
Step-1: Transient captured on a DSO on full screen in the horizontal direction= 100ms
=100*10-3 sec
=1 /10 sec
Step-2: Sampling rate= 100KS/s
= 100*1000 S/sec
= 100000 sec
Step-3: 1/10 sec= 10000 S/sec
= 10*1000
= 10K
Question 418
Complete the following sentence by using the correct form of the verb. Use the options given below: I didn’t bring my wallet, since you invited me to lunch I guessed you ____________.
A
had given some money
B
will have some money on you
C
might have had some money on you
D
might given some money
Question 419
Choose the description that best captures the meaning of the word INCORRIGIBLE:
A
showing extreme resistance to certain types of food
B
having resilience and tenacity not usually found in others.
C
displaying signs of fatigue and infection in the body
D
having had habits that cannot be changes or improved
Question 420
Choose the word/phrase that gives the best meaning of the word underlined in this sentence: Your findings are original but you haven’t familiarized yourself with the nomenclature of the specimens.
A
System of classifying things
B
uses of
C
value of
D
system of naming things
Question 421
Improve the underlined phrase in the following sentence with the help of given options: Applications for this position should be filed by next Saturday latest.
A
latest next Saturday
B
latest by Saturday next
C
next Saturday at the latest
D
next Saturday latest
Question 422
Complete the following sentence by using the correct form of the verb. Use the options given below: She was too nervous to speak before such a large audience and ____________.
A
was prompted
B
will be prompted
C
has to be prompted
D
had to be prompted
Question 423
Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word: DILATE
A
abduct
B
contract
C
expand
D
shrink
Question 424
Choose the one meaning which best expressed the idiom, Hobson’s choice.
A
a situation on which you have no choice because of you don’t accept what is given, you get nothing at all
B
a situation in which you have all choice but if you accept the choice you forfeit the right to choice again.
C
a choice where your fortunes have already been decided before you exercise the choice
D
a choice which is a win-win situation for parties involved in unlike business
Question 425
Choose the right description that best captures the meaning of the word, MARGINALIA:
A
members of a group who do not actually fight but observe combat from outside
B
notes written in the margins of a book or documents you have read
C
people who have had an experience of border countries and territories
D
marked with pencil and drawn on the roofs of public buildings
Question 426
Identify the part of the following sentence that has/may have an error.
A
Roses grow
B
with abundance against this
C
old wall
D
in this season
Question 427
Improve the underlined phrase in the following sentences with the help of given options: Raju seemed to be living at some remove from reality.
A
from some remove
B
in a remove
C
at one remove
D
at certain remove
Question 428
'कबीर' का संबंध किस काव्यधारा से है ?
A
ज्ञानमार्गी निर्गुण भक्तिधारा
B
राम भक्तिधारा
C
प्रेममार्गी सूफी काव्यधारा
D
कृष्ण भक्तिधारा
Question 429
रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर' की प्रसिद्ध रचना का नाम हैं :
A
उर्वशी
B
यशोधरा
C
चिदंबरा
D
कामायनी
Question 430
अनेकार्थक शब्द के रूप में 'गुरु' का कौन-सा अर्थ अनुपयुक्त है?
A
शिक्षक
B
एक नक्षत्र
C
पचाने में कठिन
D
भारी
Question 431
".....................  हो क्या? किसी बात पर तो दृढ़ रहो।" रिक्त स्थान के लिए उपयुक्त मुहावरा होगा :
A
सोने पे सुहागा
B
बेपेंदी का लोटा
C
मोटी अक्ल का
D
पत्थर की लकीर
Question 432
"टॉस युवा भारतीय टीम ने जीता और बल्लेबाज़ी प्रारंभ की''। उपर्युक्त वाक्य के उद्देश्य' को किस विकल्प में सही प्रदर्शित किया गया है?
A
युवा भारतीय टीम ने
B
बल्लेबाज़ी
C
टॉस
D
भारतीय टीम ने
Question 433
जब अर्थ का ग्रहण अभिधा से न हो किंतु उससे संबद्ध हो तो अर्थग्रहण कराने वाली शब्द-शक्ति को कहेंगे :
A
ध्वनि
B
अभिधा मूला
C
व्यंजना
D
लक्षणा
Question 434
दूर से फेंककर चलाया जाने वाला हथियार कहलाता
A
आयुध
B
तलवार
C
अस्त्र
D
शस्त्र
Question 435
"........................ के कारण मैं रस्सी को साँप समझ बैठा।'' रिक्त स्थान के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द होगा :
A
भय
B
भ्रम
C
संदेह
D
जिज्ञासा
Question 436
अर्थ व्यक्त करने वाली सबसे छोटी इकाई है।
A
शब्द
B
वाक्य
C
ध्वनि
D
वर्ण
Question 437
'स्नेह' का शाब्दिक अर्थ नहीं है।
A
चिकनाई
B
गोद
C
प्रेम
D
तेल
Question 438
Where among the following has the world’s largest solar park recently been inaugurated?
A
Karnataka
B
Chennai
C
Delhi
D
Mumbai
Question 439
Who moved the Objectives Resolution which stated the aims of the Constituent Assembly?
A
B.R. Ambedkar
B
Rajendra Prasad
C
B.N. Rau
D
Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 440
One of the following is true about the Harappan script:
A
It is comparable to the Roman script.
B
It is written from left to right like the Devanagari.
C
It is an alphabetic script.
D
It is a pictographic script.
Question 441
Which one of the following settlement pattern is likely to develop in plain fertile agricultural regions?
A
Linear
B
Circular
C
Rectangular
D
Star-shaped
Question 442
Who among the following recently won the special Golden Man Booker Prize, which marks 50th anniversary of the prestigious award, Man Booker Prize?
A
Michael Ondaatje
B
Kiran Desai
C
V.S. Naipaul
D
Salman Rushdie
Question 443
Which of the following statements is not true, regarding the ‘Brown Agenda’?
A
The emphasis of Brown Agenda is on Inter-generational equity
B
Brown agenda deals with locals issues of the urban poor and the disadvantaged
C
Brown agenda deals with environmental issues, associated with urban and industrial areas
D
Brown agenda deals with issues such as pollution, waste disposal and the provision of safe drinking water and affordable housing.
Question 444
The introduction of economic and political reform policies of Perestroika is associated with which of the following political leader?
A
Nikita Khrushchev
B
Mikhail Gorbachev
C
Boris Yeltsin
D
Vladimir Putin
Question 445
When did sustainable development goals come into effect?
A
January 2016
B
July 2016
C
January 2015
D
July 2015
Question 446
Who won the silver medal in badminton in the Asian Games, 2018?
A
Saina Nehwal
B
Syed Modi
C
P.V. Sindhu
D
Taipeis Tai Tzuying
Question 447
In which Population interactions both the species benefit?
A
Amensalism
B
Mutualism
C
Competition
D
Commensalism
Question 448
Select the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the number series. 7,  14, 42, 168, ___?____
A
840
B
504
C
672
D
1008
Question 449
Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench in such a way that:
(a) C is sitting to immediate left of A.
(b) B is sitting to the right of A and D.
(c) E is sitting to the left of C and A.
Who is sitting in the middle?
A
C
B
D
C
A
D
B
Question 450
Select the correct option which is related to the third term in the same way as second term is related to the first. NQSW : MPRV : : CFHL : ?
A
BFJN
B
BEGK
C
DEGJ
D
EBGM
Question 451
If SUPREAME is coded as DLDSRTO, How would BROUGHT be coded?
A
SGFVAQN
B
SGFNVAQ
C
SGFNQNA
D
SGFVQAN
Question 452
In a row of children, Bhavana is ninth from the left and Ashu is thirteenth from the right. They exchange their positions and then Bhavana becomes seventeenth from the left. Find  the new position of Ashu from the right end of the row.
A
22nd
B
23rd
C
20th
D
21st
Question 453
A man stands facing West. He 135 Clockwise and then he turned 180 anti clockwise. Then, he turned 45 clockwise. What was his final direction?
A
South-West
B
South
C
North-West
D
West
Question 454
Complete the following figure matrix by selecting the right figure from the given options.
A
B
C
D
Question 455
In Family of six, there are three men X, Y and Z and three women A, B and C. The Family has an Architect, a Lawyer, a Professor, a Chartered Accountant, a Doctor and an Engineer. The description of family is given below:
- There are two married couples and two unmarried persons
- The doctor is married to Lawyer
- X is married to the CA
- A’s father is a professor
- The Lawyer is C’s daughter-in-law
- Z is not A’s husband
- Y is not X’s son, nor is he an Architect or Professor
Who is the Architect?
A
X
B
Z
C
A
D
B
Question 456
Choose out the odd one: Tricycle, Trident, Trifle, Tricolour
A
Tricycle
B
Tricolour
C
Trifle
D
Trident
Question 457
Count the number of rectangles of any size embedded in the given figure and select the right answer from the given options.
A
36
B
48
C
21
D
27
Question 458
Speed of internet connection is measured in ___________.
A
dpi
B
ppm
C
Gbps
D
GHz
Question 459
File with ___________________ extension stores _____________ and file with ____________ extension stores ______________.
A
bmp, image, mp3, sound
B
jpeg, image, sound, mp3
C
bmp, sound, mp3, song
D
bmp, sound, mp3, image
Question 460
FAQ stands for:
A
Favourite Asked Question
B
Favourite and Answered Questions
C
Frequently Answered Questions
D
Frequently Asked Questions
Question 461
The top most row of keys on the standard keyboard contains ____________ keys, and the longest key on the keyboard is __________.
A
number, enter key
B
function, enter key
C
function, space bar
D
alphabetic, space bar
Question 462
Computer which offer information are called _____________ , and those which seek information are called ___________.
A
clients, serves
B
Applications, complex software
C
System software, application software
D
Servers, clients
Question 463
Hitting ____________ key and ____________ will open a dialogue box for searching a word in pdf file.
A
Ctrl, F
B
Ctrl, S
C
Alt, F
D
Alt, S
Question 464
Which of the following is not a type of printer?
A
3-d
B
Landscape
C
Laserjet
D
Inkjet
Question 465
Email-addresses in ______________ field are visible to all recipients. Email addresses in ______________ field are visible to only the recipient.
A
To and Bcc. Cc
B
To and Cc, Bcc
C
Bcc, To
D
Cc and Bcc, To
Question 466
Choose the best Option: An antivirus program is designed to ______________ computer virus.
A
scan device and identify
B
scan device, identify and eliminate
C
scan device and eliminate
D
identify and eliminate
Question 467
Which of the following actions will not delete a file on windows desktop?
A
select file, hit delete key
B
double click on file, hit delete key
C
drag and drop in recycle bin
D
select file → right click → delete
Question 468
Which of the following are characteristics features of communication?
(a) It involves exchange of ideas, facts and questions
(b) It is a continuous process
(c) It is both verbal and non-verbal
(d) It is synchronous in nature
A
(a), (b) and (d)
B
(b), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b) and (c)
Question 469
Which of the following plans may be least learner centred?
A
Instructional Plan
B
Unit Plan
C
Lesson plan
D
Activity plan
Question 470
The concept of curriculum development excludes:
A
International considerations
B
Family aspirations
C
Societal goals
D
National goals
Question 471
For conducting physics experiments, a science laboratory should necessarily have:
A
Gas connection
B
Drainage system
C
Availability of natural light and ventilation
D
Demonstration Table
Question 472
What is meant by plus curriculum for special needs children?
A
Additional curriculum for special needs children
B
Curriculum on skill areas which are specific to special difficulties of CWSN
C
A modified curriculum for education of the children with special needs (CWSN)
D
Lessons or academic content meant for CWSN
Question 473
The idea behind supplementary learning material is to:
A
Provide material in less important areas
B
Increase learner’s text reading interests
C
Further enrich learner’s interest in various subjects
D
Provide material in the areas not covered by the teacher
Question 474
It is suggested that a teacher can improve her/his communication by following _________ C’s and _________ S’s which of the below given alternative holds true?
A
Six C’s and Three S’s
B
Eight C’s and Four S’s
C
Seven C’s and Four S’s
D
Seven C’s and three S’s
Question 475
A science teacher has joined a rural school at the beginning of the academic session. Which of the following tests he should use?
A
Situational test
B
Diagnostic test
C
Achievement test
D
In basket test
Question 476
One essential features of a good teaching aid is:
A
Low cost
B
Popular
C
Involving participation of maximum senses
D
Easy to handle
Question 477
The Classic format of the lesson plan is as per ____________.
A
Herbertian steps
B
Hila Taba steps
C
Hilgardian steps
D
Haber’s steps
Question 478
The term ‘Grapevine’ Communications’ refers to:
A
formal communication
B
informal communication
C
advertisement and publicity
D
selective perception
Question 479
The phenomenon in telecommunication and media industry to integrate services, content offering and means of communication under one core technology is termed as:
A
Multimedia
B
Online Communication
C
Convergence
D
Integrated media
Question 480
A Child who reads “dog” as “god” or “bat” as “tab” suffers from which type of disability?
A
dyspraxia
B
dyslexia
C
dysgraphia
D
dysphasia
Question 481
In curricular construction, the act of dividing content as per the class levels will come under:
A
Selection of content
B
Gradation of content
C
Organisation of content
D
Classification of content
Question 482
An itinerant teacher is one who is:
A
qualified to offer special services in different inclusive/integrated schools
B
expert in a number of curricular areas
C
a special teacher appointed for a particular inclusive school
D
a special teacher appointed temporarily on ad hoc basis
Question 483
Hearing impaired children exhibit:
A
barriers in communication by language
B
barriers in moving around
C
barriers in individuals self-care skills
D
barriers in tactile skills
Question 484
The purpose of achievement test is not to:
A
Know what students have learnt
B
Know the areas where the learners are weak
C
Grade learners as sharp, weak and average
D
Ascertain the fulfillment of scholastic goals
Question 485
Identify the statements that are consistent with the social model of disability:
(a) Impairments should be fixed by medical or other treatments.
(b) Disability is caused by the way society is organized.
(c) Impairment is the focus of attention.
(d) The children are valued in their own right.
A
(b) and (d)
B
(a) and (c)
C
(a) and (d)
D
(b), (c) and (d)
Question 486
Which of the following is not true about M.R. children?
A
They lack in ability to generalize
B
They feel difficulty in abstraction
C
They are poor in communication ability
D
They can understand cause-effect relationship
Question 487
A good test should not have:
A
Subjectivity
B
Objectivity
C
Reliability
D
Validity
Question 488
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ?
A
Reliability
B
Objectivity
C
Ambiguity
D
Validity
Question 489
Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?
A
Overhead projector
B
Blackboard
C
Epidiascope
D
Slide projector
Question 490
For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard ?
A
Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
B
Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
C
Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
D
Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
Question 491
A teacher can be successful if he/she
A
helps students in becoming better citizens
B
imparts subject knowledge to students
C
prepares students to pass the examination
D
presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
Question 492
Dynamic approach to teaching means
A
Teaching should be forceful and effective
B
Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
C
The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
D
The students should be required to learn through activities
Question 493
MOOC stands for
A
Media Online Open Course
B
Massachusetts Open Online Course
C
Massive Open Online Course
D
Myrind Open Online Course
Question 494
For advancing knowledge, the latest strategy used by mankind is
A
Consulting an authority
B
Deductive reasoning
C
Scientific thinking
D
Inductive reasoning
Question 495
Techniques used by a teacher to teach include:
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A
(a), (b) and (d)
B
(a), (b) and (c)
C
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
D
(b), (c) and (d)
Question 496
The extent to which a software performs its intended functions without failures, is termed as__
A
Robustness
B
Correctness
C
Reliability
D
Accuracy
Question 496 Explanation: 
→ The extent to which a software performs its intended functions without failures, is termed as Reliability.
→ ​ Software reliability​ is defined as the ability of a system or component to perform its required functions under stated conditions for a specified period of time. It is the probability of a failure free operation of a program for a specified time in a specified environment.
→ ​ Robustness​ is the ability of a computer system to cope with errors during execution and cope with erroneous input.
→ ​ Correctness​ of an algorithm is asserted when it is said that the algorithm is correct with respect to a specification.
→ ​ Accuracy​ of a measurement system is the degree of closeness of measurements of a quantity to that quantity's true value.
Question 497
Discovery of cross sales opportunities is called as _____.
A
Association
B
Visualization
C
Correlation
D
Segmentation
Question 497 Explanation: 
→ Association rule learning is a rule-based machine learning method for discovering interesting relations between variables in large databases. It is intended to identify strong rules discovered in databases using some measures of interestingness.
→ This rule-based approach also generates new rules as it analyzes more data. The ultimate goal, assuming a large enough dataset, is to help a machine mimic the human brain’s feature extraction and abstract association capabilities from new uncategorized data.
Question 498
A negative reaction to a mediated communication is described as :
A
flak
B
fragmented feedback
C
passive response
D
non-conformity
Question 499
Match List - I (Dams) with List - II (River) in the following :
A
a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
B
a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-v, e-iv
C
a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii, e-v
D
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i, e-v
Question 500
Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
A
Seminar
B
Workshop
C
Lecture
D
Group Discussion
Question 501
Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament?
A
Any MLA
B
Chief of Army Staff
C
Solicitor General of India
D
Mayor of Delhi
Question 502
Value education makes a student:
A
Good citizen
B
Successful businessman
C
Popular teacher
D
Efficient manager
Question 503
The capability maturity model (err) defines 5 levels :
A
a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv), e-(v)
B
a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i), e-(v)
C
a-(v), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii), e-(iv)
D
a-(v), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii), e-(iv)
Question 503 Explanation: 
CMM stands for Capability Maturity Model is a process model which specifies the process improvement approach in software development.
CMM levels:
1. Initial
2. Repeatable
3. Defined
4. Managed
5. Optimizing
Question 504
As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level?
A
1 + 7
B
1 + 9
C
1 + 10
D
1 + 5
Question 505
Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
A
Digestive upsets
B
Explosive behaviour
C
Fatigue
D
Worry
Question 506
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A
Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
B
Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
C
Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
D
Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Question 507
If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as
A
BOBY
B
COBY
C
DOBY
D
OOBY
Question 508
The period of a signal is 10 ms. What is its frequency in Hertz ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 508 Explanation: 
First we change 10 ms to seconds, and then we calculate the frequency from the period (1 Hz = 10​ −3​ kHz).
10 ms=10*10​ -3​ s
=10​ -2​ s
Frequency(f)= 1/T
= 1/10​ -2 ​ Hz
=100 Hz
Question 509
Consider the following statements S1 and S2 :
S1 : A hard handover is one in which the channel in the source cell is retained and used for a while in parallel with the channel in the target cell.
S2 : A soft handover is one in which the channel in the source cell is released and only then the channel in the target cell is engaged.
A
S1 is true and S2 is not true.
B
S1 is not true and S2 is true.
C
Both S1 and S2 are true.
D
Both S1 and S2 are not true.
Question 509 Explanation: 
→ ​ Hard handover (or) Hard Handoff:​ Early systems used hard handoff. In a hard handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station. When the MS moves from one cell to another, communication must first be broken with the previous base station before communication can be established with the new one.
→ ​ Soft handover (or) Soft Handoff:​ New systems use a soft Handoff. In this case, a mobile station can communicate with base stations at the same time. This means that, during handoff, a mobile station may continue with the new base station before breaking off from the old one.
Question 510
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) not correct ?
i. The 2’s complement of 0 is 0.
ii. In 2’s complement, the left most bit cannot be used to express a quantity.
iii. For an n-bit word (2’s complement) which includes the sign bit, there are 2n–1 positive
integers, 2n+1 negative integers and one 0 for a total of 2n unique states.
iv. In 2’s complement the significant information is contained in the 1’s of positive numbers and 0’s of the negative numbers.
A
i & iv
B
i & ii
C
iii
D
iv
Question 510 Explanation: 
With n-bit 2's complement number we can represent
2n–1 -1 positive integers,
2n-1 negative integers
and
zero.
Total=2n–1 -1+ 2n-1 +1= 2n unique states for 2n unique integers
Question 511
Match the 5 CMM Maturity levels/CMMI staged representations in List- I with their characterizations in List-II :
A
(a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii), (e)-(ii)
B
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(iii)
C
(a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i)
D
(a)- (iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i)
Question 511 Explanation: 
Initial Stage: ​ There may not exist a plan or it may be abandoned.
Repeatable : ​ There’s a plan and people stick to it.
Defined : ​ The plan for a project comes from a template for plans.
Managed: ​ The plan uses processes that can be measured quantitatively.
Optimizing : Processes are improved quantitatively and continually.
Question 512
The period of a signal is 100 ms. Its frequency is .
A
1003 Hertz
B
10​ −2​ KHz
C
10​ −3​ KHz
D
105 Hertz
Question 512 Explanation: 
First we change 100 ms to seconds, and then we calculate the frequency from the period (1 Hz = 10​ −3​ kHz).
100 ms = 100 × 10 −3 s = 10 −1 s
f =1/T=(1/10) −1Hz= 10 Hz = 1 0 × 10 −3 kHz = 10 −2 kHz
Question 513
Which of the following statements are true ?
(a) Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS) is a second generation cellular phone system.
(b) IS - 95 is a second generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS.
(c) The Third generation cellular phone system will provide universal personnel communication.
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(a), (b) and (c)
D
(a) and (c) only
Question 513 Explanation: 
(a) FALSE: AMPS is a first-generation cellular technology that uses separate frequencies, or "channels", for each conversation (see frequency-division multiple access (FDMA)). It therefore required considerable bandwidth for a large number of users. In general terms, AMPS was very similar to the older "0G" Improved Mobile Telephone Service, but used considerably more computing power in order to select frequencies, hand off conversations to PSTN lines, and handle billing and call setup.
(b) TRUE: IS - 95 is a second generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS.
(c) TRUE: The Third generation cellular phone system will provide universal personnel communication.
Question 514
How many edges are there in a forest of t-trees containing a total of n vertices ?
A
n + t
B
n – t
C
n ∗ t
D
nt
Question 514 Explanation: 
Tree never form cycle. Tree maximum having n-1 edges for ‘n’ vertices. Given question they mentioned forest of trees. It means ‘t’ trees will form n-t edges in worst case.
Question 515
Given : Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday
What day comes three days after the day which comes two days after the day which comes immediately after the day which comes two days after Monday?
A
Sunday
B
Tuesday
C
Thursday
D
Saturday
Question 516
Before the printing press, books could be purchased only in expensive manuscript copies. The printing press produced books that were significantly less expensive than the manuscript editions. The public’s demand for printed books in the first years after the invention of the printing press was many times greater than demand had been for manuscript copies. This increase demonstrates that there was a dramatic jump in the number of people who learned how to read in the years after publishers first started producing books on the printing press. Which one of the following statements, if true, casts doubt on the argument?
A
During the first years after the invention of the printing press, letter writing by people who wrote without the assistance of scribes or clerks exhibited a dramatic increase.
B
Books produced on the printing press are often found with written comments in the margins in the handwriting of the people who owned the books.
C
In the first years after the printing press was invented, printed books were purchased primarily by people who had always bought and read expensive manuscripts but could afford a greater number of printed books for the same money.
D
Books that were printed on the printing press in the first years its invention often circulated among friends in informal reading clubs or libraries.
Question 517
Bevex, an artificial sweetener used only in soft drinks, is carcinogenic for mice, but only when it is consumed in very large quantities. To ingest an amount of Bevex equivalent to the amount fed to the mice in the relevant studies, a person would have to drink 25 cans of Bevex-sweetened soft drinks per day. For that reason, Bevex is in fact safe for people.
In order for the conclusion that Bevex is safe for people to be properly drawn, which one of the following must be true?
A
Cancer from carcinogenic substances develops more slowly in mice than it does in people.
B
If all food additives that are currently used in foods were tested, some would be found to be carcinogenic for mice.
C
People drink fewer than 25 cans of Bevex- sweetened soda per day.
D
People can obtain important health benefits by controlling their weight through the use of artificially sweetened soft drinks.
Question 518
Saurabh: Airlines have made it possible for anyone to travel around the world in much less time than was formerly possible.
Monica’s: That is not true. Many flights are too expensive for all but the rich.
Monica’s response shows that she interprets Saurabh’s statement to imply that
A
everyone has an equal right to experience world travel
B
world travel is only possible via routes serviced by airlines
C
most forms of world travel are not affordable for most people
D
anyone can afford to travel long distances by air
Question 519
Nutritionists have recommended that people eat more fiber. Advertisements for a new fiber-supplement pill state only that it contains “44 percent fiber.”
The advertising claim is misleading in its selection of information on which to focus if which one of the following is true?
A
Nutritionists base their recommendation on medical findings that dietary fiber protects against some kinds of cancer.
B
It is possible to become addicted to some kinds of advertised pills, such as sleeping pills and painkillers.
C
The label of the advertised product recommends taking 3 pills every day.
D
The recommended daily intake of fiber is 20 to 30 grams, and the pill contains one third gram.
Question 520
Many environmentalists have urged environmental awareness on consumers, saying that if we accept moral responsibility for our effects on the environment, then products that directly or indirectly harm the environment ought to be avoided. Unfortunately it is usually impossible for consumers to assess the environmental impact of a product, and thus impossible for them to consciously restrict their purchases to environmentally benign products. Because of this impossibility there can be no moral duty to choose products in the way these environmentalists urge, since_______.
Which one of the following principals provides the most appropriate completion for the argument?
A
a moral duty to perform an action is n ever based solely on the effects the action will have on other people
B
a person cannot possibly have a moral duty to do what he or she is unable to do
C
moral considerations should not be the sole determinants of what products are made available to consumers
D
the morally right action is always the one whose effects produce the least total harm
Question 521
A man rowed 3 miles upstream in 90 minutes. If the river flowed with a current of 2 miles per hour, how long did the man’s return trip take?
A
20 minutes
B
30 minutes
C
45 minutes
D
60 minutes
Question 522
A man walks 10 miles at an average rate of 2 miles per hour and returns on a bicycle at an average rate of 10 miles per hour. How long (to the nearest hour) does the entire trip take him?
A
4 hours
B
5 hours
C
6 hours
D
7 hours
Question 523
A circular garden twenty feet in diameter is surrounded by a path three feet wide. What is the area of the path?
A
51π square feet
B
60 π square feet
C
69 π square feet
D
90 π square feet
Question 524
What is the area of a semicircle with a diameter of 16 inches?
A
32π square inches
B
64 π square inches
C
128π square inches
D
256π square inches
Question 525
Which of the following figures has the largest perimeter? (1 foot = 12 inches)
A
a square with a diagonal of 5 feet
B
a rectangle with sides of 3 feet and 4 feet
C
an equilateral triangle with a side equal to 48 inches
D
a regular hexagon whose longest diagonal is 6 feet
Question 526
Two bicyclists travel in opposite directions. One travels 5 miles per hour faster than the other. In 2 hours they are 50 miles apart. What is the rate of the faster bicyclist?
A
11.25 mph
B
15 mph
C
20 mph
D
22.5mph
Question 527
Sonal has finished reading 30% of a 340-page novel. How many pages has she read?
A
102
B
103
C
105
D
113
Question 528
Of 150 people polled, 150 said they rode the city bus at least 3 times per week. How many people out of 100,000 could be expected to ride the city bus at least 3 times each week?
A
55,000
B
70,000
C
72,500
D
75,000
Question 529
The sum of a number and its double is 69. What is the number?
A
46.6
B
34.5
C
23
D
20
Question 530
Twelve less than 4 times a number is 20. What is the number?
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
Question 531
A certain number when added to 50% of itself is 27.What is the number?
A
7
B
9
C
11
D
18
Question 532
Rani will twice Raja’s age in 3 years when Raja will be 40. How many years old is Rani now?
A
20
B
80
C
77
D
37
Question 533
The perimeter of a parallelogram is 50 cm. The length of the parallelogram is 5 cm more than the width. Find the length of the parallelogram.
A
15 cm
B
11 cm
C
5 cm
D
10 cm
Question 534
Rahim travelled straight from point E to F at a distance of 5 km. From F he turned left and travelled 6 km and reached point G, there he took a left turn and travelled 5 km to reach point H. He took another left turn and travelled 2 km and reached point I. How far is he from the starting point?
A
3 km
B
4 km
C
5 km
D
7 km
Question 535
A man is facing East, then he turns left and goes 10 m, then turns right and goes 5 m, then goes 5 m to the South and from there 5 m to West. In which direction is he, from his original place?
A
East
B
West
C
North
D
South
Question 536
Kevlar​ belongs to a class of materials known as
A
Ceramics
B
Polymers
C
Carbon
D
Plastics
Question 537
There exists a construct which returns a value ‘true’ if the argument subquery is :
A
empty
B
non-empty
C
in error
D
none of the above
Question 537 Explanation: 
The exists construct returns the value true if the argument subquery is nonempty.
1. exists r ⇔ r ≠ ∅
2. not exists r ⇔ r = ∅
Question 538
Consider the following two statements.
(A) There are infinitely many interesting whole numbers.
(B) There are finitely many uninteresting whole numbers.
Which of the following is true?
A
Statements A and B are equivalent.
B
Statement A implies statement B.
C
Statement B implies statement A.
D
None of the above.
Question 538 Explanation: 
Since there are infinitely many numbers, if only finitely many are uninteresting, in- finitely many have to be interesting. The converse is not true. It is possible that infinitely many numbers are uninteresting (say, all the even numbers) while at the same time infinitely many are interesting (say, all the odd numbers, since they are odd). Since A does not imply B, A and B are not equivalent.
Question 539
The difference between the compound interest and the simple earned at the end of 3​ rd​ year on a sum of money at a rate of 10% per annul is Rs. 77.5. What is the sum?
A
Rs. 3,500
B
Rs. 2,500
C
Rs. 3,000
D
Rs. 2,000
Question 539 Explanation: 
Let principal be ‘x’
S.I = P T R / 100
S.I = X * 3 * 10 / 100
C.I = [ P (1 + (R / 100)T) - P]
C.I = [ X (1+ (10 / 100)3) - X]
C.I = 331X / 1000
Difference between Compound interest and Simple interest is 77.5
( 331X / 1000 ) - ( 3X / 10) = 77.5
31x / 1000 = 77.5
x = 2500.
Question 540
Aamir and Birju can cut 5000g of wood in 20 min. Birju and Charles can cut 5000g of wood in 40 min. Charles and Aamir cut 5 kg of wood in 30 min. How much time Charles will take to cut 5 kg wood alone?
A
120 min
B
48 min
C
240 min
D
120 min
Question 540 Explanation: 
Here in this question 5000g means 5kg only
So from that question Aamir (A) Birju (B) Charles (C)
Let Aamir, Birju and Charles alone can complete the work in A, B and C minutes respectively, then
1 min. work of (A+B)=1/20, (B+C)=1/40 and (C+A)=1/30
A + B + C = 13/240
1 min. work of C = (A+B+C) - (A+B) = 13/240 - 1/20 = 1/240
So C alone can complete the work in 240 min.
Question 541
An alloy contains copper and zinc in the ratio 5 : 3 and another contains copper and tin in the ratio 8 : 5, If equal weights of the two are melted together to form a 3​ rd​ alloy, find the weight of tin per kg in the new alloy.
A
40/129
B
5/13
C
5/26
D
28/5
Question 541 Explanation: 
Amount of copper in first alloy is 5x/8 and zinc is 3x/8.
Amount of copper in second alloy is 8x/13 and tin is 5x/13.
So after mixing tin is available in 2 alloy only that means in 3rd alloy 5x/13/2x
Tin present in 3rd alloy is 5/26.
Question 542
X is a whole number. If the only common factors of X and X2 are 1 and X, then X is _______
A
1
B
a perfect square
C
an odd number
D
a prime number
Question 542 Explanation: 
A number that is divisible only by itself and 1 is called prime number.
Question 543
Line AB is 24 metres in length and tangent to the inner one of the two concentric circles at point C, Points A and B lie on the circumference of the outer circle. It is known that the radii of the two circles are integers. The radius of the outer circle is
A
13m
B
5 m
C
7 m
D
4m
Question 543 Explanation: 

Given data,
AB=24cm
CB=12cm
θC=5cm(Assume)
θB=5​ 2​ +12​ 2​ =169
θB=13cm
Note: They forgot to mention the value 5. If we are considering value=5 then answer should be A.
Question 544
There are a number of tourist spots in a city and a company GoMad runs shuttle services between them. Each shuttle plies between a designated origin and destination, and has a name. Due to lack of coordination, the same name may be allotted to multiple routes. To make matters worse, another company GoCrazy introduces its shuttle services using the same set of shuttle names. A GoMad shuttle and a GoCrazy shuttle with the same name may start at different origins and/or end at different destinations. A pass from a company allows unlimited travel in all the company’s shuttles. For each company, we have a list that specifies all routes allotted to each shuttle name. Design an algorithm to find out if there is a source s, a target t, and a sequence of shuttle names σ such that, irrespective of whether you are carrying a GoMad pass or a GoCrazy pass, you can start at s and arrive at t using the sequence σ.
A
Descriptive Explanation
Question 544 Explanation: 
Create a graph where the set of vertices are pairs (Spot 1, Spot 2) of tourist spots. There is an edge labeled “Name 1” from (Spot 1, Spot 2) to (Spot 3, Spot 4) iff there is a GoMad shuttle “Name 1” from Spot 1 to Spot 3 and a GoCrazy shuttle “Name 1” from Spot 2 to Spot 4. The answer to the question is yes iff there is a directed path from a vertex (Spot 1, Spot 1) to a vertex (Spot 2, Spot 2).
Question 545
A group of war prisoners are trying to escape from a prison. They have thoroughly planned the escape from the prison itself, and after that they hope to find shelter in a nearby village. However, the village (marked as B, see picture below) and the prison (marked as A) are separated by a canyon which is also guarded by soldiers (marked as S). These soldiers sit in their pickets and rarely walk; the range of view of each soldier is limited to exactly 100 meters. Thus, depending on the locations of soldiers, it may be possible to pass the canyon safely, keeping the distance to the closest soldier strictly larger than 100 meters at any moment. The situation is depicted in the following picture, where the circles around S indicate range of view.

Provide an algorithm to determine if the prisoners can pass the canyon unnoticed, given the width and the length of the canyon and the coordinates of every soldier in the canyon, and assuming that soldiers do not change their locations. (Hint: Model this as a graph, with soldiers represented by the vertices.)
A
Explanation
Question 545 Explanation: 
Consider a graph G = (V ∪ {N, S}, E) where V = {v s | s is a soldier}. N and S are two special vertices representing the north and south boundary of the canyon, respectively. For two soldiers s and s 0 , (v s , v s 0 ) ∈ E iff s and s 0 are at most 200 meters apart. For a soldier s, (v s , N ) ∈ E iff s is at most 100 meters from the north boundary, and similarly (v s , S) ∈ E iff s is at most 100 meters from the south boundary. It is clear that the prisoners cannot pass the canyon unnoticed iff there is a path between N and S. Thus it suffices to test reachability of S from N using any standard algorithm (for instance, one based on breadth-first search).
Question 546
In Artificial Intelligence (AI), which agent deals with happy and unhappy state?
A
Simple reflex agent
B
Model based agent
C
Learning agent
D
Utility based agent
Question 546 Explanation: 
Simple reflex agents[edit]
Simple reflex agents act only on the basis of the current percept, ignoring the rest of the percept history. The agent function is based on the condition-action rule: "if condition, then action".
Model-based reflex agents: A model-based agent can handle partially observable environments. Its current state is stored inside the agent maintaining some kind of structure which describes the part of the world which cannot be seen. This knowledge about "how the world works" is called a model of the world, hence the name "model-based agent".
Utility-based agents: Goal-based agents only distinguish between goal states and non-goal states. It is possible to define a measure of how desirable a particular state is. This measure can be obtained through the use of a utility function which maps a state to a measure of the utility of the state. A more general performance measure should allow a comparison of different world states according to exactly how happy they would make the agent. The term utility can be used to describe how "happy" the agent is.
Learning agents: Learning has the advantage that it allows the agents to initially operate in unknown environments and to become more competent than its initial knowledge alone might allow. The most important distinction is between the "learning element", which is responsible for making improvements, and the "performance element", which is responsible for selecting external actions.
Question 547
Monisha is working with a real estate agent to find a location for the kids’ toy store she plans to open in her town. She is looking for a place that is either in the centre or not too far from the centre of town. It should also be attractive for the right kind of footfall too. Which of the following locations should Monisha’s agent call to her attention?
A
a storefront in a new high-rise building near the train station in the center of town whose occupants are mainly young, childless professionals who use the train to commute to their offices each day
B
a little shop three blocks away from the town’s main street, located across the street from an elementary school and next door to an ice cream store
C
a stand-alone storefront on a quiet residential street ten blocks away from the town’s center
D
a storefront in a small a strip mall located on the outskirts of town that is also occupied by a pharmacy and a dry cleaner
Question 547 Explanation: 
This option is both near the center of town and in a location where children and their parents are sure to be around. This is the only option that meets both of Monisha’s requirements.
Question 548
Reading is a psycholinguistic guessing game. To read critically is a skill as it is a demanding process. One must slow down one’s reading and, with a pencil in hand, perform specific operations on the text. Mark up the text with reactions, conclusions and questions. When one reads, one becomes an active participant.
A
critical reading is a slow, dull, but essential process.
B
the best critical reading happens at critical times in a person’s life.
C
readers should get in the habit of questioning the truth of what they read.
D
critical reading requires thoughtful and careful attention
Question 548 Explanation: 
Option-A FALSE: The author never says that reading is dull.
Option-B,C FALSE: Not related to given paragraph.
Option-D TRUE: The author stresses the need to read critically by performing thoughtful and careful operations on the text.
Question 549
Find the missing term:
60, 40, 55, 45, 50, 50,?
A
45
B
50
C
55
D
60
Question 549 Explanation: 
Question 550
Find the missing alphabet:
T, r, O, m, J,?
A
h
B
i
C
I
D
g
Question 550 Explanation: 
In between r and T there is letter is s
Likewise m and O letter is n
Same h is the next letter to fit in that sequence
Question 551
Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
Qmelaqali means fruitcake
Qalitiimmeo means cakewalk
Useguamao means buttercup
Which word could mean “cupcake”?
A
qalitiiqali
B
amaotiimmeo
C
pakitreft
D
amaoqali
Question 551 Explanation: 
Qmelaqali→ fruitcake
We can divide artificial language into parts.
Qmela→ fruit
qali→ cake
Qalitiimmeo→ cakewalk
We can divide artificial language into parts.
Qali→ cake
tiimmeo→ walk
Useguamao → buttercup
We can divide artificial language into parts.
Usegu→ butter
amao→ cup
cupcake→ ?
amao→ cup
qali→ cake
So, option-D is correct answer.
Question 552
A man walks 5 Km towards south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 Km he turns to the left and walks 5 Km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?
A
West
B
South
C
North-East
D
South- West
Question 552 Explanation: 
Question 553
If the consonants in the word ‘DROVE’ are first arranged alphabetically and the vowels are put in between two pairs of consonants in the alphabetical order, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the rearrangement?
A
D
B
E
C
R
D
O
Question 553 Explanation: 
In the word DROVE we have two vowels
Those are O and E
After consonants are arranged in alphabetically we got the word like DRV
But we have two place vowels in between two pairs of consonants we got finally DEROV
So right from fourth letter is E
Question 554
There is a queue in a ticketing office. Amanda is 10​ th​ from the front while Murthy is 25​ th from behind and Marta is just in the middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the queue. What position does Marta occupy from the front?
A
16
B
18
C
15
D
17
Question 554 Explanation: 
Question 555
There are five janitors. Pali, Qureshi, Rohan, Sant and Timber. They all have a different height, Qureshi is shorter than only Timber and Sant is shorter than Pali and Qureshi. Who among them is the shortest?
A
Rohan
B
Sant
C
Pali
D
Data inadequate
Question 555 Explanation: 
From that question we can decide Pali Quereshi sant and timber but Rohan is not mentioned there. So Data inadequate is answer.
Question 556
A $ B means A is the father of B; A # B means A is the sister of B; A * B means A is the daughter of B and A @ B means A is the brother of B. Which of the following indicates that M is the wife of Q?
A
Q $ R # T @ M
B
Q $ R @ T # M
C
Q $ R * T # M
D
Q $ R @ T * M
Question 556 Explanation: 
Q $ R means R’s father is Q
R @ T means T’s brother is R
T * M means M’s Daughter T
Finally M’s Daughter is T and T’s Brother is R and R’s father is Q so Q’s wife is M.
Question 557
Count the number of squares in the given figure.
A
32
B
30
C
29
D
28
Question 557 Explanation: 
For this type of questions there is one formula that is
[ n (n+1)(2n+1) ] / 6
Here n is 4 because it’s 4 x 4
[ 4 (4+1)(8+1) ] / 6
30
Question 558
Who was the Viceroy of India, when Quit India Resolution was passed in 1942?
A
Lord Linlithgow
B
Lord Wavell
C
Lord Willingdon
D
Lord Mountbatten
Question 559
When was the East India Association set up?
A
1866
B
1857
C
1836
D
1885
Question 560
Who was the Spanish navigator who set out to discover India, but instead landed on the soil of America?
A
Christopher Columbus
B
Vasco Da Gama
C
James Cook
D
None of above
Question 561
Which dynasty was ruling over north India when Alexander the great invaded India?
A
Gupta Dynasty
B
Maurya Dynasty
C
Sakya Dynasty
D
Nanda Dynasty
Question 562
The roads of cities in the Indus Valley Civilization generally divided the city into
A
Rectangular Blocks
B
Circular Blocks
C
Triangular Blocks
D
None of above
Question 563
In which year was Pulitzer Prize established?
A
1917
B
1918
C
1922
D
1928
Question 564
‘Kanchipuram’ is in which of the following states?
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Orissa
C
Kerala
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 565
Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations Organizations?
A
International Labour Organisation
B
Security Council
C
International Court of Justice
D
General Assembly
Question 566
Which of the following is not a member of G-15?
A
Indonesia
B
Malaysia
C
Columbia
D
India
Question 567
The group of metals Co, Ni, Fe may best called as
A
Transition metals
B
Main group metals
C
Alkali metals
D
Rare metals
Question 568
Non stick cooking utensils are coated with
A
Black paint
B
PVC
C
Teflon
D
Polystyrene
Question 569
The international township built near Pondicherry in India in coloration with UNEESCO is called
A
Elbaville
B
Auroville
C
Gayaville
D
Broadway
Question 570
Irvin sold a book at a profit of 12%. If Irvin had sold it for Rs. 18 more, then 18% would have been gained. Find the cost price.
A
Rs. 600
B
Rs. 300
C
Rs. 400
D
Rs. 200
Question 570 Explanation: 
Explanation: Let CP = 100%
Sold on 12% profit means sold on 112%
now 18% would have been gained means 118% if Rs 18 was more it means 118% - 112% = 18 Rs
so 6%=18Rs
so 100% = (18/6)×100 = 3× 100 = 300 Rs
CP = 300
Question 571
In a group of 7 people, the average age is found to be 17 years. Two more people joined with an average age 19 years. One person left the group whose age was 25 years. What is the new average age of the group?
A
17.5 Years
B
16.5 Years
C
18 Years
D
16 Years
Question 571 Explanation: 
7 people, the average age is found to be 17 years means 17 * 7 = 119
Two more joined with an average age 19 years means 19 * 2 = 38 So total is 157
But one person left from that group whose age is 25 years 157 - 25 = 132
Remaining average of 8 people is 132 / 8
16.5 Year
Question 572
A 300 meter long metro train crosses a platform in a metro station in 39 seconds while it crosses a lamp post in 18 seconds. What is the length of the platform?
A
250 meter
B
350 meter
C
520 meter
D
300 meter
Question 572 Explanation: 
Speed = Distance/time = 300/18 = 50/3 m/sec
Let the length of the platform be x meters
Distance = Speed * Time
x+300 = (50/3) * 39
x = 350
Question 573
Assume that a sum of money is divided equally among n girls. Each girl will receive $ 60. If another girl is added to the group and the sum is divided equally among all the girls, each child girl a $ 50 share. What is the sum of money?
A
$ 3000
B
$ 300
C
$ 110
D
$ 10
Question 573 Explanation: 
From that question 60 * n = 50 (n + 1)
n = 5
so sum of money is 60 * 5 = 300
Question 574
A tank can be filled by one tap in 10 minutes and by another in 30 minutes. Both the taps are kept open for 5 minutes and then the first one is shut off. In how many minutes more is the tank completely filled?
A
5
B
7.5
C
10
D
12
Question 574 Explanation: 
A tank can be filled in 10 mins
another one is in 30 mins and those taps are opened for 5 mins
so in one min one tap is 1/10 another one is 1/30
both can tank open for 5 mins so (1/10 + 1/30 ) * 5
= (2/15) * 5
= 10/15
= 2⁄3
Remaining work is 1- (2⁄3)
= 1⁄3
The left work has to be done by first Tap because first is shut off.
Work will be completed by Second Tap in= (1⁄3) * 30 = 10
Question 575
From the four choices provided, choose the analogy that is most similar to the one in the question.
Wealth : Poverty
A
part: whole
B
good: excellent
C
prodigal : chary
D
wicked : sinful
Question 575 Explanation: 
Wealth is opposite to Poverty and Prodigal opposite word is chary.
Wealth: an abundance of valuable possessions or money
Poverty: The state of being extremely poor.
Prodigal: spending money or using resources freely and recklessly
chary: Cautiously or suspiciously reluctant to do something.
Question 576
From the four choices provided, choose the analogy that is most similar to the one in the question.
Misfortune : Catastrophe
A
miniature : big
B
limited : infinite
C
knowledge : learning
D
generosity : parsimony
Question 576 Explanation: 
Misfortune is related to Catastrophe and knowledge is related to learning.
Misfortune: An unfortunate condition or event.
Catastrophe: An event causing great and usually sudden damage or suffering.
Question 577
From the four choices provided, choose the analogy that is most similar to the one in the question.
Molecule : Atoms
A
family : sisters
B
light : bulb
C
tissue : cells
D
body : limb
Question 577 Explanation: 
Molecule is a group of atoms bonded together.
Tissue is any of the distinct types of material of which animals or plants are made, consisting of specialized cells and their products.
Question 578
From the four choices provided, choose the analogy that is most similar to the one in the question.
Limp : Walk
A
flap : fly
B
run : race
C
stutter : talk
D
chew : digest
Question 578 Explanation: 
Limp is related to walk and shutter is related to talk.
Limp: Walk with difficulty, typically because of a damaged or stiff leg or foot.
Question 579
From the four choices provided, choose the analogy that is most similar to the one in the question.
Riddle : Solve
A
mirage : illusion
B
joke : amuse
C
tangle : unravel
D
target : aim
Question 579 Explanation: 
Riddle is related to Solve and tangle is related to unravel
Riddle: A question or statement intentionally phrased so as to require ingenuity in ascertaining its answer or meaning.
Tangle: Twist together into a confused mass.
unravel: undo (twisted, knitted, or woven threads).
Question 580
Fact 1 : All chickens are birds.
Fact 2 : Some chickens are hens.
Fact 3 : Female birds lay eggs.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? i. All birds lay eggs.
ii. Hens are birds.
iii. Some chickens are not hens.
A
ii only
B
ii and iii only
C
I, ii and iii
D
None of the statements is a known fact
Question 580 Explanation: 

According to venn diagram, (i) is FALSE because male birds never lay eggs. (ii) and (iii) are TRUE
Question 581
What is the most essential thing for election?
A
President
B
Voter
C
November
D
Nation
Question 582
What is the most essential thing for ovation?
A
Outburst
B
bravo
C
applause
D
encore
Question 583
Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.”How is the woman related to this man?
A
Mother
B
Aunt
C
Sister
D
Daughter
Question 583 Explanation: 
Only son of her grandfather -- Her father;
Man's brother's father -- man's father.
So, man's father is her father i.e., She is the man's sister.
Question 584
Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son.” Whose photograph was it?
A
His Own
B
His Son
C
His Father
D
His Grandfather
Question 584 Explanation: 
Since the person who is telling has no brother or sister, so his father son is he himself.
So the man in the photograph is his son.
Question 585
Find the number of quadrilaterals in the given figure.
A
6
B
7
C
9
D
11
Question 585 Explanation: 
→ The word "quadrilateral" is derived from the Latin words quadri, a variant of four, and latus, meaning "side".
→ A quadrilateral is a polygon with four edges (or sides) and four vertices or corners.
→ According to figure, we can label first and get total quadrilaterals.

Quadrilaterals are 1234, 1245, 1246, 1248, 3481, 3451, 3461, 4517, 4561, 6178 and 1748.
Question 586
Count the number of convex pentagons in the adjoining figure.
A
16
B
12
C
8
D
4
Question 586 Explanation: 
A convex polygon is a simple polygon (not self-intersecting) in which no line segment between two points on the boundary ever goes outside the polygon.

The pentagons are 12468, 34682, 56824, 78246, 13467, 35681, 57823, 71245, 24578, 46712, 68134 and 82356.
Question 587
There is a family of six people whose nicknames are Pat, Qat, Rat, Sat, Tat and Uat. Their professionals are Engineer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman, Manager and Lawyer. There are two married couples in the family. The Manager is the grandfather of Uat, who is an Engineer Rat, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher Qat is the mother of Uat and Tat. The Doctor, Sat is married to the Manager.

How many male members are there in the family?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
Data Inadequate
Question 587 Explanation: 
Question 588
There is a family of six people whose nicknames are Pat, Qat, Rat, Sat, Tat and Uat. Their professionals are Engineer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman, Manager and Lawyer. There are two married couples in the family. The Manager is the grandfather of Uat, who is an Engineer Rat, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher Qat is the mother of Uat and Tat. The Doctor, Sat is married to the Manager.

What is the professional of Pat?
A
Lawyer
B
Lawyer or Teacher
C
Manager
D
None of these
Question 588 Explanation: 
Question 589
There is a family of six people whose nicknames are Pat, Qat, Rat, Sat, Tat and Uat. Their professionals are Engineer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman, Manager and Lawyer. There are two married couples in the family. The Manager is the grandfather of Uat, who is an Engineer Rat, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher Qat is the mother of Uat and Tat. The Doctor, Sat is married to the Manager.

Who are the married couples in the family?
A
Pat-Qat and Sat-Rat
B
Rat-Uat and Sat-Tat
C
Pat-Tat and Sat-Rat
D
Pat-Sat and Rat-Qat
Question 589 Explanation: 
Question 590
There is a family of six people whose nicknames are Pat, Qat, Rat, Sat, Tat and Uat. Their professionals are Engineer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman, Manager and Lawyer. There are two married couples in the family. The Manager is the grandfather of Uat, who is an Engineer Rat, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher Qat is the mother of Uat and Tat. The Doctor, Sat is married to the Manager.

How Pat is related to Tat?
A
Father
B
Grandfather
C
Mother
D
Grandmother
Question 590 Explanation: 
Question 591
Shirin went to a bakery and bought items worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paise went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the cost of the tax free items?
A
Rs. 12
B
Rs. 19.70
C
Rs. 19.10
D
Rs. 18.80
Question 591 Explanation: 
Total cost of the items he purchased = Rs.25
Given that out of this Rs.25, 30 Paise is given as tax => Total tax incurred = 30 Paise = Rs.30/100
Let the cost of the tax free items = x
Given that tax rate = 6%
( 25 - 30/100 - x ) * (6/100) = 30 / 100
6(25−0.3−x)=30
x=25−0.3−5=19.7
Question 592
The rate of simple interest on a sum of money is 6 percent per annum for the first 3 years, 8 per cent per annum for the next 5 years and 10 per cent per annum for the period beyond 8 years. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 10 years is Rs. 1,560, what is the sum?
A
Rs. 1,500
B
Rs. 3,000
C
Rs. 2,000
D
Data Inadequate
Question 592 Explanation: 
Sum = (1560 * 100 ) / ( 3 * 6 + 8 * 5 + 2 * 10 ) = 2000
Question 593
Adrian starts a start-up with a capital of Rs. 85,000. Brian joins in the start-up with Rs. 42,500 after sometime. For how much period does Brian join, if the profits at the end of the year are divided in the ratio of 3 : 1?
A
5 months
B
6 months
C
7 months
D
8 months
Question 593 Explanation: 
Let B joins for X months.
Then,
(Profit of A)/(Profit of B) = 3/1
(85000 * 12)/(42500 *X) = 3/1
85000 * 12 = 42500 * 3 * X
X = 8.
B Joined for 8 months
Question 594
A car travels at an average of 50 miles per hour for 2.5 hours and then travels at a speed of 70 miles per hour for 1.5 hours. How far did the car travel in the entire 4 hours?
A
210 miles
B
230 miles
C
250 miles
D
260 miles
Question 594 Explanation: 
Speed= 50 miles/ hour Time=2.5 hour
speed=70 miles / hour Time=1.5 hour
Speed= Distance/ time
Distance= speed x Time
=50×2.5+70×1.5
=125+105
=230 miles
Question 595
By selling 45 limes for Rs. 40, a woman loses 20%. How many should she sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
A
16
B
18
C
20
D
22
Question 595 Explanation: 
SP of 45 limes is Rs.40
loss = 20%
So CP of 45 limes would be 40*100/80= Rs. 50
To gain 20% She should sell these 45 limes for =50*20/100=Rs. 60
Now If she sells for Rs. 60 = 45 limes
So for Rs. 24 he would sell = (24/60)*45 = 18 limes
Question 596
The prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award was conferred upon Ms. Kiran Bedi for her excellent contribution to which of the following fields?
A
Literature
B
Community Welfare
C
Government
D
Journalism
Question 597
Who among the following is not a recipient of ‘Dada Saheb Phalke’ Award?
A
Ramanand Sagar
B
Raj Kapoor
C
V. Shantaram
D
Ashok Kumar
Question 598
What is part of a database that holds only one type of information?
A
Report
B
Field
C
Record
D
File
Question 598 Explanation: 
Record holds only specific and one type of information.
Question 599
‘.JPG’ extension refers usually to what kind of file?
A
System file
B
Animation/movie file
C
MS Encarta document
D
Image file
Question 599 Explanation: 
‘.JPG’ extension used for image files.
Question 600
Which of the following is not written by Munshi Premchand?
A
Gaban
B
Godan
C
Guide
D
Manasorovar
Question 601
The famous Dilwara Temples are situated in
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Rajasthan
C
Maharashtra
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 602
In the following questions choose the word opposite in the meaning to the given word.
Antagonism:
A
Cordiality
B
Animosity
C
Hostility
D
Enmity
Question 602 Explanation: 
→ Actual meaning of Antagonism is active hostility or opposition.
→ Antonyms are hostility, enmity, antipathy, dislike, hatred, aggression.
Question 603
In the following questions choose the word opposite in the meaning to the given word.
Hasten:
A
Dash
B
Dawdle
C
Hurry
D
Scurry
Question 603 Explanation: 
→ Hasten meaning is be quick to do something.
→ Antonyms are dally, dawdle, dillydally, drag, hang (around or out), lag, linger, loiter, poke, tarry, amble, lumber, plod, saunter, shuffle, stroll.
Question 604
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
Camouflage:
A
Disguise
B
Cover
C
Demonstrate
D
Fabric
Question 604 Explanation: 
→ Camouflage meaning is the disguising of military personnel, equipment, and installations by painting or covering them to make them blend in with their surroundings.
→ Camouflage synonyms are costume, disguise, guise.
Question 605
In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
Yearn:
A
Deny
B
Accept
C
Confront
D
Crave
Question 605 Explanation: 
→ Yearn meaning is have an intense feeling of longing for something, typically something that one has lost or been separated from.
→ Yearn synonym is ache, covet, crave, desiderate, desire, die, hanker.
Question 606
The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a magazine. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions based on it.

What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Royalty ?
A
15​ 0
B
24​ 0
C
54​ 0
D
48​ 0
Question 606 Explanation: 
According to Diagram the circle is in the form of 360°
From that Diagram Expenditure incurred on Royalty is 15%
ஃ 360*(15/100) = 54°
Question 607
The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a magazine. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions based on it.

The price of the magazine is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the magazine is ₹ 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the magazine?
A
₹ 36
B
₹ 37.50
C
₹ 42
D
₹ 44.25
Question 607 Explanation: 
Let’s C.P = x
M.P = 120 x / 100
From that question M.P of Magazine is = 180/-
Cost of the paper in a single copy = ?
From the above details we have to find out C.P first
180 x = x (120 x / 100)
After solving this
x = 150
Cost of the paper in a single copy
= 150 * (25/100)
= 37.50
Question 608
The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a magazine. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions based on it.

If for a certain quantity of magazine, the publisher has to pay ₹ 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be paid for these magazines?
A
₹ 19,450
B
₹ 21,200
C
₹ 22950
D
₹26,150
Question 608 Explanation: 
Printing Cost=30,600/- that means 20% according to Diagram
Royalty cost=x
∴20 % →30,600
15% →x
Do Cross Multiplication
(20/100) * x=30,600 * (15/100)
x=22,950/-
Question 609
The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a magazine. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions based on it.

Royalty on the magazine is less than the printing cost by:
A
5%
B
33 (1 / 5 )
C
20%
D
25%
Question 609 Explanation: 
According to Diagram
Printing Cost = 20%
Royalty Cost = 15%
How much percentage royalty cost is less than printing cost
((20-15) / 20 ) * 100 = 50/2 = 25%
Question 610
The table given here shows production of five types of cars by a company in the year 2010 to 2015. Study the table and answer the questions.


In which year the production of cars of all types taken together was approximately equal to average during the period?
A
2010
B
2012
C
2014
D
2015
Question 610 Explanation: 
Take the sum of all cars by years = (88+78+90+87+133) = 476
Average during the period = 476/6 = 79.33.
Year 2014 is approximately equal
option C correct.
Question 611
The table given here shows production of five types of cars by a company in the year 2010 to 2015. Study the table and answer the questions.


In which year the total production of cars of types P and Q together was equal to the total production of cars of types R and S together?
A
2011
B
2012
C
2015
D
None of the above
Question 611 Explanation: 
In this question we have to verify from options, so we can easily find which one is same
P+Q in 2011 -----> 20+10 = 30
R+S in 2011 ------> 17+6 = 23
option A is wrong
P+Q in 2012 ----> 16+14 = 30
R+S in 2012 ----> 16+10 = 26
option B is wrong
P+Q in 2015 ---> 6+14 = 20
R+S in 2015 ---> 31+8 = 39
option C is wrong
So finally option D is correct.
Question 612
The table given here shows production of five types of cars by a company in the year 2010 to 2015. Study the table and answer the questions.


The production of which type of cars was 25% of the total production of all types of cars during 2014?
A
S
B
R
C
Q
D
P
Question 612 Explanation: 
From that table in 2014 total production of cars was 80.
So,
100% -----> 80
25% ------> x
(25 * 80) / 100 = 20.
From that table 20 cars are from Type S .
Question 613
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
1.P,Q,R,S,T and U six members of a family each of them engaged in a different profession Doctor, Lawyer, Teacher, Engineer, Nurse and Manager.
2.Each of them remains at home on a different day of the week from Monday to Saturday.
3.The Lawyer in the family remain at home on Thursday.
4.R remains at home on Tuesday.
5.P, a Doctor, does not remain at home either on Saturday or on Wednesday.
6.S is neither the doctor nor the Teacher and remains at home on Friday,
7.Q is the Engineer and T is the Manager.

Which of the following combinations is correct?
A
Lawyer-Tuesday
B
Nurse-Friday
C
Manager-Friday
D
Engineer-Thursday
Question 613 Explanation: 
Question 614
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
1.P,Q,R,S,T and U six members of a family each of them engaged in a different profession Doctor, Lawyer, Teacher, Engineer, Nurse and Manager.
2.Each of them remains at home on a different day of the week from Monday to Saturday.
3.The Lawyer in the family remain at home on Thursday.
4.R remains at home on Tuesday.
5.P, a Doctor, does not remain at home either on Saturday or on Wednesday.
6.S is neither the doctor nor the Teacher and remains at home on Friday,
7.Q is the Engineer and T is the Manager.

Which of the following combinations is not correct?
A
R-Teacher
B
Q-Engineer
C
T-Manager
D
S-Lawyer
Question 614 Explanation: 
Question 615
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
1.P,Q,R,S,T and U six members of a family each of them engaged in a different profession Doctor, Lawyer, Teacher, Engineer, Nurse and Manager.
2.Each of them remains at home on a different day of the week from Monday to Saturday.
3.The Lawyer in the family remain at home on Thursday.
4.R remains at home on Tuesday.
5.P, a Doctor, does not remain at home either on Saturday or on Wednesday.
6.S is neither the doctor nor the Teacher and remains at home on Friday,
7.Q is the Engineer and T is the Manager.

Who is the Nurse ?
A
S
B
R
C
U
D
Data inadequate
Question 615 Explanation: 
Question 616
Three of the words will be in the same classification the remaining one will not be. Your answer will be the one word that does NOT belong in the same classification as the others.

Which word does NOT belong to the others ?
A
Tape
B
Twine
C
Cord
D
Yarn
Question 616 Explanation: 
Twine, Cord, Yarn all are similar words.
Tape is Different one.
Question 617
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
1.Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F are taking their breakfast in two groups facing one another.
2.D and A are not in the same row .
3.E is to the left of F and faces C.
4.B is in the middle of a group.
5.D is to the left of B.

Who faces B?
A
C
B
A
C
E
D
F
Question 617 Explanation: 
The arrangement as follows:
D B C
________
A F E
________
F faces B
Question 618
If the difference between a number and 1/5​ th​ of it is 84, what is the number ?
A
115
B
95
C
105
D
125
Question 618 Explanation: 
Let’s number = x
Difference between a number and 1/5th of is 84 means
x - (x/5) = 84
4x / 5 = 84
x = 105
Question 619
The ratio of ages of the father and his son at present is 12 : 5, the difference of their age is 28 years. What will be the ratio of their Ages after eight years?
A
2 : 2
B
3 : 1
C
2 : 1
D
3 : 2
Question 619 Explanation: 
From the question
Father’s present age = 12x ---> (i)
son’s present age = 5x ---> (ii)
Difference between their age is = 28
12x - 5x = 28
x= 4
Substitute x value in (i) and (ii)
Father’s present age = 48
son’s present age = 20
Ratio of their ages after eight years
Father’s age : Son’s age
48+8 : 20+8
56 : 28
2 : 1
Question 620
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
1.Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F are taking their breakfast in two groups facing one another.
2.D and A are not in the same row .
3.E is to the left of F and faces C.
4.B is in the middle of a group.
5.D is to the left of B.

Who of the following are sitting in the same row ?
A
AEB
B
EFB
C
DEF
D
AEF
Question 620 Explanation: 
D B C
________
A F E
AEF sitting in the same row.
Question 621
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
1.Six persons A,B,C,D,E and F are taking their breakfast in two groups facing one another.
2.D and A are not in the same row .
3.E is to the left of F and faces C.
4.B is in the middle of a group.
5.D is to the left of B.

Which of the following pairs are facing each other ?
A
CA
B
BA
C
DA
D
DE
Question 621 Explanation: 
D B C
________
A F E
DA is facing each other.
Question 622
Find the missing number in the following question ?

A
32
B
42
C
62
D
82
Question 622 Explanation: 
From that First figure we can analyze like
729 ---> 27*27
841 ---> 29*29
784 ---> 28*28
27+29+28 = 84
The same logic we can apply for next diagram
225 ---> 15*15
169 ---> 13*13
196 ---> 14*14
15+13+14 = 42
Question 623
If ÷ means +, – means ÷, X means – and + means X, then
A
1
B
-1
C
2
D
0
E
None of the above
Question 623 Explanation: 
Excluded for evaluation. Question and options are wrong
Question 624
In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it . Choose the correct alternative.

aaa_bb_aab_baaa_bb
A
abab
B
bbaa
C
babb
D
baab
Question 624 Explanation: 
They given sequence is 3 consecutive a’s and 3 consecutive b’s forming a sequence.
aaa​ b ​ bb​ a ​ aab​ b ​ baaa​ b ​ bb
Question 625
abca_bcaab_aa_caa_c
A
bbac
B
bbaa
C
acbb
D
acac
Question 625 Explanation: 
They given sequence is following “abca” order.
abca​ a ​ bcaab​ c ​ aa​ b ​ caa​ b ​ c
Question 626
In each of the following questions, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
125, 126, 124, 127, 123, 129
A
123
B
124
C
126
D
129
Question 626 Explanation: 
Question 627
52, 51, 48, 34, 27, 16
A
51
B
48
C
34
D
43
Question 627 Explanation: 
Question 628
In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank space.
6, 25,_______________, 123, 214, 341.
A
65
B
70
C
72
D
62
Question 628 Explanation: 
Question 629
71, 76, 69, 74, 67, 72, ______________
A
65
B
76
C
77
D
80
Question 629 Explanation: 
Question 630
50, 49, 46, 41, 34, _______________
A
32
B
25
C
21
D
19
Question 631
In each of the following questions, find out the correct answer from the given alternatives.
If in a certain language MECHANICS is coded as HCEMASCIN, how is POSTER coded in that code?
A
OPSTER
B
SOPRET
C
RETSOP
D
TERPOS
Question 631 Explanation: 
MECHANICS
MECH ---> HCEM
A ---> A
NICS ---> SCIN
After Combined coded letters, We got
HCEMASCIN
We have total 9 Letters. So middle one we kept like constant and remaining letters are coded as reversed.
From that POSTER
POS ---> SOP
TER ---> RET
After combined
SOPRET.
Question 632
If TABLE IS CODED AS GZYOV, how is JUICE coded?
A
OZLFJ
B
QFRXV
C
HOFAD
D
QZHMT
Question 632 Explanation: 
Question 633
In the each of the following questions, there is a certain relation between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear.Choose the best alternative.

Engineer : Map : : Bricklayer : ?
A
Design
B
Templet
C
Mould
D
Cement
Question 633 Explanation: 
→ Engineer is working according to map and plan.
→ Bricklayer is constructing temples using bricks
Question 634
In the each of the following questions, there is a certain relation between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear.Choose the best alternative.

Major : Battalion : : Colonel : ?
A
Company
B
Regiment
C
Army
D
Soldiers
Question 634 Explanation: 
Both the series words are belongs to armed forces.
→ Battalion is a group instructed by Major.
→ Regiment is permanent unit of army instructed by Colonel
Question 635
Virology : Virus : : Semantics : ?
A
Amoeba
B
Language
C
Nature
D
Society
Question 635 Explanation: 
→ Virology is a subject deals with the virus.
→ Semantic is a subject deals with the language.
Question 636
The following questions consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of the words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

Symphony : Music
A
Mural : Painting
B
Ode : Prose
C
Preface : Book
D
Editorial : Journal
Question 636 Explanation: 
→ Symphony is a instrument used by music.
→ Mural is a instrument used by painting
Question 637
The following questions consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of the words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

Medicine : Capsule
A
Pearl : Shell
B
Passenger : Bus
C
Heart : Lungs
D
Car : Vehicle
Question 637 Explanation: 
→ Medicine is contained in capsule
→ Pearl is contained in shell
Question 638
Identity : Anonymity
A
Flow : Perfection
B
Careless : Mistake
C
Truth : Lie
D
Fear : Joy
E
None of the above
Question 638 Explanation: 
Excluded for evaluation. Question and options are wrong.
Question 639
Each of the following questions the first two words have definite relationship. Choose one word out of the given four alternatives which will fill in the blank space and show the same relationship with the third word as between the first two.

Cobra is related to Snake in the same way as leopard is related to ____________
A
Tiger
B
Lion
C
Cat
D
Zebra
Question 639 Explanation: 
→ Cobra is related to Snake
→ Leopard is related to Cat
Question 640
Each of the following questions the first two words have definite relationship. Choose one word out of the given four alternatives which will fill in the blank space and show the same relationship with the third word as between the first two.

Memorise is to Amnesia as Movement is to _____________
A
Lubrication
B
Lethargy
C
Paralysis
D
Hermit
Question 640 Explanation: 
Amnesia is a partial or total loss of memory.
→ Memorise is to Amnesia
Paralysis is ​ the loss of the ability to move (and sometimes to feel anything) in part or most of the body, typically as a result of illness, poison, or injury.
→ ​ Movement is to Paralysis
Question 641
In each of the following questions, three out of the four alternatives contain alphabet placed in a particular form. Find the one that does not belong to the group.
A
BCDEI
B
PQRSW
C
LMNOS
D
HIKLO
Question 641 Explanation: 

Question 642
In each of the following questions, three out of the four alternatives contain alphabet placed in a particular form. Find the one that does not belong to the group.
A
LNMO
B
CRDT
C
EUFV
D
GWHX
Question 642 Explanation: 

Question 643
In each of the following questions, three out of the four alternatives contain alphabet placed in a particular form. Find the one that does not belong to the group.
A
CBAZ
B
AZYX
C
AZBY
D
PONM
Question 643 Explanation: 
Question 644
In each of the following questions, three out of the four alternatives contain alphabet placed in a particular form. Find the one that does not belong to the group.
A
JMP
B
RUX
C
UYB
D
EHK
Question 644 Explanation: 
Question 645
A train started from Mumbai at 6.00 A.M. On the next (second) station 1/3 passengers got down and 96 got in. On the next (third) station, 1⁄2 of the total passengers present in the train, got down and 12 came in. Now there were 248 passengers in the train, when the train started from Mumbai, the number of passengers was :
A
435
B
564
C
654
D
736
Question 645 Explanation: 
Let’s take number of passengers in a train = x
on second station 1⁄3 rd passengers got down and 96 got in = (x - (x/3)) + 96
on third station 1⁄2 got down and 12 got in = (((x-(x/3))+96)/2)+12 Now there were 248 passengers
(((x-(x/3))+96)/2)+12 =248
x=564
Question 646
The LCM of two numbers is 45 times their HCF. If the sum of the LCM and the HCF of these two numbers is 1150 and one of the numbers is 125, then the other number is :
A
256
B
225
C
250
D
255
Question 646 Explanation: 
Let the lcm be x and hcf be y and the other number be z.
Given lcm of 2 numbers is 45 times their hcf, the sum of HCF + LCM is 1150.
y = 45x. ---- (1)
x + y = 1150 --- (2)
Substitute equation (1) in (2), we get
46x = 1150
x = 25.
Substitute x = 25 in (1), we get
y = 45 * 25 = 1125.
We know that product of two numbers = LCM * HCF
125 * z = 25 * 1125
z = 25 * 1125/125 = 225.
The other number = 225.
Question 647
Find out the wrong term from the following series and select the number from the alternatives which will replace the wrong term in the series.

299, 178, 97, 48, 24, 14, 13 :
A
175
B
295
C
23
D
10
Question 647 Explanation: 
From that sequence we found out
-121, -81, -49, -24, -10, -1.
From the above sequence 24 is replace with 23.
So we get perfect sequence.
Question 648
Find out the wrong term from the following series and select the number from the alternatives which will replace the wrong term in the series.

2, 9, 28, 126, 216, 344 :
A
38
B
217
C
356
D
66
Question 648 Explanation: 
1^3 + 1 = 2
2^3 + 1 = 9
3^3 + 1 = 28
4^3 + 1 = 65
5^3 + 1 = 126
But
6^3 + 1 = 217 and,
Given is 216 so its odd or wrong.
7^3 + 1 = 344.
Question 649
The ratio between Sumit’s and the Prakash’s age at present is 2 : 3. Sumit is 6 years younger than Prakash. The ratio of Sumit’s age to Prakash’s age after six years will be
A
1 : 2
B
2 : 3
C
3 : 4
D
3 : 8
Question 649 Explanation: 
Sumit’s age = 2x
Prakash’s age = 3x
Sumit is 6 years younger than Prakash means
Prakash = Sumit + 6
Prakash - Sumit = 6
3x - 2x = 6
x = 6
So, Sumit’s age = 12
Prakash’s age = 18
Ratio of Sumit’s age and Prakash’s age after six years
12+6 : 18+6
18 : 24
3 : 4
Question 650
Two pipes A and B can fill a water tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and third pipe C can empty at the rate of 3 gallons per minute. If A, B and C opened together filed the tank in 15 minutes, the capacity (in gallons) of the tank is :
A
60
B
120
C
150
D
180
Question 650 Explanation: 
Work done by the waste pipe in 1 minute
= (1/15) - ((1/20) + (1/24))
= -1/40 (Negative means it’s emptying)
Volume of the 1/40 = 3 gallons = (40 * 3) = 120 gallons
Question 651
A can run 200 m in 35 seconds and B in 38 seconds. By what distance A beats B ?
A
15m
B
15 (2/3)m
C
15 (15/19)m
D
15 (4/19)m
Question 652
A train starts at 7 a.m. from A towards B with a speed of 50 km/hr. Another train from B starts at 8 a.m. with a speed of 60 km/hr towards A. Both of them meet at 10 a.m. at C. The ratio of the distances AC to BC is :
A
4 : 5
B
5 : 4
C
5 : 6
D
6 : 5
Question 652 Explanation: 
Distance covered by A in 3 hours with the speed of 50 km/ h is = 50 *3 = 150km
Distance covered by B in 2 hours with the speed of 60 km/ h is = 60 * 2 = 120km =120 km
then AC:BC = 150:120 =5:4
Question 653
The average of the husband and his wife was 23 years at the time of their marriage. After five years they have a one year old child. The average age of the family now is :
A
29.3 years
B
28.5 years
C
23 years
D
19 years
Question 653 Explanation: 
Sum of the present ages of husband, wife and child = (23 * 2 + 5 * 2) + 1 = 57 years.
Required average = (57/3) = 19 years
Question 654
1/4​ th​ of 60% of a number is equal to 2/5​ th​ of 20% of another number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to that of second number ?
A
8 : 15
B
5 : 9
C
8 : 13
D
4 : 7
Question 654 Explanation: 
Let’s take two numbers x and y
(1⁄4) * (60 / 100) * x = (2⁄5) * (20/100) * y
After solving this one
we got ratios like x : y = 8 :15
Question 655
A&B together have ₹ 1210. If 4/15 of A’s amount is equal to 2/5 of B’s amount, how much amount does B have ?
A
₹ 664
B
₹ 550
C
₹ 484
D
₹ 460
Question 655 Explanation: 
From that question A + B = 1210 ---> (i)
(4/15) A = (2⁄5) B ---> (ii)
(2⁄3) A = B ---> (iii)
Sub (iii) in (i)
A + (2A/3) = 1210
A = 726 (Sub A value in (i) )
So,
B = 484
Question 656
How many one rupee coins, 50 paise coins and 25 paise coins of which the numbers are proportional to 4, 5 and 6 are together worth ₹ 32 ?
A
16, 20, 24
B
12, 16, 20
C
20, 24, 28
D
24, 28, 32
Question 656 Explanation: 
Question 657
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of obtaining a total score of 5 is :
A
1/18
B
1/12
C
1/9
D
None of these
Question 657 Explanation: 
Probability of obtaining a total score of 5 is {(1,4)(2,3)(3,2)(4,1)} = 4
Total Probability = 6 * 6 = 36
P(E) = 4 / 36 = 1 / 9
Question 658
A tradesman marks his goods at such a price that after allowing a discount of 15%, he earns a profit of 20%. Find the marked price of an article which costs him ₹ 850.
A
₹ 1200
B
₹ 1300
C
₹ 1250
D
₹ 1350
Question 658 Explanation: 
C.P = 850
M.P = x
Discount = 15%
S.P = x - (15x/100) = 85x / 100
S.P
= 120% of C.P
= (120/100) * 850
= 85 * 12
= 1020
Therefore S.P = (85X/100) = 1020
X = 1200
Question 659
In a camp, there are meals for 120 men or 200 children. If 150 children have taken their meals, how many men will be catered to with the remaining meal ?
A
50
B
40
C
30
D
20
Question 659 Explanation: 
There is a meal for 120 men and 200 children.
150 Children already taken meal. 50 Children remaining can also take a meal
200 Children = 120 men
50 Children = (120/200) * 50
= 30
Question 660
56 men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can 42 men complete the same piece of work ?
A
48
B
32
C
20
D
16
Question 660 Explanation: 
1 Men 1 Day work = (1/(56 *24))
42 Men in how many days = (1/(56 *24)) * 42 = 1/32
So,
42 Men can complete piece of work in 32 days.
Question 661
A boat travels upstream from P to Q and downstream from Q to P in 4 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is 12 km/hr and the speed of the current is 4 km/hr, then what is the distance from P to Q ?
A
31 (1/ 3) km
B
41( 1/ 3) km
C
21 (1 /3) km
D
11 (1/ 3) km
Question 661 Explanation: 
Speed of the boat in still water = 12 km/hr
Speed of the current = 4 km/hr
Speed of the upstream = 12 + 4 = 16 km/hr
Speed of the Downstream = 12 - 4 = 8 km/hr
Let the distance between P and Q be x
(x/16) + (x/8) = 4
x = 64 / 3
x = 21 (1⁄3)
Question 662
What is the maximum number of the handshakes that can happen in the room with 5 people in it?
A
15
B
10
C
6
D
5
Question 662 Explanation: 
Let’s suppose there is ‘n’ number of persons are there and each one suppose to do an handshake with ‘n-1 persons.
So, Total number of handshakes is = n(n-1) (with repetition)
But we need without repetition means distant handshakes (A→ B, B → A) so we divided by ‘2’
= n(n-1) / 2
= 5(5-1) / 2
= 10
Question 663
A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
A
120 meters
B
180 meters
C
324 meters
D
150 meters
Question 663 Explanation: 
Let’s take length of the train = ‘x’
Speed of the Train = 60km/hr and crosses a pole in 9 Seconds.
Speed of the train is km/hr and crosses a pole in seconds.
So we need to convert the km/hr into mts /sec.
For that one we need to multiply the speed of the train to (5/18).
Speed of the train = 60 * (5/18)
We have one Basic formula in Time and Distance
Distance = Speed * Time
x = 60 * (5/18) * 9
x = 150 mts
Question 664
The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1,920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1,280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?
A
Rs 2,000
B
Rs 2,200
C
Rs 2,400
D
Data inadequate
Question 664 Explanation: 
For this Problem, We need two important formulas.
1. %Profit = ((Selling Price - Cost Price) / (Cost Price) ) * 100
2. %Loss = ((Cost Price - Selling Price) / (Cost Price)) * 100
From the above question we know
% Profit = % Loss
Selling price when they got profit = 1920 /-
Selling price when they got loss = 1280 /-
((1920 - Cost Price ) / ( Cost Price) ) * 100 = (( Cost Price - 1280 ) / (Cost Price)) * 100
After Solving this
2 * Cost Price = 3200
Cost Price = 1600
We got cost price, Now we need to find out Selling price when they got 25% Profit
Cost Price = 1600
Profit% = 25
Selling Price = ?
%Profit = ((Selling Price - Cost Price) / (Cost Price) ) * 100
25 = ((Selling Price - 1600) / 1600)) * 100
25 * 16 = Selling Price - 1600
Selling Price = 1600 + 400
Selling Price = 2000/-
Question 665
A boatman goes 2 Km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 Km along the current in 10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 Km in stationary water?
A
40 minutes
B
1 hour
C
1 hr 15 min
D
1 hr 30 min
Question 665 Explanation: 
Speed of the Down Stream = 2 km/ 1 = 2 km/hr
Speed of the Upstream = 5km / (10/60) = 6km/hr
Speed of the Boat still in water = (Downstream + Upstream ) / 2 = (6 + 2) / 2
= 4 km/hr
Time taken for 5 km in Stationary water = 5/4 = 1(1⁄4)
= 1Hr 15 Min
Question 666
The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eighty years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).
A
8, 20, 28
B
16, 28, 36
C
20, 35, 45
D
None of the above
Question 666 Explanation: 
Present age of 3 persons is = 4x, 7x, 9x
Eight years ago their sum is = 56
So,
4x+7x+9x-(8+8+8) = 56 (Eight Years Ago so that we subtract their individual ages from present age)
20x = 80
x = 4
Present ages = 4 * 4 , 7*4, 9*4
= 16, 28, 36
Question 667
A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is?
A
6 hours
B
10 hours
C
15 hours
D
30 hours
Question 667 Explanation: 
Let’s take the first pipe to a fill a tank in ‘x’ hours.
So, from that question we know that second pipe fills a tank 5 hours faster than 1st pipe means second pipe fills a tank in ‘x/5’ hours.
And Second pipe fills a tank 4 hours slower than third pipe means third pipe can fill a tank in ‘x/20’ hours.
The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone.
(1 / x) + (5 / x) = (20 / x)
x = 15 Hours
Question 668
A rectangular field is to be fenced on three sides leaving a side of 20 feet uncovered. If the area of the field is 680 sq feet, how many feet of fencing will be required?
A
34
B
40
C
68
D
88
Question 668 Explanation: 
Given that length and area, so we can find the breadth.
Length x Breadth = Area
20 x Breadth = 680
Breadth = 34 feet
Area to be fenced = 2B + L = 2 (34) + 20 = 88 feet
Question 669
In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘CORPORATION’ be arranged so that the vowels always come together?
A
810
B
1440
C
2880
D
50400
Question 669 Explanation: 
In ‘CORPORATION’ We have total 5 vowels (OOAIO) and taken has one unit
Remaining Consonants are (CRPRTN) 6 and add vowels unit 1.
6 + 1 = 7 In this R is repeated 2 times
In ‘CORPORATION’ We have total 5 vowels (OOAIO) and taken has one unit Remaining Consonants are (CRPRTN) 6 and add vowels unit 1. 6 + 1 = 7 In this R is repeated 2 times So number of ways we can arrange these words = 7! / 2! = 2520
number of ways we can arrange vowels is 5!
2 ‘O’ are repeated so 5! / 2! = 20
Total Number ways = 2520 * 20 = 50400
So number of ways we can arrange these words = 7! / 2! = 2520
number of ways we can arrange vowels is 5!
2 ‘O’ are repeated so 5! / 2! = 20
Total Number ways = 2520 * 20 = 50400
Question 670
Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio of 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?
A
2 : 3 : 4
B
6 : 7 : 8
C
6 : 8 : 9
D
None of the above
Question 670 Explanation: 
Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio is 5:7:8.
There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively means
After increasing seats ratio will be
5 * (140/100) : 7 * (150/100) : 8 * (175/100)
5 * 140 : 7 * 150 : 8 * 175
28 : 42 : 56
2 : 3 : 4
Question 671
A flag staff 17.5 m high casts a shadow of length 40.25 m. The height of the building, which casts a shadow of length 28.75 m under similar condition will be?
A
10 m
B
12.5 m
C
17.5 m
D
21.25 m
Question 671 Explanation: 
Let’s take height of the building is x.
From that question we know that less height less shadow so it’s directly proportional.
40.25 : 17.5 : : 28.75 : x
x = (17.5 * 28.75) / 40.25
x = 12.5 m
Question 672
Find the odd one in the following series for
396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264
A
396
B
427
C
671
D
264
Question 672 Explanation: 
Except 427 remaining numbers are sum of first number and last number is middle number.
Question 673
Find the odd one in the following series for
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
A
50
B
26
C
37
D
64
Question 673 Explanation: 
From the above sequence we know that
2 + 3 = 5
5 + 5 = 10
10 + 7 =17
17 + 9 = 26
26 + 11 = 37
37 + 13 = 50
50 + 15 = 65 But in the question they given 64. So 64 is wrong.
Question 674
The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is
A
625
B
630
C
640
D
650
Question 674 Explanation: 
The difference between compound interest and simple interest on Rs. P for 2 years at R% per annum is = p * (R/100)^2
P * (R/100)^2 = 1
P * (4/100)^2 = 1
P * (1/25)^2 = 1
P = 625
So, Sum is 625
Question 675
The angle of elevation of the sun, when the length of the shadow of a tree is 3 times the height of the tree, is
A
30​ 0
B
45​ 0
C
60​ 0
D
90​ 0
E
None of the above
Question 676
Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
8
Question 676 Explanation: 
For this type of questions we have to find gcd of (4665 - 1305), (6905 - 4665) and (6905 - 1305)
So, = H.C.F. of 3360, 2240 and 5600 = 1120.
sum = 1+1+2+0 = 4.
Question 677
The study of fossils is known as
A
Ethnology
B
Palaeontology
C
Synecology
D
Ombrology
Question 678
Who has been elected as the president of Cricket Association of Bengal (CAB) in 2015?
A
Sourav Ganguly
B
Anil Kumble
C
Sunil Gavaskar
D
Mohd. Azharuddin
Question 679
Which company committed to invest $150 million for the Indian Startups during the Indian Prime Minister’s Sept 2015 US trip?
A
Qualcomm
B
Yahoo
C
Google
D
Microsoft
Question 680
What is the name of the Second Guided Missile Destroyer which has been commissioned into Indian Navy recently?
A
INS Vajram
B
INS Kochi
C
INS Kolkata
D
INS Mumbai
Question 681
Which city hosted South Asian Games in January 2016?
A
Bhopal and Jaipur
B
Mumbai and Kolkata
C
New Delhi and Pune
D
Guwahati and Shillong
Question 682
Which country is poised to become the third largest buyer of commercial passenger planes in the world with only the US and China ahead of it?
A
France
B
India
C
Germany
D
None of the above
Question 683
Which city is being developed as the new capital of current state of Andhra Pradesh?
A
Hyderabad
B
Amaravati
C
Vishakhapatnam
D
None of the above
Question 684
Garampani sanctuary is located at
A
Junagarah, Gujarat
B
Diphu, Assam
C
Kohima, Nagaland
D
Gangtok, Sikkim
Question 685
Ashoka’s ‘Dhamma’ or ‘Law of Piety’
A
Had the essence of all religions
B
was a revolt against inefficiency in the Buddhist Sangha
C
Was a new religion which he founded after the Kalinga war
D
Laid emphasis on following a strict set of rituals
Question 686
Which two countries have voted against a Feb. 2017 UN resolution to impose sanctions against Syria over its alleged use of chemical weapons?
A
US and Russia
B
US and France
C
Russia and China
D
France and China
Question 687
Which country has recently unveiled a project dubbed “Mars2117”, under which it aims to establish the first inhabitable human settlement on planet Mars by year 2117?
A
China
B
Japan
C
UAE
D
South Korea
Question 688
Daniel Ortega has been sworn in for a third consecutive term as president of which Central American Country?
A
Costa Rica
B
Honduras
C
Nicaragua
D
El Salvador
Question 689
Which among the following airports has claimed that it has become the first aerodrome in the world to adopt unique performance and benchmarking digital platform, Arc, which helps in tracking and monitoring building performance?
A
Indira Gandhi International(IGI) Airport Delhi
B
Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport, Nagpur
C
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport, Ahmedabad
D
Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, Guwahati
Question 690
”Socialist”; “Secular” ,”Unity and Integrity of the Nation” [to replace only “Unity of the Nation”], were added in the Preamble as per which Amendment to the Indian constitution?
A
Thirty eight Amendment 1975
B
Forty second Amendment 1976
C
Thirty first Amendment 1973
D
Forty fourth Amendment 1978
Question 691
Which Nation won Davis Cup in 2016?
A
Switzerland
B
Spain
C
Argentina
D
England
Question 692
1. The hotel is two blocks east of the drugstore.
2. The market is one block west of the hotel.
3. The drugstore is west of the market. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
Insufficient data
Question 693
Vincent has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighborhood. It takes Vincent 50 minutes to deliver al the papers. If Vincent is sick or has other plans, his friend Thomas, who lives on the same street, will sometimes deliver the papers for him.
From the above data, which of the following statements must be true?
A
Vincent and Thomas live in the same neighborhood
B
It takes Thomas more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers
C
It is dark outside when Vincent begins his deliveries
D
Thomas would like to have his own paper route
Question 694
Which number pair comes next in the series?
4 7 26 10 13 20 16
A
14 4
B
14 17
C
18 14
D
19 14
Question 694 Explanation: 
The next two numbers in the sequence are 19, 14.
Check the pattern 4, 7 and 10, 13. These pair of numbers are separated by 3. So extending the logic, the next pair of numbers should be 16, 19.
Now for the pair of numbers 26, 20. They are separated by 6. Hence extending the logic, the next number in sequence should be 14.
Hence the sequence should be 4,7, 26, 10, 13, 20, 16, 19, 14, 22, 25, 8 etc.
Question 695
Which word does not belong with the others?
A
Cornea
B
Retina
C
Vision
D
Pupil
Question 695 Explanation: 
Those all words are part of eye except Vision.
Question 696
Complete the missing element of the following series:
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 696 Explanation: 
When we observe above diagram all the first and last elements are same and coming to middle one for first two is same and after two is should be same.
Question 697
JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _______________
A
OEP
B
NEO
C
MEN
D
PFQ
Question 697 Explanation: 
That series is like J K L M next is N
Same like A B C D next is E
K L M N next is O
So, Finally NEO
Question 698
FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, _________________
A
JAK
B
HAL
C
HAK
D
JAI
Question 698 Explanation: 
In the above pattern F G H I next is J
A A A A next is A
G F I H next is K
So,
Finally JAK
Question 699
Applying for Seasonal Employment occurs when a person requests to be considered for a job that is dependent on a particular season or time of year. Which situation below is the best example of Applying for Seasonal Employment?
A
The Ski instructions at Top of the Peak Ski School work from December through March
B
Matthew prefers jobs that allow him to work outdoors
C
Lucinda makes an appointment with the beach resort restaurant manager to interview for the summer waitressing position that was advertised in the newspaper
D
Doug’s ice cream shop stays open until 11 p.m. during the summer months
Question 700
QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, ________________
A
UAV
B
UAT
C
TAS
D
TAT
Question 700 Explanation: 
From that series
Q R S T next is U
A A A A next is A
R S T U next is V
Finally UAV
Question 701
If gorblflur means fan belt pixngorbl means ceiling fan arthtusl means tile roof Which word could mean “ceiling tile”?
A
gorbltusl
B
flurgorbl
C
arthflur
D
pixnarth
Question 702
The town of Paranda is located on Green lake. The town of Akram is West of Paranda. Tokhada is East of Akram but West of Paranda. Kokran is East of Bopri but West of Tokhada and Akram. If they are all in the same district, which town is the farthest West?
A
Paranda
B
Kokran
C
Akram
D
Bopri
Question 702 Explanation: 
From the above question we got like this
Bopri Kokran Akram Tokhada Paranda
So,
The farthest west is Bopri
Question 703
Get odd one out.
A
YWU
B
NLJ
C
KIF
D
VTR
Question 703 Explanation: 
In those series let’s take first one YWU
Reverse it, UWY for between each and every letter there is one letter missing like UVWXY
So, Reverse those letters YXWVU means YWU
But coming to option C is different in between I and F there is two letters missing. So option C is odd one.
Question 704
Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks were 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are
A
39, 30
B
41, 32
C
42, 33
D
43, 34
Question 704 Explanation: 
Let’s one student secured marks ‘x’
Another student secured ‘x + 9’
According to question
x + 9 = (56 * 100)(x + x + 9)
100 (x + 9) = 56 (2x + 9)
After solving this we got x = 33
So option C is correct.
Question 705
Find the number of triangles in the given figure
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
14
Question 705 Explanation: 
There are total 14 number of triangles are present in that figure
Question 706
Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 707
8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table – two on each side.
There are 3 ladies who are not seated next to each other.
J is between L and F.
G is between I and F.
H, a lady member is second to the left of J.
F, a male member is seated opposite to E, a lady member.
There is a lady member between F and I.

Who among the following is to the immediate left of F?
A
G
B
I
C
J
D
H
Question 708
8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table – two on each side.
There are 3 ladies who are not seated next to each other.
J is between L and F.
G is between I and F.
H, a lady member is second to the left of J.
F, a male member is seated opposite to E, a lady member.
There is a lady member between F and I.

What is true about J and K?
A
J is male, K is female
B
J is female, K is male
C
Both are female
D
Both are male
Question 709
8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table – two on each side.
There are 3 ladies who are not seated next to each other.
J is between L and F.
G is between I and F.
H, a lady member is second to the left of J.
F, a male member is seated opposite to E, a lady member.
There is a lady member between F and I.

How many persons are seated between K and F?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 710
8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table – two on each side.
There are 3 ladies who are not seated next to each other.
J is between L and F.
G is between I and F.
H, a lady member is second to the left of J.
F, a male member is seated opposite to E, a lady member.
There is a lady member between F and I.

Who among the following are three lady members?
A
E, H, and J
B
E, F and G
C
E, H and G
D
C, H and J
Question 711
8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table – two on each side.
There are 3 ladies who are not seated next to each other.
J is between L and F.
G is between I and F.
H, a lady member is second to the left of J.
F, a male member is seated opposite to E, a lady member.
There is a lady member between F and I.

Who among the following is seated between E and H?
A
F
B
I
C
K
D
Cannot be determined
Question 712
Choose the most appropriate words from the options given below to complete the following sentence ;
Female sparrows and immatures are _____, while the typical adult male sparrow is _____ by its markings; a black bib, a grey cap, and white lines trailing down from the mouth.
A
Somewhat nondescript, easily recognized
B
Difficult to spot, better camouflaged
C
Considered to be endangered, characterized
D
Comparatively small, made more conspicuous
Question 713
Find the best correction for the underlined sentence from the four options give below, Under a provision of the Constitution that ​
    was never applied. Congress has been required to call a convention for considering possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do it
by the legislatures of two-thirds of the states
A
Was never applied, Congress has been required to call a convention for considering possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do it
B
Was never applied, there has been a requirement that Congress call a convention for consideration of possible amendments to the document when asked to do it formally
C
Has never applied, whereby Congress is required to call a convention to consider possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do so
D
Has never been applied, Congress is required to call a convention to consider possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do so
Question 714
Statement:​ Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving license for sale to general public in India?
Arguments:
i. Yes. Many such drugs required different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is necessary.
ii. No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.
Choose from the following:
A
Only argument i is strong
B
Only argument ii is strong
C
Either i or ii is strong
D
Neither i nor ii is strong
Question 715
A Huge majority – 84 percent – of the population identifies as Hindu. There are many variations of Hinduism, and four predominant sects – Shiva, Vaishnava, Shakteya and Smarta. About 13 percent of Indians are Muslim, making it one of the largest Islamic nations in the world. Christians and Sikhs make up a small percentage of the population, and there are even fewer Buddhists and Jains.

The passage best supports the statement that
A
Culture, Traditions and Customs of India are diverse
B
India is known as a multilingual country
C
India is identified as the birthplace of Hinduism and Buddhism
D
India is a country where diversity in religion exists
Question 716
Choose the appropriate answer the following answer to complete the following sentence:
To those of us who had always thought him timid, his ________came as a surprise.
A
Inability
B
Inevitability
C
Intrepidity
D
Inertness
Question 717
Three ladies X, Y and Z marry three men A, B and C. X is married to A, Y is not married to an engineer, Z is not married to a doctor, C is not a doctor and A is a lawyer. Only monogamous relationships are permitted. Then which of the following statements is correct?
A
Y is married to C who is an engineer
B
Z is married to C who is a doctor
C
X is married to a doctor
D
None of the above options
Question 717 Explanation: 
From that question we know that
X married to A and A is lawyer.
Y not married to Engineer and Z not married to Doctor.
But C is not Doctor so from this statement Z married to C who is Engineer.
Finally Y married to B who is Doctor.
Question 718
Correct the underlined part of the sentence by choosing the correct option.
Bombast​
    is when high sounding words for effect, not suitable, are used.
A
is when high sounding words for effect, not suitable, are used
B
is the use of high-sounding words for effect rather than for suitability
C
is where high-sounding words are used for effect not suitability
D
is the using of high-sounding words for effect only
Question 719
Pick the word from the four options which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the bold word.
RECALCITRANT
A
feckless
B
yielding
C
sombre
D
polished
Question 719 Explanation: 
Meaning of ​ RECALCITRANT ​ is uncooperative,intractable,unmanageable
option A and C and D those words are giving same meaning as RECALCITRANT but option B is opposite meaning of RECALCITRANT yielding means not hard or rigid.
Question 720
The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words.
Select the pair that best expresses the relation in the original pair.
QUISLING : BETRAY
A
taunt : provoke
B
inception : termination
C
juggernaut : crush
D
obstinate : preserve
Question 721
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/ phrase in each sentence.
He knows ​ which side his bread is buttered​ :
A
knows how to chatter
B
knows the art of cooking
C
knows where his advantage lies
D
knows how to butter a slice
Question 722
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/ phrase in each sentence.
You must ​ keep your head​ whatever happens :
A
be self respecting
B
be honest
C
remain calm
D
concentrate
Question 723
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/ phrase in each sentence.
He had ​ second thoughts​ :
A
decided to take somebody with him
B
changed his mind
C
planned very carefully
D
decided to do elsewhere
Question 724
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in each sentence.
The knowledge of nuclear power might lead to ​ annihilation​ :
A
total destruction
B
tremendous progress
C
immortality
D
full healthfulness
Question 725
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in each sentence.
The Minister ​ condescended​ to accept our invitation.
A
agreed
B
declined
C
felt happy
D
deigned
Question 726
Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in each sentence.
I was stunned at the ​ unabashed​ display of wealth in the wedding.
A
shameless
B
impressive
C
candid
D
accurate
Question 727
Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6, to form a logical sequence of six sentences.
1. The new economic policy comprises the various measures and changes introduced since july 1991.
(A) There is a common thread running through all these measures
(B) The objective is simple – to improve the efficiency of the system
(C) The regulatory mechanism involving multitude of controls has fragmented the capacity and reduced competition even in the sector.
(D) The thrust of the new policy is towards creating a more competitive environment as a means to improving the productivity and efficiency of the economy.
6. This is to be activated by removing the barriers and restrictions on the entry and growth of firms.

A
DCAB
B
ABCD
C
BDAC
D
DCBA
Question 728
In the following items a word is followed by four explanatory expressions. Choose the expression that explains the given word correctly.
Philistine :
A
one who does not like or understand art, literature or music
B
one who is a novice as far as art and literature are concerned
C
one who is a fine judge of literature or art
D
one who is devoted to music
Question 729
In the following items a word is followed by four explanatory expressions. Choose the expression that explains the given word correctly.
Iconoclast :
A
one who criticizes popular beliefs and established customs
B
one who is specially sent by God to preach a particular religion
C
one who encourages idol worship
D
one who is against all forms of government
Question 730
In the following items a word is followed by four explanatory expressions. Choose the expression that explains the given word correctly.
Wardrobe :
A
a place where horses are kept
B
a place where official records are kept
C
a place where planes are kept
D
a place where clothes are kept
Question 731
A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A
Indigenus
B
Indigenous
C
Indigenius
D
Indeginus
Question 732
A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A
Hypocrisy
B
Hipocrisy
C
Hypocresy
D
Hipocracy
Question 733
A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A
Parallel
B
Paralel
C
Parralel
D
Parralell
Question 734
In the following sentences one part of the sentence is italicised. Gour alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence are given. Choose the appropriate alternative.
Rohit has got many friends because he has got much money.
A
enough money
B
bags of money
C
a lot of money
D
tons of money
Question 735
In the following sentences one part of the sentence is italicised. Gour alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence are given. Choose the appropriate alternative.
The main business of the Parliament is to deal with matters pertained to the legislation.
A
pertaining with
B
pertaining to
C
pertained with
D
pertain to
Question 736
In the following sentences one part of the sentence is italicised. Gour alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence are given. Choose the appropriate alternative.
The secret information was held away from me :
A
off
B
out
C
back
D
up
Question 737
In the following sentences one part of the sentence is italicised. Gour alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence are given. Choose the appropriate alternative.
He spent much time and energy over it, and lost a lot of money in the bargain.
A
off the bargain
B
into the bargain
C
for the bargain
D
with the bargain
Question 738
Each of the sentences given below has been divided into four parts viz (1), (2), (3), (4). One of the parts contains an ehoose the part which has the error.
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 739
Each of the sentences given below has been divided into four parts viz (1), (2), (3), (4). One of the parts contains an ehoose the part which has the error.
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 740
Each of the sentences given below has been divided into four parts viz (1), (2), (3), (4). One of the parts contains an ehoose the part which has the error.
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 741
Each of the sentences given below has been divided into four parts viz (1), (2), (3), (4). One of the parts contains an ehoose the part which has the error.
A
1
B
2
C
3
Question 742
According to a recent announcement Kendriya Vidyalayas across the country, under the recently launched ‘Compassionate Citizen’ programme, will now teach their children to be kind to :
A
Birds
B
Human beings
C
Animals
D
Reptiles
Question 742 Explanation: 
● In order to inculcate compassion in children towards animals Kendriya Vidyalayas across the country will now be including "Compassionate Citizen" as part of their curriculum
● Compassionate Citizen is a humane education programme that has been designed specifically to teach children to be kind to animals.
● The course has been prepared by animal rights advocacy group People for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA).
Question 743
Who among the following has been named captain of Wisden’s India’s All Time Test XI ?
A
Virat Kohli
B
Ishant Sharma
C
M S Dhoni
D
Kapil Dev
Question 743 Explanation: 
Mahendra Singh Dhoni in the third week of September 2016 was named the captain of the all-time India Test XI chosen by cricket magazine Wisden.
Question 744
Which country does Ma Long, the gold medalist in Table Tennis at Rio Olympic 2016, belong to :
A
South Korea
B
China
C
Japan
D
Vietnam
Question 744 Explanation: 
China's world number one Ma Long beat countryman Zhang Jike 4-0 to win the men's singles and claim a table tennis Grand Slam
Question 745
Who among the following has been selected for the award of Eklavya Puraskar 2016 ?
A
Duli chand
B
Shravani Nanda
C
P V Sindhu
D
Sunil Kant
Question 745 Explanation: 
Sprinter Srabani Nanda has bagged the 24th Ekalavya Award for the year 2016.
Question 746
The Supreme Court appointed Justice Lodha Panel to look into the functioning of :
A
A I C C
B
I C C
C
B C C I
D
A C C
Question 746 Explanation: 
The Lodha Committee was appointed by the Supreme Court of India on 22 January 2015 to analyse and recommend implementable actions for improving the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), assess the quantum of punishment for Gurunath Meiyappan and Raj Kundra in the Indian Premier League (IPL) betting scandal, and analyse the role of Sundar Raman
Question 747
Recently the Hague based Permanent Court of Arbitration ruled that :
A
China has rightfully claimed its control over South China Sea.
B
China together with Philippines has violated the Sovereign rights of others.
C
China has no historic rights to resources of waters of the South China Sea.
D
China’s sovereign territory has never been defined.
Question 748
Who among the following received Padma Shri in 2015 for being first amputee to reach the summit of Mt. Everest ?
A
Arunima Sinha
B
Bachendri Pal
C
Ashwini Waskar
D
Laxmi Agarwal
Question 749
______ was declared Player of Series in recently held (2016) India-New Zealand ODI series.
A
R.Ashwin
B
Virat Kohli
C
Ravindra Jadeja
D
Amit Mishra
Question 750
Durand Cup Football tournament (2016) was won by :
A
Mohan Bagan Kolkata
B
Army Green
C
Aizwal Football Club
D
Neroca Football Club
Question 751
The programme called NIDHI aims at nurturing ideas and innovation of the youth of the country. It was launched by :
A
HRD Ministry
B
Department of Science and Technology
C
U.G.C.
D
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Question 752
What is Indian satellite GSAT - 18 about ?
A
Weather monitoring
B
Star-gazing
C
Telecommunication
D
Pollution monitoring
Question 753
The State whose Board of Secondary and Higher Education has deleted a chapter on Maria Sharapova from a textbook is ________.
A
Rajasthan
B
Goa
C
Gujarat
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 754
Months before the 2016 Summer Olympics the host Country Brazil had to face safety concerns surrounding ________.
A
Zika virus
B
Dengue
C
Chikungunya
D
Herpes simplex
Question 755
Deepa Malik was the first Indian woman to win a medal at Para Olympics (2016). Which event did she participate in ?
A
Javelin Throw
B
Shooting
C
Shot Put
D
Swimming
Question 756
After the department of Maldives (2016) how many nations are the members of commonwealth ?
A
50
B
52
C
51
D
53
Question 757
Who are the winners of under - 18 Asia Cup Hockey 2016 ?
A
Sri Lanka
B
Bangladesh
C
Pakistan
D
India
Question 758
According to a list released by fortune, India’s ________ is among the top ten most powerful women in business.
A
Arundhati Bhattacharya
B
Shikha Sharma
C
Chanda Kochhar
D
Indira Nooyi
Question 759
Who would be the first lady of the USA after the swearing in of Donald Trump ?
A
Melania Trump
B
Maria Trump
C
Melanie Trump
D
Melanija Trump
Question 760
Which of the following Airlines has posted a profit of ₹105 crore after a decade ?
A
Indian Airlines
B
Indigo
C
Air India
D
Vayudoot
Question 761
In Rio Olympics (2016) women’s football final match was won by _______.
A
France
B
Germany
C
England
D
U.S.A.
Question 762
In a row of buses if bus Number 108 is 8​ th​ from the front. Bus Number 201 is the 14​ th​ from the rear end. There are nine buses between them. How many buses are there in the row ?
A
23
B
29
C
26
D
31
Question 763
‘P’ is the only daughter of ‘R’. ‘R’ is a grandmother of ‘Q’.The name of ‘Q’s sister is ‘S’, then what is the relation of ‘S’ to ‘P’ ?
A
Daughter
B
Mother
C
Sister
D
Aunt
Question 764
In a software development company, 30% of workers are B.Tech degree holders, 25% are MBAs, and 20% hold both these degrees. If 325 workers are without any professional degree, how many workers are there in the company in all ?
A
390
B
500
C
425
D
625
Question 765
Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
v l _ k l v _ l k k l _ v _ k k l v _
A
k l v k k
B
l k v k l
C
k v v l v
D
v l l k v
Question 766
Which of the following number sets is different from other three ?
A
{11, 31, 13, 43}
B
{5, 13, 17, 29}
C
{7, 31, 21, 37}
D
{3, 7, 11, 23}
Question 767
In certain Code Language, the word RESPONSE is coded as ESNOPSER. Then the word SYMBOLIC will be coded as :
A
LYMBOCIS
B
BOSLYCIS
C
CILYMBOS
D
CILOBMYS
Question 768
A man moves 3 km North, then turns West and moves 2 km, again he turns North and walks 1 km, and 5 km towards East. How far is he now from his original place ?
A
11 km
B
8 km
C
10 km
D
5 km
Question 769
Write the next term in the following series :
15, 10, 45, 20, 135, 30 _______.
A
40
B
305
C
205
D
405
Question 770
From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed by using the letters of the given word.
INTELLIGENCE
A
CANCEL
B
ENTRANCE
C
ENGINE
D
TEENAGE
Question 771
Select the related letter-group from the given alternatives.
A D G J : ? : : M P S V : N K H E
A
Z X T S
B
Z W Q T
C
Z W T Q
D
S U V Y
Question 772
Write the next term of the following number series.
15, 29, 56, 108, 205, 400 ________.
A
756
B
768
C
758
D
770
Question 773
A survey of 50 cars was conducted for options of air conditioning, radio and power windows.
The following information was found :
(a) 30 cars with air conditioning
(b) 4 cars with air conditioning and power windows but no radio
(c) 21 cars with radio
(d) 12 cars with radio and air conditioning but no power window
(e) 20 cars with power window
(f) 1 car with radio and power windows
(g) 6 cars with all the three options

What is the number of cars that had none of the options ?
A
4
B
8
C
6
D
10
Question 774
If + means ×, − means ÷, × means − and ÷ means +, then find the value of 16 × 4 + 12 − 4 ÷ 18 :
A
18
B
22
C
20
D
24
Question 775
A man is 4 years older than his wife. The wife is three times as old as their daughter. The present age of daughter is 10 years. How old was the man when his daughter was born ?
A
21 years
B
24 years
C
27 years
D
26 years
Question 776
Three of the following forms a group based on an attribute. Find the one which has different attributes.
A
Brass
B
Silver
C
Copper
D
Aluminium
Question 777
If all the numbers from 1 to 61 which are divisible by 4, are arranged in ascending position, then which number will be at 8​ th​ position from the lowest ?
A
28
B
36
C
32
D
40
Question 778
A one rupee coin is placed on a piece of paper. How many more coins of the same size may be placed such that each touches the central coin and two adjacent coins ?
A
4
B
6
C
5
D
7
Question 779
A person riding a bicycle in North ward direction then turned left and rode 3 km, and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself exactly 3 km West of the Starting point. How far did he ride North ward initially ?
A
1 km
B
3 km
C
2 km
D
5 km
Question 780
If + means ×, ÷ means +, − means ÷ and × means −. Find the value of 56 − 8 × 5 ÷ 4 + 7 :
A
25
B
30
C
27
D
32
Question 781
Based on the given figure, following conclusions are drawn. Identify the true Conclusion.
Conclusion:
(I) All boys are sons.
(II) Some graduates are post graduates.
(III) Some boys are graduates.
(IV) Some post graduates are boys.
A
(I), (II) and (III) are true
B
(III) and (IV) are true
C
(II), (III) and (IV) are true
D
(I) and (III) are true
Question 782
Which of the following principles is not applicable to the use of audio visual aids ?
A
Principle of utility
B
Principle of selection
C
Principle of fulfilment of objectives
D
Principle of effectiveness
Question 783
Which of the following is a national agency related to training of secondary school teachers ?
A
NUEPA
B
NCERT
C
NCTE
D
INSA
Question 784
In which of the following aspects, standardized achievement tests and teacher made tests differ ?
A
Time for completion of the tests
B
Content covered by the tests
C
Reliability and Validity of the tests
D
Process of scoring of the tests
Question 785
What is the difference between curriculum and syllabus ?
A
Curriculum is part of the syllabus
B
Curriculum includes text books and syllabus
C
Syllabus is part of curriculum
D
Curriculum and syllabus are same
Question 786
As per the code of professional ethics for teachers, framed by NCTE. Which of the following is not included under the obligations towards students ?
A
Treats all students with love and affection
B
Informs parents the confidential matters related to students for their benefit
C
Adapts his/her teaching to the individual needs of students
D
Respects human dignity of the child in all aspects of school life.
Question 787
Daniel Goleman’s theory of emotional intelligence suggests that educators need to consider the emotional brain, which controls personal intelligence. From the following, identify which combination of dimensions of emotional intelligence he claimed ?
A
Self awareness, motivation, self regulation, empathy and social skill
B
Self concept, self respect, self regulation, motivation and empathy
C
Self regulation, motivation, sympathy, self respect and social skill
D
Social skills, self awareness, self respect, empathy and motivation
Question 788
While preparing test items, which of the following types of questions are considered as easy to score, but difficult to construct ?
A
Essay type
B
Short answer type
C
Alternative response type
D
Multiple choice type
Question 789
In a curriculum, if there is linking knowledge from one lesson to the next across a programme of study, it is :
A
Horizontal curriculum
B
Topical curriculum
C
Vertical curriculum
D
Spiral curriculum
Question 790
What is the most advisable way of organising the classroom furniture ?
A
Once, it has been fixed, it should not be disturbed
B
Classroom furniture has no relevance to teaching and learning. So a teacher should not worry about this
C
Its arrangement should change on a daily or weekly basis
D
Its arrangement should change from time to time as per the requirement
Question 791
Assertion (A) : Social constructivist approach contributes to learning theory by focussing on thinking processes when learning takes place.
Reason (R) : Knowledge is assumed to be constructed by learners themselves and learning is seen as an active process of construction and knowledge accumulation.
In the context of the above statements, select the correct one :
A
Both (A) and (B) are true but (R) not an explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) the explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
(A) is true but (R) is not necessarily be true
Question 792
Which of the following is an important indicator of best teaching ?
A
Meaningful questions asked by students
B
Complete silence in the classroom
C
Number of students passing the examination
D
Attendance of students in the classroom
Question 793
The teaching of biology has correlation with :
(a) Economics
(b) Hindi
(c) History
(d) Computer Science
(e) Physics
A
Only (e)
B
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
C
(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (e)
Question 794
The correct arrangement of objectives under affective domain, from least to most complex is :
A
receiving, responding, organization, valuing and characterization
B
receiving, responding, valuing, organization and characterization
C
responding, receiving, valuing, organization and characterization
D
responding, valuing, organization, receiving and characterization
Question 795
At school level what should be the dress of a teacher ?
A
As simple as possible
B
Just like normal dress of that society to which the students belong
C
Modern and up to date
D
It should be the same for all teachers
Question 796
An unhappy incident happened in a class. The teacher should find the solution by :
A
Discussing the matter with his/her family
B
Discussing the matter with the Principal
C
Discussing the matter in the class only
D
Discussing the matter with his/her colleagues
Question 797
Which among the following is a common feature of E-learning ?
A
Learning in self-paced
B
Time and cost are very high
C
Always require physical presence in the class
Question 798
Which role of a teacher is crucial in present day context ?
A
Teacher as a good classroom teacher
B
Teacher as a good teacher and a manager of teaching process
C
Teacher as a facilitator of learning
D
Teacher as a strong motivator
Question 799
Which teaching strategy should be preferred for teaching about gram plant ?
A
Demonstration method
B
Film on the life of a gram plant
C
Field visit in the month of October
D
Use of charts and models
Question 800
At one time in a state a B.A. student had to appear in the examination at the end of three years only. There was no examination or any test before that. This is an example of :
A
Formative Evaluation
B
Criterion Evaluation
C
Summative Evaluation
D
Annual Evaluation
Question 801
“________ is a teaching method helpful to discover new ideas and responses very quickly. The focus is on generating as many ideas as possible without judging them; All ideas are given equal credence”. Select the correct one.
A
Buzz session
B
Discussion method
C
Role play
D
Brainstorming
Question 802
जब क्रिया का प्रधान विषय कर्ता होता है, तो कौन –सा वाच्य होता है ? नीचे दिए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प को चुनिए
A
कर्मवाच्य
B
भाव वाच्य
C
कर्तवाच्य
D
कोई नहीं
Question 803
बिना विरोध के उच्चारित होने वाले वर्ण वाक्य क्या कहलाते हैं ? निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से उपयुक्त विकल्प की पहचान कीजिए :
A
स्पर्श
B
घोष
C
स्वर
D
व्यंजन
Question 804
नीचे दिए गए वर्ण बिच्छेद के लिए सही शब्द निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से चुनिए :
A
आर्थीक
B
आर्थिक
C
आरथिक
D
आर्थिक
Question 805
निम्नलिखित शब्दों में संकर शब्द कौन है
A
लिफ़ाफ़ा
B
सरासर
C
कालीन
D
रेलगाड़ी
Question 806
उसने टेढ़ी चाल चली’ वाक्य में कौन –सा कारक है ? नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प की पहचान कीजिए :
A
कर्म कारक
B
सम्बन्ध कारक
C
कर्ता कारक
D
अधिकरण कारक
Question 807
यश का सही विलोम शब्द निम्न लिखित विकल्पों में से चुनिए :
A
अपयश
B
सुयश
C
कुयश
D
यशहीन
Question 808
‘आगमन’ शब्द में कौन –सा उपसर्ग है ? नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से चयन कीजिए :
A
B
अव
C
D
आग
Question 809
वह पढ़ता तो पास होता’ – इस वाक्य में कौन सा काल है ? निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए |
A
अपूर्णभूत
B
सामान्य भूत
C
हेतुहेतुमद भूत
D
पूर्णभूत
Question 810
‘शब्द +अर्थ’ संधि से कौन –सा शब्द बना :
A
.शब्दर्थ
B
शब्दअर्थ
C
शब्दार्थ
D
शब्दाअर्थ
Question 811
निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चुनाव कीजिए :
A
दरपण
B
द्रपण
C
दपर्ण
D
दर्पण
Question 812
भेंड़ चर रही है |’ इस वाक्य का सही बहुवचन रूप है :
A
भेंड़ चर रही है
B
भेंडें चर रही हैं |
C
भेड़ों चर रही हैं
D
भेड़एँ चर रही हैं
Question 813
निम्नलिखित वाक्यांश के लिए दिए गए विकल्पों में से सटीक शब्द का चयन कीजिए :
‘सब कुछ जानने वाला’
A
बुद्धिमान
B
सर्वज्ञ
C
ज्ञानवान
D
सर्वत्र
Question 814
‘एक अनार सौ बीमार’ –इस लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनिए :
A
एक वस्तु के कम चाहने वाले
B
मांग कम पूर्ति अधिक
C
वस्तु थोड़ी और चाहने वाले अधिक
D
अनार को चाहने वाले अधिक लोग
Question 815
वर्त्तमान हिंदी का ‘खड़ी बोली’ नाम किस कारण पड़ा है ?
A
इसे खड़े –खड़े सीखा जा सकता है
B
इसमें खड़ी मात्रा का प्रयोग अधिक होता है
C
इसमें खरी खोटी कहने की क्षमता है |
D
इसका ध्वनि -विन्यास कर्कस है
Question 816
निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से शुद्ध वाक्य चुनिए :
A
दादी का प्राणी निकल गया |
B
मैंने तीन कुर्सियां खरीदीं
C
चार आदमी के लिए खाना बना दो
D
मेरे भाई के शादी के लिए अनेको प्रस्ताव आये |
Question 817
‘यह’ कौन –सा सर्वनाम है ? नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए :
A
निश्चयवाचक
B
निजवाचक
C
संबंधवाचक
D
पुरुषवाचक
Question 818
निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से ‘कवि’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग छाँटिए :
A
कविता
B
कवयित्री
C
गायिका
D
काव्य
Question 819
निम्नलिखित में से कौन -सा शब्द द्वन्द समस का उदहारण नहीं है ? सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए
A
धन –धान्य
B
हरिशंकर
C
घर –बाहर
D
दिन –दिन
Question 820
निम्नलिखित विक्लपों में से एक विकल्प शेष का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है, उसे छाँटिए :
A
अहि
B
भुजंग
C
मकर
D
विषधर
Question 821
‘आहट’ प्रत्यय से बने सही शब्द को नीचे दिए गए विभिन्न विकल्पों में से चुनिए :
A
कड़वाहट
B
रहट
C
गिरावट
D
थकावट
Question 822
Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to:
A
Multiple variables having the same location
B
Multiple variables having the same identifier
C
Multiple variables having the same value
D
Multiple use of same variable
Question 822 Explanation: 
In computer programming, aliasing refers to the situation where the same memory location can be accessed using different names.
Question 823
An analog signal has a bit rate of 8000 bps and a baud rate of 1000. 
Then analog signal has _____ signal elements and carry _____ data elements in each signal.
A
256, 8 bits
B
128, 4 bits
C
256, 4 bits
D
128, 8 bits
Question 823 Explanation: 
Given data,
-- Bit rate(B)=8000 bps
-- Baud rate(Ba)=1000 bps
-- Signal elements(S)=?
-- Data elements(D)=?
Step-1: Total number of signal elements(S)⇒ Ba=B*(1/S) ⇒ S=(B/Ba)
= 8000/1000
= 8 bits/baud
Step-2: Total number of data elements(D) ⇒ S=log2D ⇒ D=2S
=28
= 256 bits
Question 824
Which of the following is a source coding technique?
A
Huffman coding
B
Arithmetic coding
C
Run-length coding
D
DPCM
Question 824 Explanation: 
→ Huffman coding, Arithmetic coding and ZIg-zag scan is used to compress the image/text.
→ Differential pulse-code modulation (DPCM) is a signal encoder that uses the baseline of pulse-code modulation (PCM) but adds some functionalities based on the prediction of the samples of the signal. The input can be an analog signal or a digital signal.
Question 825
Match the following with reference to Functional programming history:



 
A
a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
B
a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
C
a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
D
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Question 825 Explanation: 
Lambda calculus→ Church, 1932
Lambda calculus (also written as λ-calculus) is a formal system in mathematical logic for expressing computation based on function abstraction and application using variable binding and substitution. It is a universal model of computation that can be used to simulate any Turing machine. It was first introduced by mathematician Alonzo Church in the 1930s as part of his research of the foundations of mathematics.
Lambda calculus as programming language→ Mccarthy, 1960
The first functional programming language and the second oldest programming language still in use (after FORTRAN), LISP began life in 1958 as a project led by John McCarthy at MIT. The aim was to create a system for programming computations over symbolic data, starting with an algorithm McCarthy had drafted for symbolic differentiation.
Lazy evaluation→ Wordsworth, 1970
Lazy evaluation was introduced for lambda calculus by Christopher Wadsworth. lazy evaluation (or) call-by-need is an evaluation strategy which delays the evaluation of an expression until its value is needed (non-strict evaluation) and which also avoids repeated evaluations (sharing).
Type classes→ Haskell, 1990
Type classes, as used in the functional programming language Haskell.
Question 826
Which of the following is/are CORRECT statement(s) about version and release ?
I. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non-functionally distinct from other instances of a system.
II. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally distinct in some way from other system instances.
III. A release is an instance of a system, which is distributed to users outside of the development team.
IV. A release is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non-functionally distinct from other instances of a system.
A
I and III
B
II and IV
C
I and IV
D
II and III
Question 826 Explanation: 
TRUE: A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally distinct in some way from other system instances.
TRUE: A release is an instance of a system, which is distributed to users outside of the development team.
Build, version and Release terminology:
Build − executable or a library created by compiling source code.
Version − a software build. New version is a different build.
Release − (public release) a version intended for use by general population.
Question 827
An experimental file server is up 75% of the time and down for 25% of the time due to bugs. How many times does this file server have to be replicated to give an availability of at least 99% ?
A
2
B
4
C
8
D
16
Question 827 Explanation: 
Given data,
-- Up time=75%
-- Down time=25%
-- How many times does this file server have to be replicated to give an Availability of at least 99% is=?
Option-A: Here 2 replications, it means down time is 25% equivalent 0.25.
According to 2 replications we have to multiply with 0.25*0.25=0.0625
Availability= 100-6.25%
= 93%
Option-B: Here 4 replications, it means down time is 25% equivalent 0.25.
According to 4 replications we have to multiply with 0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25
= 0.00390625
Availability= 100-0.0390625%
= 99.9609375%
Option-C: Here 8 replications, it means down time is 25% equivalent 0.25.
According to 8 replications we have to multiply with
= 0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25
= 0.0000152587890625
Availability= 100-0.00152587890625%
= 99.99847412109375%
Option-D: Here 16 replications, it means down time is 25% equivalent 0.25.
According to 16 replications we have to multiply with
= 0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25*0.25
= 0.00000000023283064365386962890625
Availability= 100-0.000000023283064365386962890625%
= 99.999999976716935634613037109375%
Hence, option-B is most suitable answer.
Question 828
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:
MANDATORY
A
Obligatory
B
Optional
C
Uncommon
D
Unique
Question 829
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:
PREPOSTEROUS
A
Credible
B
Plausible
C
Outrageous
D
Outgoing
Question 830
Select the most appropriate options to fill in the blank:
Under the Turks, tenant farming was good business, but under the british___was fast reaching a point of diminishing returns.
A
they
B
it
C
these
D
those
Question 831
Select the correctly spelt word:
A
Niusance
B
Nuisance
C
Nuisence
D
Nuiscence
Question 832
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
I was late. I phoned my parents____they worried about me.
A
whereas
B
despite
C
In case
D
So that
Question 833
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
The professor refused to proceed further_____the students had completed the assignment.
A
If
B
because
C
Unless
D
So that
Question 834
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
Bhai Saheb is still weak due to the viral fever. But he____better.
A
got
B
is getting
C
Gets
D
was getting
Question 835
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:
BENEFIT
A
Damage
B
Interest
C
Advantage
D
Favor
Question 836
Select the correct passive form of the given sentence:
Scientists have discovered a trove of 44 planets in solar systems beyond our own.
A
A trove of scientist has been discovered by the 44 planets in solar system beyond our own.
B
A trove of 44 scientist in solar systems beyond our own has been discovered by the planets.
C
A trove of 44 planets in solar systems beyond our own has discovered scientists.
D
A trove of 44 planets in solar systems beyond our own has been discovered by scientists.
Question 837
Select the option which is NOT an antonym of another word by way of adding the prefix ‘in-’
A
Inarticulate
B
Insoluble
C
Inclusive
D
Ingratitude
Question 838
Select the option that express the given sentence in reported speech.
“ I can’t find the book you told me about “ My sister said to me.
My sister told me that:
A
She couldn’t find the book you told her about.
B
She can’t find the book you told her about
C
She couldn’t find the book I told her about
D
I can’t find the book you told me about
Question 839
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
The body of the _____man was found after a long search.
A
Drowned
B
Sinking
C
Sunken
D
drowning
Question 840
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
Ibrahim erected a small tent to protect ______ from the searching sun.
A
Himself
B
Themselves
C
Itself
D
oneself
Question 841
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
From tomorrow, this shop ______ closed for a month for renovation.
A
Remained
B
Remines
C
Has remained
D
Will remain
Question 842
Select the correct passive form of the given sentence:
The agents of the absentee landowners were serving eviction notices to the Arab peasants.
A
The agents of the absentee landowners were being served eviction notices by the Arab peasants
B
The Arab peasants were being served eviction notices by the agents of the absentee landowners
C
Eviction notices have been served by the agents of the absentee landowners to the Arab peasants
D
Absentee landowners were being served eviction notices by the agents of the Arab peasants
Question 843
Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word:
A
Illeterate
B
Illuminate
C
Illegible
D
Illustration
Question 844
In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been underlined. One of them is incorrect. Choose the incorrect word or phrase from the given options.
To rescue scores of migrant labourers in flood-ravaged Kerera, the Centre has undertaken a special evacuation plan for taking 25,000 labourers to them home states by trains over this weekend.
A
has undertaken
B
Over this weekend
C
To them home states
D
To rescue
Question 845
In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been underlined. One of them is incorrect. Choose the INCORRECT word or phrase from the given options.
With dawn, the weather got a little better and the mountaineers decided go for the summit, still 2000 ft above them.
A
Got a little better
B
Above them
C
Decided go
D
The mountaineers
Question 846
Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.
The farmer advised his sons not to quarrel among themselves when he was dead but to remain united.
The farmer said to his sons:
A
“Don’t quarrel among yourselves when I am dead. Remain united.”
B
“Don’t quarrel among themselves when I am dead. Remain united.”
C
“Don’t quarrel among yourselves when he was dead. Remain united.”
D
“Not to quarrel among themselves when he was dead but to remain united.”
Question 847
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
In my country, cricket is the___sport
A
Most popular
B
As popular
C
More popular
D
popular
Question 848
स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है :
A
कर्म
B
कृपा
C
कार्य
D
मित्र
Question 849
‘परास्त करना’ वाक्यांश के लिए मुहावरा होगा
A
ठन ठन गोपाल
B
जान हथेली पर रखना
C
दांत मीठे करना
D
दांत खट्टे करना
Question 850
परम +अणु = परमाणु का संधि भेद है :
A
विसर्ग संधि
B
वृद्धि संधि
C
गुण संधि
D
दीर्घ संधि
Question 851
कौनसा वाक्य शुद्ध है ?
A
थोड़ा थोड़ा चलने लगा बच्चा है |
B
थोड़ा –थोड़ा चलने लगा है बच्चा |
C
थोड़ा –थोड़ा बच्चा चलने लगा है |
D
बच्चा थोड़ा –थोड़ा चलने लगा है |
Question 852
पंचानन का समास विग्रह है :
A
पचास आनन
B
पांच आनन वाला
C
पांच और आनन
D
पांच है आनन जिसके
Question 853
नीलगाय में समास है :
A
द्वन्द समस
B
द्विगु समास
C
तत्पुरुष समास
D
कर्मधारय समास
Question 854
ग्रंथि का तद्भव शब्द है :
A
जिह्वा
B
ग्रन्थ
C
गांठना
D
गांठ
Question 855
मृग का पर्याय नहीं है
A
सुरंग
B
कुरंग
C
नग
D
हिरन
Question 856
कौन सा शब्द युग्म वचन की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है :
A
आदत –आदतें
B
हाथी –हथिनी
C
कामना –कामनाएं
D
पहिया –पहिये
Question 857
कुंवारी के लिए तत्सम शब्द है :
A
नारी
B
कुमारी
C
महिला
D
कन्या
Question 858
निश्छल का उचित संधि विच्छेद है :
A
नि +छल
B
नि : +छल
C
नि +चल
D
नि + अचल
Question 859
मेघमय आसमान से उतर रही, संध्या सुंदरी परी- सी धीरे –धीरे | में अलंकार है :
A
यमक अलंकर
B
पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश अलंकर
C
उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकर
D
मानवीकरण अलंकर
Question 860
‘विपत्ति को स्वयं बुलावा देना’ के लिए उचित लोकोक्ति है :
A
आ बैल मुझे मार
B
डूबते को तिनका का सहारा
C
अकेला चना भाड़ नहीं फोड़ सकता
D
एक अनार सौ बीमार
Question 861
काँटा का तत्सम रूप होगा :
A
कंटीला
B
कंटक
C
कांच
D
काटना
Question 862
अलौकिक का विलोम है :
A
हरिलोक
B
लौकिक
C
लोक
D
भूलोक
Question 863
विलोम शब्द का सही जोड़ा बताइए
A
प्रातः –प्राय
B
जटिल –कठिन
C
हित –भला
D
साक्षर –निरक्षर
Question 864
एड़ी –चोटी का जोर लगाना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ होगा :
A
कठिन परिश्रम करना
B
आराम से बैठना
C
अत्यधिक बल लगाना
D
जोर से भागना
Question 865
सदैव एक वचन में प्रयुक्त होता है
A
कथा
B
आग
C
रास्ता
D
गाय
Question 866
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा तद्भव शब्द है :
A
गाजर
B
गौ
C
घृणा
D
कृपा
Question 867
झुण्ड का पर्याय है
A
काफी
B
तट
C
नर
D
समूह
Question 868
The Railway Minister of India is appointed ___ on the advice of _______
A
the president; the Attorney-General
B
the Prime Minister; the Attorney-General
C
the Prime Minister; the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D
the President, the Prime Minister
Question 869
______ of the Constitution of India deals with the Panchayats.
A
Part XIII
B
Part II
C
Part IX
D
Part XXII
Question 870
पेंटिंग की निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी शैली ओड़िसा के सबसे पुराने और सबसे लोकप्रिय कला रूप में से एक है
A
कालमेजुथु
B
मिनीएचर
C
पट्टचित्र
D
वार्ली
Question 871
निम्नलिखित में से किस केन्द्रीय मंत्रालय को राष्ट्रीय महत्त्व के लिए सकोच पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया है?
A
आयुष मंत्रालय
B
कृषि और किसान कल्याण मंत्रालय
C
नवीन और नवीकरण उर्जा मंत्रालय
D
पर्यावरण, वन एवं जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय
Question 872
Which of the following cities is located on the banks of river sabarmati?
A
Anand
B
Gandhinagar
C
Surat
D
Vadodara
Question 873
Telangana government signed an MoU with_____ for India’s first block chain district.
A
Tech mahindra
B
Infosys
C
Wipro
D
TCS
Question 874
With which has India signed a protocol on 26th November 2018 to amend Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement(DTAA) for the avoidance of double taxation and for helping tax evasion?
A
France
B
China
C
Japan
D
U.S.A
Question 875
___________ Submits his resignation to ______________
A
A Judge of a High Court; the president
B
The Chief Minister; the Attorney-General
C
The Chief Minister; the Prime Minister
D
A judge of a High Court; the Attorney-General
Question 876
In which state is the ancient village hampi located?
A
Karnataka
B
Tamilnadu
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Kerala
Question 877
According to _____ of the Constitution of India, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
A
Article 120
B
Article 141
C
Article 97
D
Article 86
Question 878
The Nirmal paintings can be associated with which of the following states?
A
Nagaland
B
Kerala
C
Mizoram
D
Andhra pradesh
Question 879
Which of the following sports is associated with ‘Ryder cup’?
A
Kabaddi
B
Golf
C
Hockey
D
kho-Kho
Question 880
Which IIT has won the DSCI Excellence Award 2018 for Cyber Security Education by the Data Security Council of India, set up by NASSCOM?
A
IIT Guwahati
B
IIT Hyderabad
C
IIT Kanpur
D
IIT Kharagpur
Question 881
The distance covered by an object per unit time is called:
A
Pressure
B
Speed
C
Motion
D
Acceleration
Question 882
The Ghadar party, a movement launched in 1013 during the Indian freedom struggle, had its headquarters in which of the following cities?
A
San Francisco
B
Chicago
C
Los Angeles
D
Boston
Question 883
An ordinance promulgated under Article 123 of the Constitution Of india can be withdrawn by:
A
The Home Minister of India
B
The Attorney-General of India
C
The Finance Minister of India
D
The President of India
Question 884
Which of the following sessions of the Indian National Congress was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi?
A
Delhi, 1923
B
Kanpur, 1925
C
Guwahati, 1926
D
Belgaum, 1924
Question 885
In which country was the tenth BRICS summit held in July 2018?
A
Russia
B
China
C
Brazil
D
South Africa
Question 886
The NITI Aayog has partnered with the startup on Artificial Intelligence, Perlin, to launch the ‘AI 4 All Global hackathon’. This startup is based out of which country?
A
Germany
B
Singapore
C
Canada
D
israel
Question 887
In which state has the government organised a startup India venture capital summit in December 2018 with the theme ‘Mobilising Global Capital for Innovation in India’?
A
Uttarakhand
B
Chhattisgarh
C
Goa
D
Nagaland
Question 888
Which of the following tribes live their entire life migrating from one place to another in the Western Himalayas?
A
Irulas
B
Bakarwals
C
Totos
D
Kodavas
Question 889
Who among the following is the Union Minister of Commerce as of April 2019?
A
Arun Jaitley
B
Uma Bharti
C
Smriti Irani
D
Suresh Prabhu
Question 890
As per the 2011 Census, which one of the following is the state/union territory with the highest population density?
A
West bengal
B
Chandigarh
C
Bihar
D
Delhi
Question 891
Which is the highest peak in the Western Ghats?
A
Doddabetta Peak
B
Palni Hills
C
Kolaribetta Peak
D
Anamudi Peak
Question 892
Which city is supposed to host the Olympic Games in 2020?
A
Tokyo
B
Los Angeles
C
Paris
D
Beijing
Question 893
In which country was the Yoga event “Yoga for Peace” held in November 2018?
A
Brazil
B
Thailand
C
Argentina
D
Indonesia
Question 894
With which Sikh Guru is the famous Bangla Sahib Gurudwara of Delhi associated?
A
Guru Har Krishan
B
Guru Arjun
C
Guru Tegh Bahadur
D
Guru Har Govind
Question 895
प्रसिद्ध साहित्यिक कृति ‘मृच्छकटिका’ किसने लिखी है ?
A
शूद्रक
B
कालिदास
C
हर्ष
D
भासा
Question 896
In which city was the three-day Military Literature Festival(MLF) 2018 held in December 2018?
A
Jaipur
B
Chandigarh
C
Kanpur
D
Bhopal
Question 897
In which Sport did Rahi Sarnobat win gold medal in the Asian Games 2018?
A
Wrestling
B
Athletics
C
Boxing
D
Shooting
Question 898
Select the option that will come next in the following sequence.
13, 36, 69, 112. ?
A
148
B
165
C
119
D
123
Question 899
Two vessels A and B contain Spirit and water in the ratio 2:3 and 4:7 respectively. Their contents are mixed in the ratio 5:11. In 160ml of this solution, how much spirit should be added to make it a solution of spirit and water in the ratio 7:10?
A
20 ml
B
15 ml
C
5 ml
D
10 ml
Question 900
The total number of factors of 25 x 203 x 215 is:
A
1728
B
576
C
825
D
144
Question 901
Select the word that will come next in the following sequence.
Advertisement, Screening, Interview, Recruitment,?
A
Training
B
Induction
C
Layoff
D
Termination
Question 902
From the given alternatives, select the word that CANNOT be found using the letters of the given word only as many times as they appear in the word.
NEWSPAPER
A
WASP
B
WEEP
C
SPEAR
D
PREPARE
Question 903
If 13 January 1978 was a friday, then what day was it on 30 January in the same year?
A
Tuesday
B
Wednesday
C
Sunday
D
Monday
Question 904
If a:b=3:5, then (8a-2b):(8a+3b) is equal to:
A
36/49
B
36/37
C
14/39
D
39/49
Question 905
The average of 41 numbers is 62. The average of the first 21 numbers is 58 and the average of the last 21 numbers is 68. If the 21st number is excluded, what is the average of the remaining numbers?
A
60.25
B
62.85
C
60.95
D
61.75
Question 906
Arrange the following words in a meaningful order.
A
3,5,2,4,1,6
B
6,2,1,3,5,4
C
2,6,1,3,4,5
D
4,5,3,2,6,1
Question 907
Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the number is related to the first number.
8:131::11:?
A
240
B
245
C
243
D
241
Question 908
The efficiency of A is 40% less than the efficiency of B. Working together, they can finish a certain place of work in 15 days. In how many days A alone will complete 40% of that same work?
A
25
B
18
C
20
D
16
Question 909
Shanti is Banu’s daughter Banu is Chirag’s mother. Deepak is Chirag’s brother. How is Deepak related to Shanti?
A
Brother
B
Son
C
Grandfather
D
Father
Question 910
Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
Gladiator:Rome::Matador:?
A
France
B
Germany
C
Portugal
D
Spain
Question 911
A sum of Rs. 16800 is invested for 15 months at the rate of 12% per annum when the interest is compounded 5 monthly.
What is the percentage increase in the sum at the end of 15 months, correct to one decimal place?
A
15.8%
B
15.5%
C
15.2%
D
16.2%
Question 912
What will be the value of the following expression if ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘-’ means ‘multiplication’ and ‘x’ means ‘’division’?
105 x 5 - 3 ÷ 4 + 6
A
58
B
43
C
32
D
61
Question 913
In a code language, BAT is written as 58. In the same language, how will you write BLUE?
A
72
B
42
C
68
D
53
Question 914
What is the sum of digits of the least number that should be added to 58692 to make it a perfect square?
A
16
B
17
C
15
D
14
Question 915
Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence:
1. Disease
2. Buy Medicine
3. Doctor
4. Medical Shop
A
1,3,4,2
B
3,1,4,2
C
1,3,2,4
D
3,1,2,4
Question 916
A person marks his goods 50% above the cost price. He sells 35% of goods at 10% discount, 40% at 20% discount and remaining at 30% discount on the marked price. What is his overall gain percentage?
A
23.4%
B
21.5%
C
22.8%
D
24.5%
Question 917
Dhruv is the brother of Bhavesh; Mohan is the brother of Bhavesh; Kabir is the father of Mohan; and Tusharika is the wife of Kabir. How is Bhavesh related to Tusharika?
A
Son
B
Grandson
C
Uncle
D
Nephew
Question 918
With which digit should letter ‘x’ in the number 853x25 be substituted so that the number becomes divisible by 15?
A
4
B
7
C
9
D
1
Question 919
The sum of the first 10 terms of 1/(5*9) + 1/(9*13) + (1/13*17) + ___________is:
A
8/45
B
2/45
C
9/205
D
11/245
Question 920

Then the value of (a+4b) is:
A
-1
B
-4
C
1
D
4
Question 921
A,B,C,D,E,F and G are seven friends sitting around a round table and playing cards. D is not sitting immediately beside F. D is sitting second to the right of E. Who is sitting second to the right side of B. C is sitting third to the right of G and selected to the left of A. Who is sitting immediately to the right of B?
A
A
B
D
C
C
D
G
Question 922
The unit’s digit in the result of (24)34 + (47)32 - (23)22 is:
A
4
B
2
C
8
D
6
Question 923
The value of

is equal to:
A
B
C
D
Question 924
The HCF of two numbers is 23 and their product is 9522. How many such pairs of numbers are possible?
A
5
B
3
C
1
D
2
Question 925
Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
444:4 :: 636:?
A
16
B
6
C
13
D
9
Question 926
Arrange the following words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary.
A
3,5,4,2,1
B
2,5,3,4,1
C
2,3,5,4,1
D
4,3,5,2,1
Question 927
A person covers 5/8 th of his journey at the speed of 30 km/h and remaining at 40 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey, in km/h correct to one decimal place?
A
31.8
B
32.5
C
33.1
D
35
Question 928
In special education, the intervention that is designed to keep potential or minor problems at buy is called:
A
Tertiary prevention
B
Secondary intervention
C
Remedial intervention
D
Preventive intervention
Question 929
According to Weisman’s theory of Heredity, which of the following holds true?
A
Struggle for existence and survival of the fittest are in the two most important aspects for reproduction.
B
It is the germ plasma that is transmitted from generation to generation
C
Heredity does not go to immediate parents but remote ancestors.
D
The cause of variation in the offspring is due to dominant and recessive genes
Question 930
In philosophy, knowledge of the reality or truth is called:
A
Theodicy
B
Epistemology
C
Metaphysics
D
Ethics
Question 931
The Golden ratio is an example of relationship between Mathematics and ___.(Select the correct option to fill in the blank.)
A
Civics
B
Communication
C
Art
D
Health and Physical Education
Question 932
Which article ensures the right to equality for women?
A
Article 14
B
Article 15 (1)
C
Article 16
D
Article 15 (3)
Question 933
The society or custom in which a married couple settles with or near the husband’s family is known as a:
A
Autocratic society
B
Patrilocal society
C
Patriarchal society
D
Matriarchal society
Question 934
The natural ability to learn a language, NOT due to interest, motivation and so on, is known as:
A
Language attitude
B
Language ability
C
Language aptitude
D
Language sense
Question 935
The counselling in which emotional elements are more stressed on than intellectual elements is known as:
A
Systematic desensitisation
B
Permissive counselling
C
Aversive therapy
Question 936
Which of the following is NOT a quality of moral development?
A
Reliability
B
Yielding in action
C
Self-control
D
Consciousness
Question 937
Which of the following DOES NOT come under the affective domain of Bloom’s Taxonomy?
A
Receiving
B
Valuing
C
Imitation
D
Responding
Question 938
Under Flanders interaction Analysis Category System of what happens in a classroom when a teacher, the teacher’s talk is put under how many categories?
A
7
B
4
C
1
D
2
Question 939
Which of the following is NOT a component of the skills stimulus variation?
A
Positive verbal reinforcement
B
Sensory focus
C
Pupil’s movement
D
Teacher’s gesture
Question 940
A teacher asks the students the following set of questions. On the basis of these questions, identify the practice adopted by the teacher in this scenario.
What are the main points of this reading?
Was anything confusing or unclear?
What was new to you?
Did it change the way you think?
A
Reading reflection
B
Passive reading method
C
Scaffolding
D
SQ3R
Question 941
The economic, social and political responsibilities that are considered appropriate for men and women in a culture is known as:
A
Gender awareness
B
Gender equity
C
Gender equality
D
Gender role
Question 942
Which of the following CANNOT be identified as development?
A
Grasping
B
Increase in weight
C
Hopping
D
Walking
Question 943
Which of the following is NOT an element of communication?
A
Interaction
B
Context
C
Message
D
Symbol
Question 944
Which of the following is NOT a component of explaining science while teaching?
A
Cognitive links
B
Rote repetition
C
Use of illustrations
D
Compare and contrast
Question 945
Anand is a 10 year old boy who enjoys reading, writing and putting puzzles together and recognises pictures and patterns easily. Considering Howard Gardner MI theory, which Intelligence is dominating in Anand as per the given description?
A
Interpersonal
B
Bodily-kinaesthetic
C
Visual-Spatial
D
Linguistic-Verbal
Question 946
Which of the following is NOT an aspect or attribute of intelligence?
A
Concrete
B
Level
C
Range
D
Area
Question 947
Which of the following is an example of the correct way of writing general instructional objectives in science?
A
To provide knowledge on Earth’s magnetic field
B
The pupil acquires knowledge and understands the properties of ozone
C
The pupil acquires knowledge about photosynthesis.
D
The class develops skills in drawing and labelling
Question 948
Forgetting their old enmity, they joined hands with a spirit of camaraderie.
A
animosity
B
love
C
friendliness
D
Trust
Question 949
Rajan employed my friend only when I agreed to avouch for his honesty.
A
vow
B
affirm
C
pay
D
guarantee
Question 950
They knew by his sophomoric remarks that he was still naive in the field.
A
casual
B
unpalatable
C
ignorant
D
immature
Question 951
They shunned him because he was a lecherous man who always looked for an opportunity to cheat others.
A
lustful
B
deceptive
C
cunning
D
dishonest
Question 952
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
The attack on the freedom of the press is a retrograde step.
A
declining
B
progressive
C
punitive
D
stubborn
Question 953
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
There was no altruistic motive that prompted him to help her.
A
wicked
B
brutal
C
inhuman
D
selfish
Question 954
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
According to a great philosopher, magnanimity in a man implies many other qualities.
A
poverty
B
jealousy
C
meanness
D
Enmity
Question 955
Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
Her impetuous behaviour was attributed to her upbringing.
A
swift
B
rash
C
quiet and gentle
D
sluggish
Question 956
Fill in the blank.
Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making a _____ selection.
A
standard
B
sample
C
moderate
D
judicious
Question 957
Fill in the blank.
Some people _____ themselves into believing that they are indispensable to the organization they work for.
A
fool
B
delude
C
force
D
denigrate
Question 958
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase in the sentence. Lord Clive won his laurels in the battle of Plassey.
A
fought bravely
B
defeated his enemies
C
acquired distinction
D
Overpowered his enemies
Question 959
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase in the sentence.
The best policy is to let sleeping dogs lie.
A
to be liberal
B
to be tolerant
C
to be neutral
D
to avoid discussing troublesome matters
Question 960
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase in the sentence.
He was in a brown study and did not seem to catch my point.
A
in his study room
B
absorbed in reading
C
absent-minded
D
in a state of shock
Question 961
Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase in the sentence.
A good teacher should have the gift of the gab.
A
a good personality
B
a talent for acting
C
a talent for speaking
D
an interest in discipline
Question 962
A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
A
Etiquete
B
Etiquette
C
Ettiquete
D
Ettiquette
Question 963
A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
A
Millonare
B
Millionaire
C
Millionare
D
Millonaire
Question 964
A passage has been broken into five parts. Choose the correct sequence to make it a meaningful passage.
A : The knowledge so far available about the endocrine glands is very limited.
B : Nature has provided the body with proper regulators and protectors.
C : These are our endocrine glands.
D : And so the proper functioning of these controllers of our body is very important and most vital for health.
E : However, all the medical sciences have accepted the fact that these endocrine glands secrete thousands of different types of hormones directly from our blood.
A
ABCDE
B
BDCAE
C
BDEAC
D
CBADE
Question 965
A passage has been broken into five parts. Choose the correct sequence to make it a meaningful passage.
A : Seconds later, the glaring object swept past and he thought he had out maneuvered it.
B : While flying over enemy territory, Jones received the warning of an oncoming missile.
C : He was proved wrong when he saw the vertical tail fins on fire.
D : Without wasting time, he slammed the throttles forward and made the plane roll into a high speed turn.
E : Hardly had he responded to the message when he actually saw what every fighter pilot dreaded most.
A
BEDAC
B
BDCEA
C
CDEAB
D
CBADE
Question 966
A passage has been broken into five parts. Choose the correct sequence to make it a meaningful passage.
A : A taxi was summoned and Satish was taken to Lifeline Hospital.
B : While hurrying home from school, Satish was hit by a car.
C : Since they did not succeed, they decided to take him to a hospital.
D : Some people rushed towards him and tried to bring him to his senses.
E : He was thrown a couple of feet away and lost consciousness.
A
ABCED
B
BDCAE
C
BEDCA
D
CBAED
Question 967
A passage has been broken into five parts. Choose the correct sequence to make it a meaningful passage.
A : Many consider it wrong to blight youngsters by recruiting then into armed forces at a younger age.
B : It is very difficult to have an agreement on an issue when emotions run high.
C : The debate has again come up whether this is right or wrong.
D : In many countries military service is compulsory for all.
E : Some of these detractors of compulsory draft are even very angry.
A
ACBED
B
DCAEB
C
BDEAC
D
DAECB
Question 968
निम्न लिखित शब्दों के लिए इनका उपर्युक्त विलोम शब्द (विपरीतार्थ) छांटिए :
गणतंत्र
A
प्रजातंत्र
B
ह्रदयतंत्र
C
यंत्रतंत्र
D
राज तंत्र
Question 969
निम्न लिखित शब्दों के लिए इनका उपर्युक्त विलोम शब्द (विपरीतार्थ) छांटिए :
गुण
A
सगुण
B
गुणातीत
C
अवगुण
D
गान
Question 970
निम्नलिखित वाक्यांशों के लिए विकल्पों में उपयुक्त शब्द चिनिए :
जिसके समान दूसरा न हो
A
अद्वितीय
B
अनोखा
C
अकेला
D
असमान
Question 971
निम्नलिखित वाक्यांशों के लिए विकल्पों में उपयुक्त शब्द चिनिए :
जो परीक्षा में उत्तीर्ण न हो
A
असफल
B
अनुत्तीर्ण
C
अयोग्य
D
असमान
Question 972
निम्नलिखित वाक्यांशों के लिए विकल्पों में उपयुक्त शब्द चिनिए :
जो उपकार को न मानता हो
A
कृतघ्न
B
उपकारी
C
कृतज्ञ
D
अनुपकारी
Question 973
नीचे दिए गए शब्दों के विकल्पों में एक शब्द पर्यायवाची (समानार्थी ) नहीं है उसे छांटिए |
तलवार
A
खड्ग
B
असि
C
करगल
D
कुटार
Question 974
नीचे दिए गए शब्दों के विकल्पों में एक शब्द पर्यायवाची (समानार्थी ) नहीं है उसे छांटिए |
गंगा
A
भागीरथ
B
सुरसरि
C
अवतरणी
D
मंदाकिनी
Question 975
नीचे दिए गए शब्दों के विकल्पों में एक शब्द पर्यायवाची (समानार्थी ) नहीं है उसे छांटिए |
इंद्र
A
भूपेन्द्र
B
शक्र
C
सुरपति
D
पर्वतारि
Question 976
दिए गए विकल्पों में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला छांटिए :
A
शंशय
B
संश्य
C
सन्शय
D
संशय
Question 977
दिए गए विकल्पों में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला छांटिए :
A
दृष्य
B
दृश्य
C
द्रिष्य
D
द्रश
Question 978
दिए गए विकल्पों में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला छांटिए :
A
उद्योगिक
B
आद्योगिक
C
D
ओद्योगिक
Question 979
दिए गए विकल्पों में से ‘सम्राट’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग छांटिए :
A
सम्राटी
B
समराटिन
C
सम्राज्ञी
D
स्त्री –सम्राट
Question 980
दिए गए विकल्पों में से ‘ज्ञानवती’ का पुलिंग शब्द छांटिए :
A
ज्ञानवत
B
ज्ञानवान
C
ज्ञानयुक्त
D
ज्ञानेय
Question 981
‘युवा’ शब्द का लिंग परिवर्तन करने के लिए निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से सही शब्द छांटिए :
A
युवी
B
युवराज्ञी
C
युवती
D
युवराज
Question 982
निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से संधि –विच्छेद करते समय दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही रूप छांटिए :
निष्काम
A
निष् + काम
B
नि : + काम
C
निंश + काम
D
निस + काम
Question 983
निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से संधि –विच्छेद करते समय दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही रूप छांटिए :
वीरोचित
A
वीर + उचित
B
वीर + औचित
C
वीरा + चित
D
वि + उचित
Question 984
निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से संधि –विच्छेद करते समय दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही रूप छांटिए :
मदोन्मत्त
A
मदन + उन्मत
B
मदो + मत्त
C
मद + उन्मत्त
D
मदन + मत
Question 985
दिए गए मुहावरे –लोकोक्तियों का सही अर्थ छांटिए :
रंग उड़ना
A
घबरा जाना
B
रंग फीका पड़ना
C
गुलाल बिखेरना
D
रंग में डूबना
Question 986
दिए गए मुहावरे –लोकोक्तियों का सही अर्थ छांटिए :
विपत्ति मोल लेना
A
बिना पत्ते की सब्जी लेना
B
जान- बूझ कर संकट में पड़ना
C
एक दवाई खरीदना
D
मुसीबत खरीदना
Question 987
दिए गए मुहावरे –लोकोक्तियों का सही अर्थ छांटिए :
आगे कुवां पीछे खाई
A
दोनों ओर विपत्ति होना
B
दोनों ओर गहरे गड्ढ़े होना
C
पहले कुवां खरीदना, फिर खाई
D
सामने कुवा पीठ पीछे खाई होना
Question 988
Who has been named for the Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony 2013 ?
A
Pt Ravi Shankar
B
Zubin Mehta
C
N C Satyanarayana
D
None of these
Question 989
Which of the following days is observed as the “International Day of Charity” ?
A
September 5
B
August 22
C
October 3
D
July 15
Question 990
Who is the 23rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
A
Raghuram Govind Rajan
B
D Subbarao
C
V V Reddy
D
None of these
Question 991
Who has been appointed as the new Foreign Secretary of India from August 2013 ?
A
Sujata Singh
B
S Jaishankar
C
Ranjan Mathai
D
None of these
Question 992
Who among the following is the Director-General, WHO ?
A
Margaret Chan
B
Jose Graziano Da Silva
C
Roberto Azevedo
D
None of these
Question 993
The recently launched book ‘The Good, The Bad and The Ridiculous’ is co-authored by Humra Quraishi and
A
Rajmohan Gandhi
B
Mark Tully
C
Khushwant Singh
D
Taslima Nasrin
Question 994
GSAT-7, India’s first full-fledged communication satellite built by ISRO and launched in 2013, is also known by the name
A
Laxmi
B
Rukmini
C
Bhagirathi
D
Aishwarya
Question 995
Which electronic company has launched the Galaxy Gear, a “Smart Watch” that can run applications and internet with its own family of smart phones ?
A
Apple
B
Samsung
C
Nokia
D
LG
Question 996
Which country does well known tennis player Novak Djokovic belong to ?
A
Spain
B
Switzerland
C
Serbia
D
Russia
Question 997
Name the ruling political party of the United Kingdom (UK).
A
Conservative Party
B
Labour Party
C
Liberal Democrats
D
Democratic Unionist Party
Question 998
The Indian junior women’s hockey team has made history by clinching the _____ position at the Junior Women World Cup 2013.
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 999
The acronym IPCC stands for
A
International Political Conference Committee.
B
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
C
International Protocol on Carbon Compounds.
D
International Parliamentary Cabinet Committee.
Question 1000
The G-24 Ministerial Meeting and G-20 Finance Ministers’ and Central Bank Governors’ Meeting took place in October 2013 at
A
Brisbane
B
Saint Petersburg
C
Cannes
D
Washington
Question 1001
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, prohibits displaying any election matter by means, inter alia, of television or similar apparatus, during the period of 48 hours before the hour fixed for conclusion of poll in a constituency ?
A
Section 75
B
Section 126
C
Section 112
D
Section 45
Question 1002
Alice Munro has been awarded the Nobel Prize for 2013 in the field of
A
Medicine
B
Economics
C
Literature
D
Physics
Question 1003
Which among the following banks celebrated its centenary year in October 2013 ?
A
State Bank of Mysore
B
Syndicate Bank
C
Indian Overseas Bank
D
Allahabad Bank
Question 1004
US retail Walmart Stores Inc has called off the joint venture (JV) with the _____ in October 2013 ?
A
Reliance Group
B
Bharti Group
C
Aditya Birla Group
D
Tata Group
Question 1005
‘Keran’, the area recently in the news is located in which part of India?
A
Unnao Distt in Uttar Pradesh
B
Kedarnath Valley, Uttarakhand
C
Coastal area in North Odisha
D
Northern Kashmir, J&K
Question 1006
How many teams took part in the first ever Indian Badminton League (IBL) held in 2013 ?
A
6
B
8
C
10
D
7
Question 1007
Who has been chosen for the 21st Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavna Award for his outstanding contribution towards promotion of communal harmony, peace and goodwill ?
A
Ud Amjad Ali Khan
B
Ud Zakir Hussain
C
Pt. Birju Maharaj
D
Pt. Vishwa Mohan Bhatt
Question 1008
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are six writers of literature A, B, C, D E and F. Two belong to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali, two to Hindi, two to Marathi and one to the Tamil literature. The 20th century writer wrote poetry only and contributed to Marathi literature and the other Marathi writer contributed to poetry, novel and drama. One Hindi writer and the only Tamil writer belonged to the 19th century. The former contributed to poetry and novel while the latter to novel and drama. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to the 20th century, B wrote drama only, C contributed to Marathi literature, D was a Hindi poet and novelist and belonged to the 19th century. E also belonged to the 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only. Writer B contributed to which language?
A
Bengali
B
Hindi
C
Marathi
D
Tamil
Question 1009
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are six writers of literature A, B, C, D E and F. Two belong to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali, two to Hindi, two to Marathi and one to the Tamil literature. The 20th century writer wrote poetry only and contributed to Marathi literature and the other Marathi writer contributed to poetry, novel and drama. One Hindi writer and the only Tamil writer belonged to the 19th century. The former contributed to poetry and novel while the latter to novel and drama. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to the 20th century, B wrote drama only, C contributed to Marathi literature, D was a Hindi poet and novelist and belonged to the 19th century. E also belonged to the 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only. Who was the Tamil writer among the following ?
A
A
B
D
C
E
D
C
Question 1010
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are six writers of literature A, B, C, D E and F. Two belong to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali, two to Hindi, two to Marathi and one to the Tamil literature. The 20th century writer wrote poetry only and contributed to Marathi literature and the other Marathi writer contributed to poetry, novel and drama. One Hindi writer and the only Tamil writer belonged to the 19th century. The former contributed to poetry and novel while the latter to novel and drama. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to the 20th century, B wrote drama only, C contributed to Marathi literature, D was a Hindi poet and novelist and belonged to the 19th century. E also belonged to the 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only. Writer A contributed to which branch of literature ?
A
Poetry
B
Novel
C
Drama
D
All of these
Question 1011
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are six writers of literature A, B, C, D E and F. Two belong to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali, two to Hindi, two to Marathi and one to the Tamil literature. The 20th century writer wrote poetry only and contributed to Marathi literature and the other Marathi writer contributed to poetry, novel and drama. One Hindi writer and the only Tamil writer belonged to the 19th century. The former contributed to poetry and novel while the latter to novel and drama. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to the 20th century, B wrote drama only, C contributed to Marathi literature, D was a Hindi poet and novelist and belonged to the 19th century. E also belonged to the 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only. Who was the Bengali writer among the following ?
A
A
B
C
C
B
D
F
Question 1012
Each of these questions has a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.
Statement : A good voice is a natural gift; but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music.
Conclusions:
Natural gifts need nurturing and care.
Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practising.
A
if conclusion I follows.
B
if conclusion II follows.
C
if either conclusion I or II follows.
D
if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Question 1013
Each of these questions has a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statement.
Statement : Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of indigenous crude oil.
Conclusions:
Crude oil must be imported.
Domestic demand should be reduced.
A
if conclusion I follows.
B
if conclusion II follows.
C
if either conclusion I or II follows.
D
if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Question 1014
Choose the odd one from the given series.
1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 256, 778
A
10
B
21
C
129
D
256
Question 1015
If MOBILITY is coded as 46293927 in a certain language code, then EXAMINATION will be coded in the same language code as
A
45038401854
B
56149512965
C
57159413955
D
67250623076
Question 1016
Saina was given some money by her father on her birthday. Saina spent all of it in five shops. In each shop, she spent one rupee more than half of what she had when she came in. How much did she get from her father ?
A
₹30
B
₹120
C
₹46
D
₹62
Question 1017
A school has 378 girl students and 675 boy students. The school is divided into strictly boys or strictly girls sections and all sections in the school have the same number of students. Find the number of sections in the school.
A
39
B
14
C
25
D
27
Question 1018
5 kg of rice at ₹6 per kg is mixed with 4 kg of rice to get a mixture costing ₹7 per kg. Find the per kg price of the costlier rice.
A
₹8.50
B
₹8.25
C
₹9.50
D
₹9.25
Question 1019
A manufacturer makes a profit of 15% by selling a colour TV for ₹6,900. If the cost of manufacturing increases by 30% and the price paid by the retailer is increased by 20%, find the percentage of profit made by the manufacturer.
A
6.15%
B
7.25%
C
6.75%
D
8.50%
Question 1019 Explanation: 
For the manufacturer
Profit% = (SP-CP)/CP *100
15/100 = (6900-CP)/CP
0.15*CP = 6900 - CP
1.15*CP = 6900
CP = Rs 6000

Now, if CP increased by 30%
i.e. CP' = CP + 30%CP
CP' = 6000 + 0.3*6000 = Rs 7800

Also, the SP increases by 20%
hence SP' = 6900 + 20% of 6900 =Rs 8280
hence new profit = SP' - CP' = 8280-7800=480
hence, profit % = Profit/CP' *100
= (480/7800) *100
= 6.15%
Question 1020
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are six writers of literature A, B, C, D E and F. Two belong to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali, two to Hindi, two to Marathi and one to the Tamil literature. The 20th century writer wrote poetry only and contributed to Marathi literature and the other Marathi writer contributed to poetry, novel and drama. One Hindi writer and the only Tamil writer belonged to the 19th century. The former contributed to poetry and novel while the latter to novel and drama. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to the 20th century, B wrote drama only, C contributed to Marathi literature, D was a Hindi poet and novelist and belonged to the 19th century. E also belonged to the 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only. Writer C contributed to which branch of literature ?
A
Poetry
B
Drama
C
Novel
D
All of these
Question 1021
A man travels from his house to his office at 5 km/hr and reaches his office 20 minutes late. If his speed has been 7.5 km/hr, he would have reached his office 12 minutes early. Find the distance from his house to his office.
A
6 km
B
7 km
C
8 km
D
9 km
Question 1022
Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank ?
A
10 min, 40 sec
B
11 min, 45 sec
C
12 min, 30 sec
D
14 min, 40 sec
Question 1023
The contents in beakers A and B are 90 litres of milk and 90 litres of water respectively. Now 30 litres of milk is taken from A and put into breaker B. After thorough mixing, 12 litres of the mixture is taken from B and put into breaker A. What is the percentage of water in breaker A ?
A
14.5%
B
12.5%
C
15.5%
D
17.5%
Question 1024
Neelam, who is Deepak’s daughter, says to Deepika, “your mother Rekha is the younger sister of my father, who is the third child of Ramlal”. How is Ramlal related to Deepika ?
A
Uncle
B
Father
C
Grandfather
D
Father-in-law
Question 1025
The length and the breadth of a rectangle are changed by +20% and by -10% respectively. What is the percentage change in the area of the rectangle ?
A
10%
B
12.5%
C
8%
D
15%
Question 1025 Explanation: 
Use shortcut method to solve this problem:
Length and breadth of a rectangle are changed by +20%
(Increasing) and -10%(decreasing)
= +20-10-((20*10)/100)
= 10-2
= 8%
Question 1026
Ravi borrows a sum of ₹1,200 at the beginning of a year. After 4 months, an amount of ₹1,800 more is borrowed at a rate of interest double the previous one. At the end of the year, the sum of interest on both the loans is ₹216. What is the first rate of interest per annum ?
A
9%
B
6%
C
8%
D
12%
Question 1026 Explanation: 
Simple Interest=PRT/100
Beginning of a year S.I=x
After 4 months of a year S.I =2x
216 = (1200*1*x)/100 + (1800*(8/12)*2x)/100
= 6 %
Question 1027
A contractor undertakes to build a wall in 50 days. He employs 50 men for the same. However, after 25 days he finds that the work is only 40% complete. How many more men need to be employed to complete the work 10 days before time ?
A
75
B
95
C
115
D
125
Question 1027 Explanation: 
50 men can complete 40% work in 25 days. Suppose x men can complete 60% work in 15 days.
= (50*25)/ (40/100)
= (x*15)/ (60/100)
After solving this
5x=625
x=125
Required men= 125-50
=75
Question 1028
Human personality is the result of
A
heredity only.
B
environment only.
C
upbringing and education.
D
interaction between heredity and environment.
Question 1029
Learners often display individual differences. Therefore, a teacher should
A
enforce strict discipline.
B
maintain uniform pace of learning.
C
provide a variety of learning experiences.
D
have more tests.
Question 1030
In the context of education, socialization means
A
always following social norms
B
adjusting and adapting to the social environment.
C
respecting elders in society.
D
None of these
Question 1031
What is the natural language acquaintance in the teaching method ?
A
Writing, hearing, speaking, reading.
B
Hearing, speaking, reading, writing.
C
Speaking, hearing, reading, writing.
D
None of these
Question 1032
Being a teacher, what would you do when a good student scores less marks ?
A
Give him/her a psychological treatment.
B
Feel shameful in front of the class.
C
Inspire him/her to work hard.
D
Punish him/her severely.
Question 1033
When previous learning makes no difference at all to the learning in the new situation, it is called
A
negative transfer of learning.
B
positive transfer of learning.
C
zero transfer of learning.
D
absolute transfer of learning.
Question 1034
Who is mainly responsible for classroom management ?
A
Students
B
Principal
C
Class-teacher
D
None of these
Question 1035
Teachers should study the errors of their students as they often indicate the
A
level of their knowledge.
B
need for differentiated curriculum.
C
pathways for ability grouping.
D
remedial strategies required.
Question 1036
A creative learner is one who is
A
highly intelligent.
B
good in drawing and painting.
C
good at lateral thinking and problem solving.
D
capable of scoring consistently good marks in tests.
Question 1037
When a teacher takes his/her class for a field trip and on coming back discusses the trip with students, it is called
A
assessment for learning.
B
learning for assessment.
C
assessment of learning.
D
learning of assessment.
Question 1038
The main job of a teacher is to
A
focus on teaching only.
B
point out mistakes of students continuously.
C
help the students to learn for themselves.
D
None of these
Question 1039
Which of the following is/are a correct statement(s) ?
A
Learning capacity of all children is different.
B
Most children have similar nature.
C
Most children possess similar interest.
D
All of these.
Question 1040
Teaching of students should be according to
A
their nature.
B
their mental development.
C
their capability to learn.
D
All of these
Question 1041
Which of the following is a feature of progressive education ?
A
Instruction based solely on prescribed text books.
B
Emphasis on scoring good marks in examinations.
C
Frequent tests and examinations.
D
Flexible time-table and seating arrangement.
Question 1042
Due to the utilization of various methods in teaching
A
teaching has become simple.
B
teaching has become interesting.
C
students pay more attention.
D
All of these
Question 1043
Which of the following fields is not covered by educational psychology ?
A
Philosophical basis of education.
B
Group dynamics.
C
Evaluation of teachers and researchers in education.
D
Process of adjustment.
Question 1044
Which of the following is generally considered the most effective way to change behaviour ?
A
Regular awards.
B
Good advice.
C
Physical punishment.
D
None of these.
Question 1045
Students are given homework primarily because
A
it helps in assessment of the success of the teaching process.
B
it helps to reduce mischievous activities of students.
C
enables a child to study at home also.
D
it saves teachers’ work
Question 1046
Similarity or difference of a person from others in his performance is due to the effect of
A
his heredity.
B
his environmental training.
C
Both (1) & (2)
D
None of these
Question 1047
Psychological principles and theories can be applied in the field of
A
Management
B
Business
C
Medical treatment
D
All of these
Question 1048
Which of the following symbol is used to create a link to a named anchor in HTML?
A
&
B
@
C
#
D
$
Question 1048 Explanation: 
The syntax for anchor tag is as follows
< a href="# " > and < a name=" " >
Question 1049
JavaScipt is a/an____language
A
Machine
B
Interpreted
C
System
D
Compiled
Question 1050
Observe the HTML code given below and identify the line that will be ignored and not displayed by the browser:
< HTML >
< TITLE > Browser Test < /TITLE >
< BODY >
< I >Test < /I >
< !--testing -- >
< B > Website < /B >
< /BODY >
< /HTML >
A
< TITLE > Browser Test
B
< B > Website < /B >
C
< !--testing -- >
D
< I > Test
Question 1050 Explanation: 
< ! --- > is used as comment in html code.
Comments are ignored by browser to display the corresponding content.
Question 1051
An element in an XML DTD having no content is known as.
A
unrestricted element
B
Container element
C
Empty element
D
Null element
Question 1051 Explanation: 
Empty elements are declared with the category keyword
EMPTY:
&l; !ELEMENT element-name EMPTY >
Example:
< !ELEMENT br EMPTY >
XML example:
< br / >
Question 1052
Pick out the invalid element naming rule for an XML element from the following rules :
A
Names can start with a number or punctuation character.
B
Names can contain letters, numbers, hyphens, underscores and periods.
C
Names cannot contain spaces
D
Names must not start with the letters.
Question 1052 Explanation: 
XML elements must follow these naming rules:
Element names are case-sensitive
Element names must start with a letter or underscore
Element names cannot start with the letters xml (or XML, or Xml, etc)
Element names can contain letters, digits, hyphens, underscores, and periods
Element names cannot contain spaces
Question 1053
Choose the compulsory attribute of the XML declaration statement from the following attributes :
A
Version
B
Encoding
C
Standalone
D
Doctype
Question 1053 Explanation: 
An XML declaration is made up of as many as three name/value pairs, syntactically identical to attributes.
The three attributes are a mandatory version attribute and optional encoding and standalone attributes
Question 1054
The element content model of a DTD uses the '+' symbol to indicate that the element.
A
Occurs one or multiple times
B
Occurs zero or multiple times
C
Occurs one or not at all
D
Occurs only once
Question 1054 Explanation: 
“+” is used to indicate the element occurs one or multiple times
“*” is used to indicate the element occurs one or multiple times
Question 1055
Identify which of the following is not a predefined internal entity in XML specification :
A
& apos; (to display the 'symbol)
B
& amp; (to display the & symbol)
C
& nbsp; (to display the 'symbol)
D
& quot; (to display the "symbol)
Question 1055 Explanation: 
In XML, & apos; is used to display the symbol(‘).
& amp; (to display the & symbol)
& quot; (to display the "symbol)
& nbsp; (to display the space symbol)
Question 1056
IPv6 has _______ bit address.
A
32
B
64
C
128
D
Variable
Question 1056 Explanation: 
IPV4 has 32-bit address and IPV6 has 128 bit address.
IPv6 uses a 128-bit address, theoretically allowing 2128, or approximately 3.4×1038 addresses.
Question 1057
Identify the incorrect statement about XML parser :
A
A parser is a software program that checks the syntax used in an XML file.
B
A validating passer ensures that the XML document is well formed but not valid.
C
Validating passer checks syntax as well as compares the structure of the XML document .
D
Non-validating parser only checks for structure problems with the XML code.
Question 1057 Explanation: 
A parser is a piece of program that takes a physical representation of some data and converts it into an in-memory form for the program as a whole to use. Parsers are used everywhere in software. An XML Parser is a
parser that is designed to read XML and create a way for programs to use XML.
Question 1058
In the _____ method, after the station finds the idle, it sends or refrains from sending based on probability.
A
Non-persistent
B
One-persistent
C
P-persistent
D
Non-validating
Question 1058 Explanation: 
In p-persistent CSMA protocol, after the station finds the line idle, it sends or refrains from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator.
Question 1059
What is the main function of transport layer?
A
Node to node delivery
B
Synchronization
C
Updating and maintenance of routing tables.
D
Process to process message delivery.
Question 1059 Explanation: 
The main function of transport layer is to transfer the packet from source to destination ensuring that the packet sent has not been modified/destroyed and lost.
Transport layer is the 4th layer in TCP/IP Model that deals with logical communication between process
Question 1060
Shreya is adding links to her school website. She wants that the link colour should change as soon as the visitor's mouse pointer is over the link and then the original colour of the link should be restored when the mouse points anywhere else on the page. which of the following two event handlers will be required for the script to achieve this effect ?
A
onMouseDown and onMouseUp
B
onMouseIn and onMouseOut
C
onMouseOver and onMouseOut
D
onMouseOver and onMouseUp
Question 1060 Explanation: 
onmouseout:The event occurs when a user moves the mouse pointer out of an element, or out of one of its children
onmouseover:The event occurs when the pointer is moved onto an element, or onto one of its children
Question 1061
Study the following three statements carefully :
Statement 1 : JavaScript support 3 primitive data types - integer, string and Boolean.
Statement 2 : JavaScript support 2 composite data types - arrays and objects.
Statement 3 : JavaScript support 2 special data types - null and undefined.
Choose the option below that is absolutely correct about the above three statements.
A
Only statement 2 and statement 3 are true.
B
Only statement 1 and statement 3 are true.
C
Only statement 1 and statement 3 are true.
D
All the statements are true.
Question 1061 Explanation: 
There are six basic data types in JavaScript which can be divided into three main categories: primitive (or primary), composite (or reference), and special data types. String, Number, and Boolean are primitive data types.
Object, Array, and Function (which are all types of objects) are composite data types. Whereas Undefined and Null are special data types.
Question 1062
Study the code given below: < HTML > < HEAD > < SCRIPT LANGUAGE = "JavaScript" > function start () { alert ("Event Occured") } < /SCRIPT > < /HEAD > < BODY onLoad = "Start()" > < h1 > Guess the event < /H1 > < /BODY > < /HTML > How many times will the function Start () be called ?
A
Once every time the system starts.
B
Once every time the web page is refreshed.
C
Only once when the window is opened.
D
Will not be called as the event handler is wrong.
Question 1062 Explanation: 
onload() event is execute a JavaScript immediately after a page has been loaded
Question 1063
Identify the statement that is equivalent to the given statement : document. write ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
A
window.document.write ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
B
body.document.write. ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
C
location .document.write ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
D
document.writeln ("Hello! Welcome to JavaScript")
Question 1063 Explanation: 
The document object (of the HTML DOM) is a property of the window object. The statement window.document.write () is equivalent to document.write() statement.
Question 1064
Sankjukta created a smiley face in flash and then converted it into a symbol to be stored in the flash library. which of the following statements is false about this graphic symbol named "Smiley" ?
A
Smiley is a stage level object.
B
Smiley is a overlay level object.
C
Many instances of this graphic can be created and used on stage.
D
This object will operate in sync with the timeline of the main movie.
Question 1064 Explanation: 
Overlay is nothing but Multiplies or screens the colours, depending on the base colours
Question 1065
What will be the output of the following script command ?
document.write (2+5+"8");
A
258
B
Error
C
78
D
7
Question 1065 Explanation: 
The “+” operator acts as arithmetic operator along with integers and concatenation operator along with string.
The expression 2+5+"8" gives 78
Question 1066
To delete unwanted parts of an image which are not required in the final output, one has to :
A
Blur unwanted parts
B
Change the canvas size to exclude parts
C
Use the crop tools
D
Use the sponge tool
Question 1066 Explanation: 
The Crop Tool allows you to remove unwanted parts of an image by drawing a rectangle around the part you want to keep and then rotating it if needed. Outside of the selection is deleted.
Question 1067
The part of RAM in a computer to hold the graphics information for one frame consisting of colour values for every pixel on the screen is known as.
A
Pixel buffer
B
Image buffer
C
Frame buffer
D
Video buffer
Question 1067 Explanation: 
A framebuffer) is a portion of RAM containing a bitmap that drives a video display.
Picture definition is stored in a memory area called the refresh buffer or frame buffer. This memory area holds the set of intensity values for all the screen points.
Each screen point is referred to as a pixel or pel
Question 1068
Identify and frame the photoshop feature that is a set of instructions built into the program to apply special effects to pictures with options such as.
COMEIMAGE
A
Feathering
B
Filters
C
Channels
D
Layers
Question 1068 Explanation: 
We can use filters to clean up or retouch your photos, apply special art effects that give your image the appearance of a sketch or impressionistic painting, or create unique transformations using distortions and lighting effects
Question 1069
Identify the feature/panel of flash interface which is the lower portion of the interface and has two views : graphical view and list view.
A
Property inspector
B
Tools panel
C
Scene Panel
D
Layers Panel
Question 1069 Explanation: 
Question 1070
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of star topology compared to other standard topology ?
A
Easy to connect new nodes or devices
B
Require less cable length
C
All nodes are directly connected to the server.
D
Isolation of faulty node is easy.
Question 1070 Explanation: 
In a star network, every host is connected to a central hub. In its simplest form, one central hub acts as a conduit to transmit messages
If the central node fails means the entire network will collapse
Question 1071
Distribution of flash movies may either be through _________ for viewing on the internet or it may be _______ into another file format.
A
Publishing, Exporting
B
Exporting, Publishing
C
Previewing, Exporting
D
Exporting, Previewing
Question 1071 Explanation: 
Flash movies can distributed over the internet by using .swf files.
Export your Flash movie as an .swf file by using File
The Publish command creates an SWF file and an HTML document that inserts your Flash content in a browser window.
The Publish command also creates and copies detection files for Macromedia Flash 4 from Adobe and later
Question 1072
Distribution of flash movies may either be through _________ for viewing on the internet or it may be _______ into another file format.
A
Publishing, Exporting
B
Exporting, Publishing
C
Previewing, Exporting
D
Exporting, Previewing
Question 1072 Explanation: 
Flash movies can distributed over the internet by using .swf files.
Export your Flash movie as an .swf file by using File
The Publish command creates an SWF file and an HTML document that inserts your Flash content in a browser window.
The Publish command also creates and copies detection files for Macromedia Flash 4 from Adobe and later
Question 1073
In this switching technique entire data is sent as a complete unit from the sender Node and delivered to the recipient Node via a number of intermediate Nodes:
A
Message switching
B
Packet switching
C
Circuit switching
D
Data switching
Question 1073 Explanation: 
In message switching, the whole message is treated as a data unit. The data is transferred in its entire circuitry via a number of intermediate Nodes
Question 1074
Referential integrity controls relationship between
A
Operations in database
B
Instances of a class
C
Tables in database
D
Attributes in a table.
Question 1074 Explanation: 
Referential integrity (RI) is a relational database concept, which states that table relationships must always be consistent.
In other words, any foreign key field must agree with the primary key that is referenced by the foreign key.
Thus, any primary key field changes must be applied to all foreign keys, or not at all.
The same restriction also applies to foreign keys in that any updates (but not necessarily deletions) must be propagated to the primary parent key.
Question 1075
An electronic device used to connect different types of topologies having same protocol.
A
Repeater
B
Router
C
Bridge
D
Switch
Question 1075 Explanation: 
Router will connect various networks of different topology.
A router is a Layer 3 network gateway device, meaning that it connects two or more networks and that the router operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
Question 1076
Error detection at data link layer is achieved by.
A
Equalization
B
Bit stuffing
C
Hamming codes
D
Cyclic Redundancy code.
Question 1076 Explanation: 
A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is an error-detecting code commonly used in digital networks and storage devices to detect accidental changes to raw data.
Blocks of data entering these systems get a short check value attached, based on the remainder of a polynomial division of their contents
. On retrieval, the calculation is repeated and, in the event the check values do not match, corrective action can be taken against data corruption.
CRCs can be used for error correction.
Question 1077
Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial communication link in both directions at the same time ?
A
Simplex
B
Half-duplex
C
Full -duplex
D
Four fire circuit
Question 1077 Explanation: 
Full-duplex data transmission means that data can be transmitted in both directions on a signal carrier at the same time.
For example, on a local area network with a technology that has full-duplex transmission, one workstation can be sending data on the line while another workstation is receiving data.
Question 1078
A Firewall is
A
Only a software
B
Only a hardware
C
Necessarily both software and hardware
D
A software with or without hardware
Question 1078 Explanation: 
Firewall can be both software and hardware. Depending upon your network infrastructure, you can decide which one is best for you.
If you want to secure your individual computer or laptop then software firewall is enough but for an enterprise level network, hardware firewall is required
Question 1079
1. It has much greater bandwidth' than other transmission media.
2. It allows for longer transmission distance.
3. It is immune to electromagnetic interference.
4. It is much thinner and lighter than the other cable media.
All of the above characteristics are attached to
A
Optical fiber
B
Twisted pair cable
C
Coaxial cable
D
CAT 5/CAT 6 cable
Question 1079 Explanation: 
All characteristics belongs to fiber optic cable.
Question 1080
Binary Equivalent of (BAD)16 is
A
1111 1010 1101
B
1011 1010 1101
C
1011 1010 1111
D
1011 1110 1101
Question 1080 Explanation: 
The binary value of “A” is 1010
The binary value of “B” is 1011
The binary value of “D” is 1101
Question 1081
Which of the following is used to execute CPU instruction ?
A
Personal Computer
B
Program Counter
C
Protection Check
D
Parameter Combination
Question 1081 Explanation: 
A program counter is a register in a computer processor that contains the address (location) of the instruction being executed at the current time
Question 1082
Which of the following bus of a computer system is responsible for carrying information?
A
Databus
B
Address bus
C
Logical bus
D
Control bus
Question 1082 Explanation: 
A data bus is a system within a computer or device, consisting of a connector or set of wires, that provides transportation for data.
Question 1083
This is a smaller, faster memory which stores copies of the data from frequently used main memory locations.
A
Main memory
B
Cache memory
C
Semiconductor based memory
D
DRAM
Question 1083 Explanation: 
A cache is a hardware or software component that stores data so that future requests for that data can be served faster; the data stored in a cache might be the result of an earlier computation or a copy of data stored elsewhere
Question 1084
In computers, this is the processing of program instructions by dividing them among multiple processors with the objective of running a program in less time
A
Multiprogramming
B
Parallel processing
C
Time sharing
D
Batch processing
Question 1084 Explanation: 
Parallel computing is the simultaneous use of multiple compute resources to solve a computational problem
Question 1085
A binary search tree whose,left subtree and right subtree differ in height by at most one is called.
A
Strictly binary tree
B
Red-black tree
C
AVL tree
D
Complete binary tree
Question 1085 Explanation: 
An AVL tree (named after inventors Adelson-Velsky and Landis) is a self-balancing binary search tree. It was the first such data structure to be invented.
In an AVL tree, the heights of the two child subtrees of any node differ by at most one; if at any time they differ by more than one, rebalancing is done to restore this property.
Question 1086
Which cycle refers to the process where one instruction is fetched and executed?
A
Fetch cycle
B
Instruction cycle
C
Decode cycle
D
Execute cycle
Question 1086 Explanation: 
CPUs the instruction cycle is executed sequentially, each instruction being processed before the next one is started
Question 1087
This system software provides an interface to a hardware device, enabling the operating system to access that hardware.
A
Control Panel
B
Device Drive
C
Program installer
D
None of the above
Question 1087 Explanation: 
A device driver is a computer program that operates or controls a particular type of device that is attached to a computer.
A driver provides a software interface to hardware devices, enabling operating systems and other computer programs to access hardware functions without needing to know the precise details about the hardware being used.
Question 1088
Following is an example of an Operating System developed in India.
A
BeOS
B
BOSS
C
Haiku
D
OpenBSD
Question 1088 Explanation: 
Bharat Operating System Solutions (BOSS GNU/Linux) is an Indian Linux distribution derived from Debian.
BOSS Linux is officially released in four editions: BOSS Desktop (for personal use, home and office), EduBOSS (for schools and education community), BOSS Advanced Server and BOSS MOOL.
Question 1089
Following is an example of an Operating System developed in India.
A
BeOS
B
BOSS
C
Haiku
D
OpenBSD
Question 1089 Explanation: 
Bharat Operating System Solutions (BOSS GNU/Linux) is an Indian Linux distribution derived from Debian.
BOSS Linux is officially released in four editions: BOSS Desktop (for personal use, home and office), EduBOSS (for schools and education community), BOSS Advanced Server and BOSS MOOL.
Question 1090
Which of the following is NOT an example of scheduling algorithms ?
A
First Come First Serve [FCFS] scheduling
B
Shortest Job First [SJF] Scheduling
C
Priority Scheduling
D
Random
Question 1090 Explanation: 
There is no scheduling algorithm “random” .
Along the options (1),(2) and (3) ,there is another algorithm named round robin scheduling algorithm.
Question 1091
Which of the following is non-linear data structure.
A
Stack
B
Queue
C
String
D
Tree
Question 1091 Explanation: 
Except “tree””, all remaining are the examples of linear data structures.
Non-linear data structure does not arrange the data consecutively rather it is arranged in sorted order.
In this, the data elements can be attached to more than one element exhibiting the hierarchical relationship which involves the relationship between the child, parent, and grandparent.
Question 1092
Which data structure is used in breadth-first search of a graph to store nodes ?
A
Array
B
Stack
C
Queue
D
Tree
Question 1092 Explanation: 
Queue is in breadth-first search of a graph to store nodes Use a queue to store the node and mark it as 'visited' until all its neighbours (vertices that are directly connected to it) are marked.
The queue follows the First In First Out (FIFO) queuing method, and therefore, the neighbours of the node will be visited in the order in which they were inserted in the node i.e. the node that was inserted first will be visited first, and so on.
Question 1093
A thread in Operating System is a
A
Task
B
Program
C
Process
D
Light weight process
Question 1093 Explanation: 
A thread of execution is the smallest sequence of programmed instructions that can be managed independently by a scheduler, which is typically a part of the operating system.
Question 1094
A
XY' + X
B
X'Y + XY'
C
XY + XY'
D
XY + X'Y'
Question 1094 Explanation: 
XNOR gate is a digital logic gate whose function is the logical complement of the exclusive OR (XOR) gate.
A high output (1) results if both of the inputs to the gate are the same. If one but not both inputs are high (1), a low output (0) results.
Question 1095
A
XOR
B
NOR
C
XNOR
D
NAND
Question 1095 Explanation: 
XOR gate ( EX-OR and pronounced as Exclusive OR) is a digital logic gate that gives a true (1 or HIGH) output when the number of true inputs is odd.
An XOR gate implements an exclusive or; that is, a true output results if one, and only one, of the inputs to the gate is true.
If both inputs are false (0/LOW) or both are true, a false output results
The diagram gives Boolean expression X.Y+ X'Y
Question 1096
Which Boolean law is represented below?
P+QR=(P+Q)(P+R)
A
De Morgan's law
B
Associative law
C
Commutative law
D
Distributive law
Question 1096 Explanation: 
Distributive Law – This law permits the multiplying or factoring out of an expression.
A(B + C) = A.B + A.C (OR Distributive Law)
A + (B.C) = (A + B).(A + C) (AND Distributive Law)
Question 1097
Given two sorted lists of size m and n respectively. The number of comparisons needed in the worst case by the merge algorithm will be.
A
min (m, n)
B
max (m, n)
C
m+n-1
D
mn
Question 1097 Explanation: 
→ To merge two lists of size m and n, we need to do m+n-1 comparisons in the worst case. Since we need to merge 2 at a time, the optimal strategy would be to take the smallest size lists first. → The reason for picking smallest two items is to carry minimum items for repetition in merging.
Question 1098
Out Of the following, which cannot be used as an identifier in C++ ?
A
Name2
B
Total
C
class
D
Derived
Question 1098 Explanation: 
“Class” is the keyword in c++.
We can’t use keywords as identifier names.
Question 1099
The operator used to access member functions of a class from its object is
A
*
B
::
C
:
D
'
Question 1099 Explanation: 
Scope resolution(::) operator is used to access the member functions outside the class in c++.
Question 1100
In this programming methodology, common functionalities are grouped together into separate independent units. The whole program is divided into several units which interact through procedure calls.
A
Random Programming
B
Modular Programming
C
.NET Programming
D
Object Oriented Programming
Question 1100 Explanation: 
Complex program is divided into several modules.
Each module meant for a specific functionality.
Question 1101
The following is a computing industry standard for the consistent encoding, representation and handling of text.
A
EBCDIC
B
Unicode
C
ASCII
D
QRcode
Question 1101 Explanation: 
Unicode is a computing industry standard for the consistent encoding, representation, and handling of text expressed in most of the world's writing systems.
Question 1102
The following is the correct interpretation of Hierarchical Inheritance
A
one base class with one derived class
B
more than one generation of classes
C
one base class with more than one derived classes
D
more than one base classes with one derived class
Question 1102 Explanation: 
If more than one class is inherited from the base class, it's known as hierarchical inheritance. In hierarchical inheritance, all the features that are common in child classes are included in the base class.
Question 1103
The postfix expression for * + ab - cd is
A
abed+-*
B
ab +-cd *
C
ab +cd *-
D
ab +cd-*
Question 1103 Explanation: 
The given expression is “* + ab - cd”
The infix expression of given expression is (a+b)*(c-d)
The post fix expression is ab+cd-*
Question 1104
Which of the following is the default visibility mode while defining a class in C++ ?
A
private
B
personal
C
protected
D
public
Question 1104 Explanation: 
The default visibility mode of members of class in c++ is private.
Question 1105
Select the correct output of the following code :
char *s = "AMAZING"
s+=3;
cout<< s < < endl;
A
DMAZING
B
D
C
ZING
D
Z
Question 1105 Explanation: 
The pointer will point to the start of the string.
s=s+3 which means that the pointer will point to the third index value.
So, it will print “ZING”
Question 1106
A complete binary tree with leaf nodes can have ______.nodes of degree 2.
A
log2n
B
n-1
C
n
D
2n
Question 1106 Explanation: 
A complete binary tree with three nodes (out of two are child nodes) has one node has degree of 2.
Question 1107
Only the process executing the critical section is allowed to access die shared variable and all other processes should be prevented from doing so until the completion of the critical section This is known as
A
Interprocess communication
B
Semaphore
C
Deadlock
D
Mutual exclusion
Question 1107 Explanation: 
A semaphore is a variable or abstract data type used to control access to a common resource by multiple processes in a concurrent system such as a multitasking operating system.
A semaphore is simply a variable. This variable is used to solve critical section problems and to achieve process synchronization in the multi processing environment.
Question 1108
We can also call a table in a relational database.
A
Record
B
Attribute
C
Tuple
D
Relation
Question 1108 Explanation: 
A relational database is a collection of data items organized as logically related tables.
Record/tuple means row in a table
Attribute means column in a table.
Question 1109
Find the output of the following : C++ code: int *P, A[ ]=(20, 90, 70, 10}; P=A; A[2]+=10; P+=2; cout < < *P < < endl;
A
70
B
80
C
90
D
10
Question 1109 Explanation: 
P=A; // P will point to the starting address of the array.
A[2]+=10; => A[2]=A[2]+10=70+10=80
P+=2;=> P=P+2 // Here “P” will point to the third element of the array which value is “80”
Question 1110
A table has more than one attributes each of which identify a tuple uniquely. All such keys are known as :
A
Primary keys
B
Alternate keys
C
Candidate keys
D
Foreign keys
Question 1110 Explanation: 
A table may have more than one such attribute/group of identifies that identifies a tuple uniquely, all such attributes(s) are known as Candidate Keys.
Out of Candidate keys, one is selected as Primary key, and others become Alternate Keys.
Question 1111
Belady's anomaly occurs in_______ page replacement algorithm.
A
LRU
B
Optimal
C
Circular FIFO
D
FIFO
Question 1111 Explanation: 
Belady’s anomaly is the phenomenon in which increasing the number of page frames results in an increase in the number of page faults for certain memory access patterns.
This phenomenon is commonly experienced when using the first-in first-out (FIFO) page replacement algorithm.
In FIFO, the page fault may or may not increase as the page frames increase, but in Optimal and stack-based algorithms like LRU, as the page frames increase the page fault decreases
Question 1112
Which of the following cannot be used as a front-end software along with a database ?
A
Visual basic
B
Visual C++
C
Power Builder
D
MS PowerPoint
Question 1112 Explanation: 
Microsoft PowerPoint is a presentation program. PowerPoint was originally designed to provide visuals for group presentations within business organizations, but has come to be very widely used in many other communication situations, both in business and beyond.
Question 1113
DROP TABLE statement
A
deletes only the structure of the table.
B
deletes all constraints in a table
C
deletes data of table
D
deletes data as well as structure of table.
Question 1113 Explanation: 
The DROP TABLE statement is used to drop an existing table in a database.
The SQL DROP TABLE statement is used to remove a table definition and all the data, indexes, triggers, constraints and permission specifications for that table.
Syntax :DROP TABLE table_name;
Question 1114
Based on table CLUB, which of the following SQL query will display earliest and latest DOJ under each TYPE?
A
SELECT MIN(DOJ), MAX(DOJ) FROM CLUB;
B
SELECT MIN(DOJ), MAX(DOJ) FROM CLUB GROUP BY TYPE;
C
SELECT MIN(DOJ), MAX(DOJ),TYPE FROM CLUB GROUP BY TYPE;
D
SELECT MIN(DOJ), MAX(DOJ), TYPE GROUP BY TYPE FROM CLUB;
Question 1114 Explanation: 
The GROUP BY statement group rows that have the same values into summary rows.
The GROUP BY statement is often used with aggregate functions (COUNT, MAX, MIN, SUM, AVG) to group the result-set by one or more columns.
Question 1115

Based on table CLUB, find out the most appropriate SQL statement from the following to display the total amount of FEE collected from monthly members till date :
A
SELECT SUM(MONTIIS_BETWEEN(SYSDATE, DOJ) * FEE)
FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "MONTHLY'
B
SELECT SUM(MONTH_BETWEEN (DOI,SYSDATE) * FEE)
FROM CLUB ;WHERE TYPE= "MONTHLY"
C
SELECT SUM(MONTH_BETWEEN (DOJ, SYSDATE) * FEE)
FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= ''MONTHLY"
D
SELECT MONTHS_BETWEEN(SYSDATE, DOJ) • FEE
FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "MONTHLY''
Question 1115 Explanation: 
We need to calculate the amount from DOJ to system date in monthly wise.
Question 1116

Based on table CLUB, which of the following SQL statement will delete the information of those members, who are either ANNUAL members or those who are having DOJ on or after "01-JAN-2010".
A
DELETE FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "ANNUAL" AND DOJ > = "01-JAN-10";
B
DELETE FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "ANNUAL" OR DOJ > "01-JAN-10";
C
DELETE * FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "ANNUAL" OR DOJ > "01-JAN-10";
D
DELETE FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE= "ANNUAL" OR DOJ > = "01-JAN-10";
Question 1116 Explanation: 
The DELETE statement is used to delete existing records in a table.
DELETE Syntax:
DELETE FROM table_name WHERE condition;
Question 1117

Based on table "CLUB", which SQL query will help us to know the number of "MONTHLY" members, who joined the club after "01-JAN-07"
A
SELECT*, COUNT () FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE = "MONTHLY'' AND DOJ > = "01-JAN-07'';
B
SELECT FROM CLUB COUNT (*) WHERE TYPE = "MONTHLY" AND DOJ "01-JAN-07";
C
SELECT COUNT (*) FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE = "MONTHLY" OR DOJ = "01- JAN-07";
D
SELECT COUNT (*) FROM CLUB WHERE TYPE = "MONTHLY" AND DOJ > "01-JAN-07";
Question 1117 Explanation: 
The SQL COUNT() function returns the number of rows in a table satisfying the criteria specified in the WHERE clause. It sets the number of rows or non NULL column values.
COUNT() returns 0 if there were no matching rows.
Question 1118
Which of the following is not a valid value of the SCROLLING attribute of the <FRAME > tag ?
A
yes
B
No
C
Auto
D
None
Question 1118 Explanation: 
The syntax of frame tag:
< frame scrolling="auto|yes|no" >
Attribute Values
Question 1119
Which is not the state of the process in OS?
A
vileged
B
Running
C
Ready
D
Blocked
Question 1119 Explanation: 
New- The process is being created.
Ready- The process is waiting to be assigned to a processor.
Running- Instructions are being executed.
Waiting- The process is waiting for some event to occur(such as an I/O completion or reception of a signal).
Terminated- The process has completed its execution.
Question 1120
Which of the following is mandatory attribute of < IMG > tag and < EMBED > tag ?
A
Border
B
HEIGHT
C
WIDTH
D
SRC
Question 1120 Explanation: 
< img src= “ “ > The src attribute is required, and contains the path to the image you want to embed < embed src= “ “ >
Specifies the URL of an application to be embedded.
Question 1121
ROWSPAN attribute cannot be used with which of the following tag ?
A
< TR *gt;
B
< TD >
C
< TH >
D
< TABLE >
E
A and D
Question 1121 Explanation: 
ROWSPAN attribute is used for both < td > and < tr > tags.
Question 1122
Consider the following statements:
(i) For every positive integer n, let #n be the product of all primes less than or equal to n. Then, #p + 1 is a prime, for every prime p.
(ii) π is a universal constant with value 22/7.
(iii) No polynomial time algorithm exists that can find the greatest common divisor of two integers given as input in binary.
(iv) Let L≡{x∈{0, 1} | x is the binary encoding of an integer that is divisible by 31}. Then, L is a regular language.
Then which of the following is TRUE?
A
Only statement (i) is correct.
B
Only statement (ii) is correct.
C
Only statement (iii) is correct.
D
Only statement (iv) is correct.
E
None of the statements are correct.
Question 1123
Consider a discrete-time system which in response to input sequence x[n] (n integer) outputs the sequence y[n] such that

Which of the following describes the system?
A
Linear, time-invariant
B
Linear, time-variant
C
Non-linear, time-invariant
D
Non-linear, time-variant
E
Cannot be determined from the information given
Question 1124
A
a only
B
b only
C
c only
D
d only
E
e only
Question 1125
Consider the system shown below.

If K >0, which of the following describes the system?
A
Stable, causal
B
Stable, non-causal
C
Unstable, non-causal
D
Unstable, causal
E
Cannot be determined from the information given
Question 1126
Consider five distinct binary vectors X1, . . . , X5 each of length 10. Let
A
d = 10
B
d = 9
C
d = 8
D
d < 8
E
Information is not sufficient
Question 1127
Define the ℓp ball in two dimensions as the set of points (x, y) such that |x|p+|y|p ≤ 1. Which of the following is FALSE:
A
The ℓ2 ball is contained in the ℓ3 ball
B
The ℓ2 ball is contained in the ℓ1 ball
C
The ℓ3ball is contained in the ℓ4 ball
D
The ℓ2ball is contained in the ℓ5 ball
E
The ℓ1ball is contained in the ℓ3 ball
Question 1128
Consider the reactions
X + 2Y → 3Z
2X + Z → Y.
Let nX, nY , nZ denote the numbers of molecules of chemicals X, Y , Z in the reaction chamber. Then
which of the following is conserved by both reactions?
A
nX + nY + nZ
B
nX + 7nY + 5nZ
C
2nX + 9nY - 3nZ
D
3nX - 3nY + 13nZ
E
None of the above
Question 1129
An infinite two-dimensional pattern is indicated below.

The smallest closed figure made by the lines is called a unit triangle. Within every unit triangle, there is a mouse. At every vertex there is a laddoo.
What is the average number of laddoos per mouse?
A
3
B
2
C
1
D
1/2
E
1/3
Question 1130
If either wages or prices are raised, there will be inflation. If there is inflation, then either the government must regulate it or the people will suffer. If the people suffer, the government will be unpopular. Government will not be unpopular. Which of the following can be validly concluded from the above statements.
A
People will not suffer
B
If the inflation is not regulated, then wages are not raised
C
Prices are not raised
D
If the inflation is not regulated, then the prices are not raised
E
Wages are not raised
Question 1131
Which of the following are universal gates that can be used to realise the function of any combinational circuit?
A
NAND and NOR
B
AND and OR
C
AND and XOR
D
OR and XNOR
Question 1132
In order to subtract an integer value B from another integer value A, take the 2’s complement of _____ and add it to____
A
A,A
B
B,B
C
B,A
D
A,B
Question 1133
Which of the following C++ operators CANNOT be overloaded?
A
Equal(==)
B
Multiplication(*)
C
Scope resolution(::)
D
Logical AND(&&)
Question 1134
Which of the following statements about semiconductor memory cells is FALSE?
A
They can never be damaged due to a power failure or other malfunctions.
B
They exhibit two stable states, which can be used to represent binary 1 and 0.
C
They are capable of being written into to set the state
D
They are capable of being read to sense the state.
Question 1135
What will be the size (number of cells) of the K-map to simplify a Boolean function of five variables?
A
8
B
16
C
32
D
64
Question 1136
The Quine-McCluskey algorithm is a tabular method that simplifies Boolean functions based on the concept of:
A
Odd numbers
B
Even numbers
C
Prime implicants
D
Prime numbers
Question 1137
Which of the following is NOT a valid feature of JAVA programs?
A
Object-oriented
B
Architecture-neutral
C
Multi-threaded
D
Non-portable
Question 1138
Which of the following is a sequential organisation of data in which an element is always inserted at the last position and taken out from the first position?
A
Tree
B
Queue
C
Stack
D
Array
Question 1139
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 491.25?
A
IEF.4
B
IEB.4
C
IEB.1
D
2EB.1
Question 1140
Which of the following is NOT a valid characteristic of a data warehouse?
A
Volatile
B
Time-variant
C
Subject-oriented
D
Integrated
Question 1141
State Whether the following sentences are TRUE or FALSE.
(i). In JavaScript forms, automatic form validation is enabled using the “required” attribute.
(ii). JavaScript cannot manipulate HTML styles.
A
(i)-TRUE (ii)-FALSE
B
(i)-FALSE (ii)-TRUE
C
(i)-FALSE (ii)-FALSE
D
(i)-TRUE (ii)-TRUE
Question 1142
HTML is a/an ______language.
A
Markup
B
Procedural
C
Object-Oriented
D
Assembly
Question 1143
In animation, the process of creating intermediate frames between the start and the end position of two keyframes is called:
A
Framing
B
Tweening
C
Betweening
D
Creeping
Question 1144
Which of the following relationship categories of UML describes the inheritance relationship of the object-oriented world?
A
Association
B
Dependency
C
Extensibility
D
Generalisation
Question 1145
In a computer program, when a function calls itself then it is called:
A
Recursion
B
Procedure
C
Branching
D
Infinite loop
Question 1146
What is the minimum number of 2-input NAND gates to implement the boolean function F=WX-YZ?
A
5
B
3
C
2
D
4
Question 1147
JavaScript is used to____
A
Design database-Centric applications
B
Specify the web page content
C
Define the web page behaviour
D
Specify the web page layout
Question 1148
Which of the following statements about Vector mask in Adobe Photoshop is FALSE?
A
It does not support transparency
B
It is layer mask
C
It is made of pixels
D
It has crisp edges
Question 1149
Which of the following browsers supports VBScript?
A
Google Chrome
B
Internet Explorer
C
Opera
D
Mozilla Firefox
Question 1150
Which of the following programming languages is used to create flash graphics for Adobe Flash Player?
A
VBScript
B
PostScript
C
ActionScript
D
JavaScript
Question 1151
In JavaScript, Location object is a property of____
A
Form Object
B
Window Object
C
Document object
D
Location
Question 1152
Which of the following statements related to Java is FALSE?
A
All class names should start with an upper-case letter
B
It is not mandatory for the name of the program file to exactly match the class name
C
All method names should start with a lower-case letter.
D
Java is a case-sensitive language
Question 1153
In IEEE 754 standard for binary floating point representation, the three basic binary formats have bit lengths of 32,64 and 128 bits, with exponents of____,_____, and _____bits respectively.
A
8,12,15
B
10,11,15
C
8,11,15
D
8,11,16
Question 1154
Which of the following data structures stores the same kind of data in a linear order, but not necessarily in contiguous memory locations?
A
Linked List
B
Tree
C
Array
D
Graph
Question 1155
How many process switches take place when a running process requests for an I/O?
A
One
B
Four
C
Three
D
Two
Question 1156
Which of the following represents the capacity to change the conceptual schema without having to change external schemas or application programs?
A
Virtual data independence
B
Hierarchical data independence
C
Physical data independence
D
Logical data independence
Question 1157
Which of the given options best describes the following array declaration in C++? int (*arr)[5];
A
It declares a pointer to an integer array of five elements
B
It declares an array of five integer pointers
C
It declares an array of ten integer pointers
D
It declares a pointer to a character array of five elements
Question 1158
Which of the following statements related to C++ FALSE?
A
Destructors have the same name as their class, preceded by a tilde(~) character
B
Destructors can be virtual, but Constructors cannot
C
Constructors have neither “return” value nor “void”
D
Constructors can be virtual, but Destructors cannot
Question 1159
In Visual Basic, the image in a(n)____is stretchable, i.e, the image can be resized
A
Picture box
B
Image box
C
text box
D
label
Question 1160
In Adobe Flash Player, the ‘free transform’ tool CANNOT transform_____.
A
Video objects
B
Graphic objects
C
Text blocks
D
instances
Question 1161
PCI, a local computer bus for attaching hardware devices in a computer, was introduced by Intel in:
A
1990
B
2005
C
1992
D
1980
Question 1162
Consider a relation schema R(A,B,C,D,E), in which all attributes are atomic and single-valued. If A is the only candidate key in R, then highest normal form satisfied by R?
A
2NF
B
BCNF
C
1NF
D
3NF
Question 1163
In____topology network, each host computer connects to exactly two other computers, creating a circular network structure.
A
Star
B
Bus
C
Mesh
D
Ring
Question 1164
Which of the following statements related to C++ is FALSE?
A
A member function can be defined as public
B
A member function can be defined inside the class
C
A member function can be defined as private
D
A member function can be defined outside the class
Question 1165
In memory-mapped I/O, there is/are ____address space(s) for memory locations and I/O devices.
A
Three
B
Double
C
Four
D
Single
Question 1166
State whether the following sentences are true of false.
(i). Storage locations in mail memory are addressed directly by the CPU’s instructions
(ii). Due to refreshing action, DRAM memory is called dynamic RAM.
A
(i)-TRUE (ii)-TRUE
B
(i)-TRUE (ii)-FALSE
C
(i)-FALSE (ii)-TRUE
D
(i)-FALSE (ii)-FALSE
Question 1167
State whether the following sentences are true or false
(i). In Adobe Photoshop, alpha channels store selection as grayscale images
(ii). In Adobe flash Player, the guide layer sets the trajectory of a moving object in an animation
A
(i)-TRUE (ii)-FALSE
B
(i)-FALSE (ii)-TRUE
C
(i)-TRUE (ii)-TRUE
D
(i)-FALSE (ii)-FALSE
Question 1168
What will be the output of the following digital circuit, where X’ represents the complementing of the binary variable X?
A
0
B
1
C
x'
D
x
Question 1169
Why respect to operating system, which of the following is NOT a valid category of scheduler?
A
Medium-term scheduler
B
Long-term Scheduler
C
Short-term scheduler
D
Virtual scheduler
Question 1170
Which of the following is made with cells that store data as charge on capacitors?
A
EPROM
B
DRAM
C
ROM
D
SRAM
Question 1171
Which of the following statements about VBScript is FALSE?
A
It is cross-browser independent
B
It is a proprietary languages
C
It is an active scripting languages
D
It is based on Visual Basic
Question 1172
Which of the following is NOT an audio editing software?
A
Audacity
B
KineMaster
C
Adobe Audition
D
Sound Forge
Question 1173
How many composite attributes are available in the following ER diagram?
A
2
B
8
C
6
D
5
Question 1174
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(i). When the time allocated in a Round Robin scheduling is very high then it results in a FCFS scheduling
(ii). When the time allocated in a Round Robin scheduling is very low then more time is spent on context scheduling
A
Only (ii) is true
B
Both (i) and (ii) are true
C
Neither (i) nor (ii) is true
D
Only (i) is true
Question 1175
The boolean expression (X+Y)(X+Z) can be simplified to:
A
X+Y’Z
B
Z+XY
C
Y+XZ
D
X+YZ
Question 1176
Which of the following statements is/are FALSE?
(i). In floating point arithmetic, addition and subtraction operation are more complex than multiplication and division operations
(ii). A floating-point arithmetic can never produce exponent overflow or exponent underflow
A
Neither (i) nor (ii) is false
B
Both (i) and (ii) are false
C
Only (i) is false
D
Only (ii) false
Question 1177
A parity generator is a _____ logic system that generates the parity bit at the _____side.
A
Sequential, receiving
B
Combinational, transmitting
C
Sequential, Transmitting
D
Combinational, receiving
Question 1178
Which of the following is NOT an optional parameter of MsgBoox function in VBScript?
A
Buttons
B
Prompt
C
Title
D
Context
Question 1179
Which of the following binary tree traversals arranges the node values in ascending order when it is applied over a binary search tree?
A
Level-order traversal
B
Inorder traversal
C
Preorder traversal
D
Postorder traversal
Question 1180
A full adder is a____, which consists of three inputs and _____outputs
A
Sequential circuit, one
B
Sequential circuit, two
C
Combinational circuit, one
D
Combinational circuit, two
Question 1181
In Visual Basic, when the checkbox is checked, its value is set to ___ and when it is unchecked the value is set to _____.
A
0,1
B
-1,1
C
1,0
D
1,-1
Question 1182
Using 2’s complement representation, what is the largest(signed) integer value that can be stored in an 8-bit memory space?
A
127
B
255
C
256
D
128
Question 1183
When a program is allocated a memory hole that is bigger than needed, then it is called?
A
Internal fragmentation
B
Page fault
C
Segmentation
D
External Fragmentation
Question 1184
Which of the following statements about Array in C++ is FALSE?
A
Generally, arrays are of fixed size
B
Array elements are stored in contiguous memory locations.
C
All elements of an array are of same data type
D
Array elements can only be accessed sequentially.
Question 1185
In direct memory access(DMA) mechanism, the I/O devices and main memory exchange data directly, without the involvement of the____
A
Processor
B
I/O device
C
Main memory
D
Operating system
Question 1186
Which of the following is the smallest network that may include Bluetooth-enabled or infra-red enabled devices?
A
PAN
B
LAN
C
MAN
D
WAN
Question 1187
State whether the following sentences are true or false
(i). RJ45 is a type of connector commonly used for connecting components of a computer system(e.g.keyboard)
(ii). A gateway is used to connect two networks together that may work upon different networking models.
A
(i)- TRUE (ii)-TRUE
B
(i)- TRUE (ii)-FALSE
C
(i)- FALSE (ii)-FALSE
D
(i)- FALSE (ii)-TRUE
Question 1188
In HTML, you can set content font size using _____ attributes, and the default size of a font is_____
A
Size, 3
B
Font, 5
C
Size, 5
D
Font, 3
Question 1189
State whether the following sentences are true or false
(i) with memory-mapped I/O, a single read line and a single write line are needed on the bus.
(ii) with isolated I/O, the address space for I/O, the space for I/O is isolated from that for memory.
A
(i)-TRUE (ii)-TRUE
B
(i)-FALSE (ii)-FALSE
C
(i)-FALSE (ii)-TRUE
D
(i)-TRUE (ii)-FALSE
Question 1190
Random sampling is helpful as it is
A
Reasonably accurate
B
Flee from personal biases
C
An economical method of data collection
D
All the above
Question 1190 Explanation: 
A method of selecting a sample (random sample) from a statistical population in such a way that every possible sample that could be selected has a predetermined probability of being selected.
Question 1191

Information overload in a classroom environment by a teacher will lead to

A
High level participation
B
Semantic precision
C
Effective impression
D
Delayed feedback
Question 1192

The national agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur, is

A
CAT
B
CDAC
C
CCA
D
ICERT
Question 1193
Who among the following won the Dronacharya Award in Gymnastics for the year 2016?
A
Bishweshwar Nandi
B
Lalita Babar
C
Deepa Karmakar
D
Rajendra Pralhad Shelke
Question 1194
What type of Energy does “a batsman hitting a ball” use ?
A
Gravitational Energy
B
Frictional Energy
C
Kinetic Energy
D
Potential Energy
Question 1195
Which of the following is NOT an example of Biomass Material?
A
Wood
B
Animal Waste
C
Garbage
D
Coal
Question 1196
Who has been awarded the 2016 IAAF World Athlete of the year Award in male category for sixth time?
A
Michael Phelps
B
Patrik Sjöberg
C
Usain Bolt
D
Andre De Grasse
Question 1197
Mr. Reddy is running for the Vice-President’s post. Which of the following qualities of Mr. Reddy make him an ineligible candidate to contest election for the post of Vice-President of India?
A
Mr. Reddy is qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.
B
Mr. Reddy has completed the age of thirty-five years.
C
Mr. Reddy is the District Commissioner of Guntur, which is an office of profit under the Government of Andhra Pradesh.
D
Mr. Reddy is a citizen of India.
Question 1198
Who became the first woman to win the Jnanpith Award in 1976 for her 1965-novel Prathan Pratisruti (The First Promise)?___________________
A
Amrita Pritam
B
Mahasweta Devi
C
Lily Ray
D
Ashapoorna Devi
Question 1199
Who is the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Wipro Group?
A
Rishad Premji
B
Azim H. Premji
C
Vishal Sikka
D
Abidali Z. Neemuchwala
Question 1200
A physical balance is an example of :
A
Composite Machine
B
Inclined Plane
C
Lever
D
Wedge
Question 1201
____ has the largest coal reserves in India.
A
Odisha
B
West Bengal
C
Jharkhand
D
Chhattisgarh
Question 1202
Which of the following does the 7th Schedule of the Constitution of India Comprise? i) State List ii) Union List iiI) Concurrent List
A
All (i),(ii) and (iii)
B
Both (i) and (ii)
C
Only (i)
D
Both (ii) and (iii)
Question 1203
Who is the current Speaker of Lok Sabha?
A
Meira Kumar
B
S. M. Krishna
C
Sumita Mahajan
D
Mohammad Hamid Ansari
Question 1204
Whom did Chandragupta Maurya overthrow to take over the reins of the Magadha Empire?
A
Ajatshatru
B
Dhana Nanda
C
Bimbisara
D
Mahapadma Nanda
Question 1205
Which country is the world leader in the population of bovine animals?
A
India
B
USA
C
Denmark
D
Spain
Question 1206
Asia's first and longest cycle highway runs between:
A
Mumbai and Pune in Maharashtra
B
Etawah and Agra in Utter Pradesh
C
Hyderabad and Secundrebad in Telengana
D
Bengaluru and Mysuru in Karnataka
Question 1207
Which of the following countries first invented the idea of "Gross National Happiness" to use happiness as a measure of Good governance?
A
Great Britain
B
Taiwan
C
Norway
D
Bhutan
Question 1208
Who wrote the medieval-era epic poem “Padmavat”?
A
Mulla Daud
B
Abu'l-Fazl ibn Mubarak
C
Malik Muhammad "Jayasi"
D
Amir Khusro
Question 1209
What does IDBI in IDBI Bank stand for?
A
Investment Development Board of India
B
Industrial Development Bank of India
C
Infrastructure and Development Board of India
D
Industrial Divestment Board of India
Question 1210
Which film won the 70th British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA Award in the Best Special Visual Effects category
A
Manchester by the Sea
B
Lion
C
The Jungle Book
D
LaLa Land
Question 1211
Which statement about the Gobi Desert is NOT correct?
A
Gobi is a cold desert.
B
Gobi desert is the most expansive arid region in Asia.
C
Most of Gobi's rain is blocked by the Himalayas.
D
Most of Gobi's rain is blocked by the Himalayas.
Question 1212
What does RAM in a computer stands for?
A
Random Access Memory
B
Rapid Action Machine
C
Random Application Mapping
D
Rapid Applied Memory
Question 1213
Whom among the following stepped down as the Chariman of International Cricket Council (ICC) on 15th March 2017?
A
Zaheer Abbas
B
David Richardson
C
Shasank Manohar
D
N. Srinivasan
Question 1214
Which of the following Governor Generals of India eamed the title , “Maker of the Modern India”?
A
Lord Dalhousie
B
Lord Bentick
C
Lord Canning
D
Lord Mountbatten
Question 1215
Who is the chief Justice of India as of February 2017?
A
Justice T. S. Thakur
B
Justice C. S. Karnan
C
Justice H. L. Dattu
D
Justice Jagdish Singh Khehar
Question 1216
Who won the Men's Final Australian Open Championship 2017?
A
Stanislas Wawrinka
B
Novak Djokovic
C
Roger Federer
D
Rafael Nadal
Question 1217
All executive action of the Government of India is taken in the name of the___________
A
Speaker of Lok Sabha
B
President of India
C
Prime Minister of India
D
Vice President of India
Question 1218
Mr. Shiva invested equal amount of money in two private finus which gives 15% simple interest per annum for 3.5 years and 5 years respectively If the difference in their interests is Rs. 270. The amount invested by Mr. Shiva is:
A
Rs. 1500
B
Rs. 1200
C
Rs. 1250
D
Rs 1205
Question 1219
Pipe A can fill the tank 2 times fast then pipe B. If pipe A and B together fill the end in 24 minutes, then pipe B alone can fill the tank in:
A
75 minutes
B
70 minutes
C
72 minutes
D
71 minutes
Question 1220
A
x = -1
B
x=0
C
x=1
D
x=-2
Question 1221
A Flight has to travel between 2 cities A and B, 3000 kam apart. The flight was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30 min. The duration of the flight with original speed is:
A
2.6 hrs
B
2.75 hrs
C
2.25 hrs
D
2.5 hrs
Question 1222
A train 130 meters long travelling at 36 km/hr crosses the bridge in 30 sec. Then the length of the bridge is:
A
196 meters
B
170 meters
C
125 meters
D
175 meters
Question 1223
If two is added to the denominator of a rational munber it becomes ⅓ and if 4 is added to the numerator it becomes ½ . Then the sum of the numerator and the denominator of the rational number is:
A
-38
B
38
C
-18
D
18
Question 1224
Ms. Shivangi invests Rs. 4000 for six months at 20% per annum compounded quarterly. The total amount she gets after 6 months is:
A
Rs. 4401
B
Rs. 4410
C
Rs. 4411
D
Rs. 4440
Question 1225
For a positive integer n, 36n- 63n is divisible by:
A
3
B
513
C
500
D
6
Question 1226
Due to economic surges the price of eggs reduced to 40%. This enabled a woman to buy 64 more eggs for $50. Then the reduced price per dozen is:
A
$3.5
B
$3.75
C
$3.25
D
$4
Question 1227
If x1 and x2 are the roots of the equation x2+2x-15 =0 then the quadratic equation which has the roots 1/x1 and 1/x2 is :
A
-15x2-2x-1 = 0
B
15x2-2x-1 = 0
C
15x2-2x+1 = 0
D
15x2+2x-1 = 0
Question 1228
The curved surface area of a hemisphere is 8cm2, then its radius is:
A
1 cm
B
3 cm
C
2.5 cm
D
2 cm
Question 1229
If the three sides of the triangle are given as 32 cm, 33 cm and 34 cm then the area of the triangle is:
A
500 cm2
B
480 cm2
C
450 cm2
D
475 cm2
Question 1230
If the sum of 2 numbers is 175, their LCM is 300 and HCF is 25, then the difference between 2 numbers is :
A
10
B
25
C
20
D
15
Question 1231
The total number of odd factors of 25*33*52 is :
A
12
B
10
C
6
D
15
Question 1232
Mr. Vijay rows a boat with the stream in 8km/hr and against the stream in 4 km/hr. In still water, his rate of rowing in km/hr is:
A
1
B
3
C
4
D
2
Question 1233
If y exceeds x by 10% then x is less than y by what percent ?
A
9 (1/12)
B
9 (1/13)
C
9 (1/14)
D
9 (1/11)
Question 1234
In a chemistry lab two beakers A and B contain 62% and 84% of spirit respectively. If two liters from A is mixed with 4 liters of B, the ratio of spirit and water in the resulting mixture is:
A
58 :19
B
17 :19
C
23 :7
D
17 :21
Question 1235
If -5x1 and -1y5, then the minimum value of 2y-3x is :
A
-5
B
-9
C
-8
D
-10
Question 1236
The number of terms in the sequence 20, 25, 30,..........,150 is:
A
23
B
22
C
27
D
26
Question 1237
An army post with 1800 men has provision of food for 50 days. After 10 days, some of the men go back to the base camp due to injuries. The remaining food is now enough for the next 50 days for the remaining men. What is the number of men who went back the base camp?
A
350 Men
B
360 Men
C
250 Men
D
310 Men
Question 1238
The numbers of terms in the sequence 5, 20, 80, 320,......... 81920 is:
A
6
B
7
C
9
D
8
Question 1239
Mr. Deep divides Rs. 1833 such that 4 times the 1st share , thrice the 2nd share and twice the third share amount to the same. Then the value of the 2nd share is :
A
Rs. 546
B
Rs. 564
C
Rs. 560
D
Rs. 654
Question 1240
A can finish the work in 25 days and B in 25 days . They both work together for 5 days and then B leaves. How many days will A take to complete the remaining work?
A
18 days
B
20 days
C
17 days
D
15 days
Question 1241
In a bio gas plant the population of yeast bacteria increases at a rate of 9% per annum, but there is an additional annual increase of 1% in population due to various other inputs in the system. The percentage increase in the yeast population after 2yr is:
A
20%
B
21%
C
25%
D
22%
Question 1242
The average of 7 numbers is 29. The average of first three of them is 23 and the last three of them is 42. Then the fourth number is:
A
8
B
9
C
10
D
12
Question 1243
Select the one which is different from other three.
A
GHST
B
EVFU
C
KPLO
D
IRJQ
Question 1244
What is related to 'Courage' in the same way as 'Kindness' is related to 'Cruelty'?
A
Cowardice
B
Bravery
C
Fear
D
Valour
Question 1245
In a certain code language CARPET is writen as FDUSHW. How will MOTHER be coded in that code language?
A
PRWHUK
B
PRWKHU
C
OPUIFS
D
REHTOM
Question 1246
Four sets of three statements each are given below. Take these statements to be true even if they look factually absurd. Select one alternative which third statement is implied by the first two statements.
A
All tables are chairs. All cupboards are tables. So, all chairs are cupboards.
B
All J's are K's. All K's are M's. So, all M's are J's.
C
All apples are red. All bananas ore apples. So, all bananas are red.
D
All locks are keys. Some ball are keys. So, all locks are balls.
Question 1247

How many triangles are there in the following figure?


A
20
B
28
C
24
D
12
Question 1248
Choose the correct alternative that will complete the given number series, 9, 17, 31, 57, ?, 205
A
107
B
102
C
104
D
109
Question 1249
Find the odd number pair from the given alternative.
A
46-10
B
42-33
C
25 — 43
D
12—91
Question 1250
Find missing number from the given alternatives.

A
42
B
43
C
41
D
45
Question 1251
Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror is held on the line X Y?

A
B
C
D
Question 1252
'R' is the paternal uncle of 'P'. who is the daughter of and 'N' is the daughter-in-law of 'M'. How is 'R' related to
A
Brother
B
Cousin
C
Son-in-law
D
Son
Question 1253
Mother's age is twice her daughter 's age. The son is older than daughter by one year and father is five years older than mother. If son has completed 18 years, find father's age.
A
40 years
B
39 years
C
41 years
D
42 years
Question 1254
Select the Related number from the given alternatives, 23 : 34:: 47: ?
A
72
B
65
C
62
D
69
Question 1255
Three positions of a cube ate shown below. Which number will be opposite to the face containing 3?

A
1
B
4
C
6
D
5
Question 1256
If '+' means 'x', '-'means '÷' , 'x' means '-' and '÷' means '+', then what will be the value of 16÷3 — 6 x 2 + 3 — ?
A
26
B
20
C
16
D
14
Question 1257
In a row of boys, Vivek stands thirteenth from the left and Ravi is thirteenth from the right. If they interchange their places. Ravi would be eighteenth from the right. How many boys are there in the row
A
29
B
31
C
30
D
32
Question 1258
From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. ORGANISATION
A
GRANT
B
REASON
C
ORGAN
D
STRONG
Question 1259
In the given letter series, which one set of letters when sequentially placed in the gaps shall complete it? p_n n m_p m n_m p_m n_m p
A
n p m p n
B
m p n p n
C
m n p n p
D
n m n p p
Question 1260
Shyam walked 20 metres towards south. Then he turned to his left and walked 15 metres. He again turned to his left and walked 20 metres. He then turned to his right and walked 10 metre. How far and in which direction is Shyam from the starting point?
A
35 Metres, East
B
25 Metres, East
C
35 Metres, West
D
25 Metres, North
There are 1260 questions to complete.

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