UGC NET CS 2010 Dec-Paper-2

Question 1
The number of integers between 1 and 250 that are divisible by 2, 5 and 7 is
A
2
B
3
C
5
D
8
       Engineering-Mathematics       Combinatorics
Question 1 Explanation: 
Here, we have to find all possible integers between 250 which was divisible by 2,5 and 7.
Solving this problem by 2 methods:
1. Venn diagram
2. Mathematical substitution.
In this problem, we are using Mathematical substitution method.
Step-1: According to condition, we can perform least common multiple(LCM) of 2,5 and 7=70
Step-2: Total number of integers= ⌊250/70⌋
= 3
Note: Divisible numbers are 70,140 and 210.
Question 2
An undirected graph possesses an eulerian circuit if and only if it is connected and its vertices are
A
all of even degree
B
all of odd degree
C
of any degree
D
even in number
       Engineering-Mathematics       Graph-Theory
Question 2 Explanation: 
→ An undirected graph possesses an eulerian circuit if and only if it is connected and its vertices all of even degree.
→ Eulerian circuit (or) Euler tour in an undirected graph is a cycle that uses each edge exactly once.
Question 3
A partially ordered set is said to be a lattice if every two elements in the set have
A
a unique least upper bound
B
a unique greatest lower bound
C
both (A) and (B)
D
none of the above
       Engineering-Mathematics       Set-Theory
Question 3 Explanation: 
A partially ordered set is said to be a lattice if every two elements in the set have
1. Unique least upper bound
2. Unique greatest lower bound
Question 4
The minimum number of edges in a connected graph with ‘n’ vertices is equal to
A
n(n – 1)
B
n(n–1)/2
C
n2
D
n – 1
       Engineering-Mathematics       Graph-Theory
Question 4 Explanation: 

Question 5
Consider the problem of connecting 19 lamps to a single electric outlet by using extension cords each of which has four outlets. The number of extension cords required is
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
       Engineering-Mathematics       Binary-Trees
Question 6
The decimal number equivalent of (4057.06)8 is
A
2095.75
B
2095.075
C
2095.937
D
2095.0937
       Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 6 Explanation: 

Question 7
 is equivalent to
A

B

C

D

       Digital-Logic-Design       Boolean-Expression
Question 7 Explanation: 

Question 8
An astable multivibrator has
A
one stable state
B
two stable states
C
no stable states
D
none of these
       Data-Communication       multivibrator
Question 8 Explanation: 

Question 9
12-bit 2’s complement of –73.75 is
A
01001001.1100
B
11001001.1100
C
10110110.0100
D
10110110.1100
       Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 9 Explanation: 


Question 10
Encoding of data bits 0011 into 7-bit even Parity Hamming Code is
A
0011110
B
0101110
C
0010110
D
0011100
       Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 10 Explanation: 
(m) Data = 0011
No. of parity bits needed is decided using
2p≥ m+p+1
p=3
Bit pattern:

P1(check even parity at 1, 3, 5, 7 bit) = 0
P2(check even parity at 2, 3, 6, 7 bit) = 1
P4(check even parity at 4, 5, 6, 7 bit) = 1
So encoded data = 0011110
Question 11
How many of the following declarations are correct ?
int z = 7.0;
double void = 0.000;
short array [2] = {0, 1, 2};
char c = “\n”;
A
None
B
One is correct
C
Two are correct
D
All four are correct
       Programming       Data-Type
Question 11 Explanation: 
int z = 7.0; → Incorrect. Given data type is integer but given floating point number. It is wrong declaration.
double void = 0.000; → Incorrect. void is a keyword but can’t use with variable declaration.
It always return null value.
short array [2] = {0, 1, 2}; → Correct. It is right format. We can declare static values here itself.
char c = “\n”; → Incorrect. It is character data type but given in double quotes. It should be single quote instead of double quote.
Question 12
The value of the following expression (13 / 4 * 3) % 5 + 1 is
A
5.75
B
2.95
C
1.4875
D
5
       Engineering-Mathematics       Combinatorics
Question 12 Explanation: 
(13 / 4 * 3) % 5 + 1
Step-1: (13 / 4 * 3) % 5 + 1
Step-2: (3.25*3)%5+1
Step-3: 9.75%5+1
Step-4: 4.75+1
Step-5: 5.75
Note: ( ) having highest precedence then *,/ and % have same precedence order.
Question 13
Which one of the following will set the value of y to 5 if x has the value 3, but not otherwise ?
A
if (x = 3) y = 5
B
if x = = 3 (y = 5)
C
if (x = = 3); y = 5
D
if (x = = 3) y =5
       Programming       Operator
Question 13 Explanation: 
Here, they given two conditions
1. x has the value of 3 and
2. y value should be 5
Step-1: Based on the conditions, option-A is wrong because they are assign the 3 value to x but x is equals to 3.
Step-2: Option-B they given x==3 and y=5 but we have to give parenthesis to x condition.
Step-3: Option-C they given syntax error by using ;
Step-4: Option-D is the correct representation to above 2 conditions.
Question 14
Which one of the following sentences is true ?
A
The body of a while loop is executed at least once.
B
The body of a do ... while loop is executed at least once.
C
The body of a do ... while loop is executed zero or more times.
D
A for loop can never be used in place of a while loop.
       Programming       Control-Statement
Question 14 Explanation: 
Syntax: do
{
Statement-1;
Statement-2;
}while(condition)
Here, without checking condition, it enters into loop. It means it executes at least once irrespective of condition.
Question 15
“Black” refers in the “Black-box” testing means
A
Characters of the movie “Black”
B
I–O is hidden
C
Design is hidden
D
Users are hidden
       Software-Engineering       Software-testing
Question 15 Explanation: 
Black box testing means design is hidden. Specific knowledge of the application's code, internal structure and programming knowledge in general is not required.
Question 16
In generalisation, the differences between members of an entity is
A
maximized
B
minimized
C
both (A) & (B)
D
None of these
       Database-Management-System       ER-Model
Question 16 Explanation: 
→ Generalization - the process of defining a general entity type from a collection of specialized entity types.
→ Specialization - the opposite of generalization, since it defines subtypes of the supertype and determines the relationship between the two.
→ Specialization is a top down approach. The following example "Employee" could be a developer or a tester.

Question 17
The dependency preservation decomposition is a property to decompose database schema D, in which each functional dependency X → Y specified in F,
A
appeared directly in one of the relation schemas Ri in the decomposed D.
B
could be inferred from dependencies that appear in some Ri.
C
both (A) and (B)
D
None of these
       Database-Management-System       Functional-Dependency
Question 17 Explanation: 
The dependency preservation decomposition is a property to decompose database schema D, in which each functional dependency X → Y specified in F
Appeared directly in one of the relation schemas Ri in the decomposed D.
Could be inferred from dependencies that appear in some Ri.
Question 18
Which of the following is an optimistic concurrency control method ?
A
Validation based
B
Timestamp ordering
C
Lock-based
D
None of these
       Database-Management-System       Transactions
Question 18 Explanation: 

Question 19
Optical storage is a
A
high-speed direct access storage device.
B
low-speed direct access storage device.
C
medium-speed direct access storage device.
D
high-speed sequential access storage device.
       Computer-Organization       Secondary-Memory
Question 19 Explanation: 
Optical storage is a low-speed direct access storage device.
Question 20
Which of the following is the process by which a user’s access to physical data in the application is limited, based on his privileges ?
A
Authorization
B
Authentication
C
Access Control
D
All of these
       Computer-Networks       Security
Question 20 Explanation: 
→ Authorization is the process by which a user’s privileges ascertained.
→ A smart card, chip card, or integrated circuit card (ICC) is a physical electronic authorization device, used to control access to a resource.
Question 21
What is the maximum number of nodes in a B-tree of order 10 of depth 3 (root at depth 0) ?
A
111
B
999
C
9999
D
None of the above
       Database-Management-System       B-and-B+-Trees
Question 21 Explanation: 
→ Order of a B-tree represents the no. of children a node can have.
→ Let’s consider a B-tree of depth 3 and order 2.


Question 22
A binary tree with 27 nodes has _______ null branches.
A
54
B
27
C
26
D
None of the above
       Data-Structures       Binary-Trees
Question 23
The time complexity to build a heap of n elements is
A
O(1)
B
O(lgn)
C
O(n)
D
O(nlgn)
       Data-Structures       Heap-Tree
Question 23 Explanation: 
The time complexity to build a heap of n elements is O(n).
Build-Max-Heap(A)
// Input: A: an (unsorted) array
// Output: A modified to represent a heap.
// Running Time: O(n) where n = length[A]
1 heap-size[A] ← length[A]
2 for i ← Floor(length[A]/2) downto 1
3 Max-Heapify(A, i)
The Build-Max-Heap function that follows, converts an array A which stores a complete binary tree with n nodes to a max-heap by repeatedly using Max-Heapify in a bottom up manner. It is based on the observation that the array elements indexed by floor(n/2) + 1, floor(n/2) + 2, ..., n are all leaves for the tree (assuming that indices start at 1), thus each is a one-element heap.
→ Build-Max-Heap runs Max-Heapify on each of the remaining tree nodes.
Question 24
Linear probing suffers from a problem known as
A
Secondary clustering
B
Primary clustering
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
None of these
       Data-Structures       Hashing
Question 24 Explanation: 
→ Primary clustering means that if there is a cluster and the initial position of a new record would fall anywhere in the cluster the cluster size increases.
Example: Linear probing
→ Secondary clustering is less severe, two records do only have the same collision chain if their initial position is the same.
Example: Quadratic probing
Question 25
Which of the following can be the sequence of nodes examined in binary search tree while searching for key 88 ?
A
90, 40, 65, 50, 88
B
90, 110, 80, 85, 88
C
190, 60, 90, 85, 88
D
65, 140, 80, 70, 88
       Data-Structures       Binary-search-tree
Question 25 Explanation: 
Binary search tree will follow some rules
1. Left subtree is smaller than his root node
2. Right subtree is greater than or equal to his root
Based on above rules, the search operation will perform


Note: The sequence of searching should be continuous.
Question 26
Frequency shift keying is used mostly in
A
Radio transmission
B
Telegraphy
C
Telephone
D
None of the above
       Data-Communication       Transmission-method
Question 26 Explanation: 
The technology is used for communication systems such as telemetry, weather balloon radiosondes, caller ID, garage door openers, and low frequency radio transmission in the VLF and ELF bands.
Question 27
The baud rate is
A
always equal to the bit transfer rate
B
equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel
C
not equal to the signalling rate
D
equal to half of the bandwidth of an ideal channel
       Computer-Networks       Baud-Rate
Question 27 Explanation: 
The baud rate is equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel.
Question 28
How much bandwidth is there in 1 micron of spectrum at a wavelength of 1 micron ?
A
300 MHz
B
3 GHz
C
300 THz
D
30 KHz
       Computer-Networks       Bandwidth
Question 28 Explanation: 
According to formula, Δf=c∗Δλ / (λ*λ)
where,
Δf is the bandwidth range,
c is the light speed,
Δλ is the wavelength range,
λ is a certain wavelength. ,
Δλ = 3*10e8 * 0.1*10e-6 / (10e-6 * 10e-6)
= 3*10e13Hz
= 30THz
Question 29
Which of the following file transfer protocols use TCP and establishes two virtual circuits between the local and remote server ?
A
FTP
B
TFTP
C
TELNET
D
NFS
       Computer-Networks       Application-Layer-Protocol
Question 30
The threshold effect in demodulator is
A
exhibited by all demodulator, when the input signal to noise ratio is low.
B
the rapid fall on output signal to noise ratio when the input signal to noise ratio fall below a particular value.
C
the property exhibited by all A.M. suppressed carrier coherent demodulator.
D
the property exhibited by correlation receiver.
       Data-Communication       Modem
Question 30 Explanation: 
The threshold effect in demodulator is the rapid fall on output signal to noise ratio when the input signal to noise ratio fall below a particular value.
Question 31
Object code is the output of ______.
A
Operating System
B
Compiler or Assembler
C
only Assembler
D
only compiler
       Operating-Systems       Linker-and-Loader
Question 31 Explanation: 
Object code is the output of Compiler or Assembler.
Question 32
‘Macro’ in an assembly level program is _______.
A
sub program
B
a complete program
C
a hardware portion
D
relative coding
       Compiler-Design       Macros
Question 32 Explanation: 
→ A macro is a sequence of instructions, assigned by a name and could be used anywhere in the program.
→ A macro is an extension to the basic ASSEMBLER language. They provide a means for generating a commonly used sequence of assembler instructions/statements.
→ The sequence of instructions/statements will be coded ONE time within the macro definition. Whenever the sequence is needed within a program, the macro will be "called".
Question 33
Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler
A
semantic analysis
B
code generation
C
syntax analysis
D
code optimization
       Compiler-Design       Phases-of-Compilers
Question 33 Explanation: 
→ Grammar of the programming is checked at syntax phase of compiler.
→ logical errors will checked in semantic analysis.
→ Code optimization and code generation is not related to checking errors. It is reducing statement or performing optimization.
Question 34
The register or main memory location which contains the effective address of the operand is known as
A
pointer
B
special location
C
indexed register
D
None of the above
       Computer-Organization       Addressing-Modes
Question 34 Explanation: 
The register or main memory location which contains the effective address of the operand is known as pointer.
Question 35
Macro-processors are ______.
A
Hardware
B
Compiler
C
Registers
D
None of the above
       Compiler-Design       Macros
Question 35 Explanation: 
→ A macro processor is a program that copies a stream of text from one place to another, making a systematic set of replacements as it does so.
→ Macro processors are often embedded in other programs, such as assemblers and compilers.
Question 36
The dynamic allocation of storage areas with VSAM files is accomplished by
A
Hashing
B
Control splits
C
Overflow areas
D
Relative recording
       Operating-Systems       File-storage-access-method
Question 36 Explanation: 
The dynamic allocation of storage areas with Virtual Storage Access Method(VSAM) files is accomplished by Control splits.
Question 37
Which of the following command the file names in multiple columns ?
A
IS – X
B
IS
C
IS – 1
D
IS – f - X
       Operating-Systems       Linux-Commands
Question 37 Explanation: 
IS command will display file names in multiple columns,
Question 38
WINDOWS is a _________ operating.
A
Real time
B
Multi-user
C
Preemptive
D
Non-preemptive
       Operating-Systems       Windows-Operating-System
Question 38 Explanation: 
→ Windows NT OS/2 was intended to be a secure, multi-user operating system with POSIX compatibility and a modular, portable kernel with preemptive multitasking and support for multiple processor architectures.
Question 39
Page making process from main memory to disk is called
A
Interruption
B
Termination
C
Swapping
D
None of the above
       Operating-Systems       CPU-Scheduling
Question 39 Explanation: 
→ Page making process from main memory to disk is called swapping.
→ Swapping is a mechanism in which a process can be swapped/moved temporarily out of main memory to a backing store , and then brought back into memory for continued execution.
Question 40
A Deadlock in an Operating System Is
A
Desirable process
B
Undesirable process
C
Definite waiting process
D
All of the above
       Operating-Systems       Deadlock
Question 40 Explanation: 
Most appropriate answer is option-B but official key given as option-C. Deadlock is not definite waiting process. We can’t predict it will work after some of time.
Question 41
Prototyping is used to
A
test the software as an end product
B
expand design details
C
refine and establish requirements gathering
D
None of the above
       Software-Engineering       Software-requirements
Question 41 Explanation: 
Prototyping is used to refine and establish requirements gathering. The quick design of a software that is visible to end users leads to prototype model.
Advantages: 1. We can develop software where requirements are unclear
2. Customer satisfaction
Disadvantage:
1. Who pay cost of prototype
2. Required the design expertise
3. Throwaway approach (or) evolutionary approach ( In this approach we develop the software by enhancing protype)
Question 42
Which one of these are not software maintenance activity ?
A
Error correction
B
Adaptation
C
Implementation of Enhancement
D
Establishing scope
       Software-Engineering       Software-configuration-management
Question 42 Explanation: 
Software maintenance is the modification of a software product after delivery to correct faults, to improve performance or other attributes.
Software maintenance types: 1. Adaptive: modifying the system to cope with changes in the software environment (DBMS, OS)
2. Perfective: Implementing new or changed user requirements which concern functional enhancements to the software.
3. Corrective: Diagnosing and fixing errors, possibly ones found by users.
4. Preventive: Increasing software maintainability or reliability to prevent problems in the future.
Question 43
The system specification is the first deliverable in the computer system engineering process which does not include
A
Functional Description
B
Cost
C
Schedule
D
Technical Analysis
       Software-Engineering       Software-design
Question 43 Explanation: 
→ The system specification is the first deliverable in the computer system engineering process which does not include functional description.
→ The system specification document describes the system and gives a high-level view of what the system will provide. The system specification is the guide that will allow details on hardware,software and test requirements.
Question 44
The COCOMO model was introduced in the book title “Software Engineering Economics” authored by
A
Abraham Silberschatz
B
Barry Boehm
C
C.J. Date
D
D.E. Knuth
       Software-Engineering       COCOMO-Model
Question 44 Explanation: 
The COCOMO model was introduced in the book title “Software Engineering Economics” authored by Barry Boehm.
Question 45
The Warnier diagram enables analyst
A
to represent information hierarchy in a compact manner
B
to further identify requirement
C
to estimate the total cost involved
D
None of the above
       Software-Engineering       Warnier-diagram
Question 45 Explanation: 
In Warnier Diagram, is a kind of hierarchical flow chart that allows the description of the organization of data and procedures. It enables analyst to represent information hierarchy in a compact manner.
Question 46
A data mart may contain
A
summarised data
B
denormalized data
C
aggregate departmental data
D
All of the above
       Database-Management-System       Data-ware-housing
Question 46 Explanation: 
Data mart: 1. Often holds only one subject area- for example, Finance, or Sales
2. May hold more summarized data (although many hold full detail)
3. Concentrates on integrating information from a given subject area or set of source systems
4. Is built focused on a dimensional model using a star schema.
Question 47
Data mining is
A
the process of extracting valid, previously unknown, comprehensible and actionable information from large databases and using it to make crucial business decisions.
B
a tool that allows end users direct access and manipulation of data from within data- warehousing environment without the intervention of customised programming activity.
C
a tool that helps end users extract useful business information from large database.
D
All of the above
       Database-Management-System       data-mining
Question 47 Explanation: 
Data mining is the process of extracting valid, previously unknown, comprehensible and actionable information from large databases and using it to make crucial business decisions.
Question 48
E-Choupal refers to
A
calling meeting of Sarpanches electronically.
B
conducting Panchayat meeting using latest electronic gadgets.
C
providing window of information to villagers and farmers in NIC network.
D
None of the above
       Computer-Basics       ICT
Question 48 Explanation: 
→ E-Choupal is an initiative of ITC Limited, a conglomerate in India, to link directly with rural farmers via the Internet for procurement of agricultural and aquaculture products like soybeans, wheat, coffee, and prawns.
→ E-Choupal tackles the challenges posed by Indian agriculture, characterized by fragmented farms, weak infrastructure and the involvement of intermediaries. The programme installs computers with Internet access in rural areas of India to offer farmers up-to-date marketing and agricultural information.
Question 49
The basic concepts of ethics in information society is/are
A
Responsibility
B
Accountability
C
Liability
D
All of the above
       Computer-Networks       Security
Question 49 Explanation: 
The basic concepts of ethics in information society are Responsibility, Accountability and Liability.
Question 50
One of the distinguished features of supercomputer over other category of computer is
A
parallel processing
B
highest accuracy level
C
more speed
D
more capacity
       Computer-Organization       Computer-Types
Question 50 Explanation: 
Supercomputer have many number of cores and RAM size is too good. So, it gives better performance than normal computers and as well as more speed.
There are 50 questions to complete.