KVS 30-12-2018 Part B

Question 1
An address in the memory is called
A
physical address
B
logical address
C
memory address
D
word address
       Operating-Systems       Memory-Management
Question 1 Explanation: 
A physical address (also real address, or binary address), is a memory address that is represented in the form of a binary number on the address bus circuitry in order to enable the data bus to access a particular storage cell of main memory, or a register of memory mapped I/O device.
Question 2
EEPROM is
A
Efficiently erasable programmable read only memory
B
Electrically erasable programmable read only memory
C
Electronically erasable programmable read only memory
D
Electrically and Electronically programmable read only memory
       Computer-Organization       EEPROM
Question 2 Explanation: 
Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a type of non-volatile memory used in computers, integrated in microcontrollers for smart cards and remote keyless systems, and other electronic devices to store relatively small amounts of data but allowing individual bytes to be erased and reprogrammed.
Question 3
Convert the following octal number into its decimal equivalent: 2 3 7 4 in octal
A
(10208)10
B
(1276)10
C
(2374)10
D
(1272)10
       Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 3 Explanation: 
(2374)8=2x83+3x82+7x81+4x80=1024+192+56+4=1276
Question 4
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
  1. With on-chip decoding, 8 address lines can access 64 memory locations
  2. With on-chip decoding, 4 address lines can access 64 memory locations
  3. With on-chip decoding, 8 address lines can access 256 memory locations
  4. With on-chip decoding, 4 address lines can access 128 memory locations
A
Only a
B
A and b
C
Only c
D
C and d
       Digital-Logic-Design       Combinational-Circuits
Question 4 Explanation: 
->The n address lines consists of 2n memory locations
->8 address lines can access 28 =256 memory locations
Question 5
Represent the decimal number 3.248*104 into a single precision floating point binary number(using standard format).
A
0|10001101|11111011100000000000000
B
0|11001101|11111011100000000000000
C
1|11001101|11111011100000000000000
D
0|10001110|11111011100000000000000
       Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 5 Explanation: 
Given number is in base 10. Convert it to base-10.
3.248x104 =32480= 1111110111
= 1.111110111 x 214
Mantissa = 11111011100...00
Biased exponent = 14 +127= 141 = 10001101
Question 6
When used with IC, what does he term QUAD indicate?
A
2 circuits
B
4 circuits
C
6 circuits
D
8 circuits
       Digital-Logic-Design       Logic-Families
Question 6 Explanation: 
→A quad gate is an IC (integrated circuit or chip) containing four logic gates. The gates can be of any type: AND, OR, XOR, NOT, NAND, NOR, and XNOR. Within any given quad gate, all four of the individual gates are normally of the same type.
→A logic gate is an elementary building block of a digital circuit.
Question 7
Data can be changed from special code to temporal code by using
A
Shift Registers
B
Counters
C
Combinational circuits
D
A/D converters
       Digital-Logic-Design       Shift-Register
Question 7 Explanation: 
By shift registers , data is can be changed from one code to another code.
Question 8
Words having 8 bits are to be stored in computer memory. The number of lines required for writing into the memory are
A
1
B
2
C
4
D
8
       Digital-Logic-Design       Combinational-Circuits
Question 8 Explanation: 
Each line carries one bit of information.
Question 9
A group of bits that tells the computer to perform a specific operation is known as
A
Instruction code
B
Micro operation
C
Accumulator
D
Register
       Computer-Organization       Registers
Question 9 Explanation: 
→An instruction code is a group of bits that instruct the computer to perform a specific operation.
→The operation code of an instruction is a group of bits that define operations such as addition, subtraction, shift, complement, etc.
→An instruction must also include one or more operands, which indicate the registers and/or memory addresses from which data is taken or to which data is deposited.
Question 10
If a value V(x) of the target operand is contained in the field itself, the addressing mode is called
A
Immediate
B
Direct
C
Indirect
D
Implied
       Computer-Organization       Addressing-Modes
Question 10 Explanation: 
As mentioned in the question “Target operand is contained in the field itself”. It should be immediate addressing mode
Question 11
If the address of A[1][1] and A[2][1] are 1000 and 1010 respectively and each element occupies 2 bytes, then the array has been stored in ____ order
A
Row major order
B
Column major
C
Matrix major
D
Simple
       Data-Structures       Arrays
Question 11 Explanation: 
→Row-major order and column-major order are methods for storing multidimensional arrays in linear storage such as random access memory.
→First element address is 1000 and Second element address is 1002 and so on
→A[2][1] means Second row first element whose address is 1010.
Question 12
What is the following program segment doing?
main()
{
int d=1;
do
{
printf(“%d”\n”,d++);
}while(d<=9);
}
A
Adding 9 integers
B
Adding integers from 1 to 9
C
Displaying integers from 1 to 9
D
No output
       Programming       Control Flow
Question 12 Explanation: 
The code consists of do-while loop in which action performs first and later condition checking.
In the printf() statement, d++ means first it will display d value and increment the d value later condition checking.So the integer values 1 to 9 will be printed.
Question 13
In a computer, keywords of a language are recognized during
A
Parsing of the program
B
Code generation
C
Lexical analysis of the program
D
Data flow diagrams
       Compiler-Design       Compilers-and-Parsers
Question 13 Explanation: 
Lexical analyzer reads the characters from source code and convert it into tokens.
Different tokens or lexemes are:
→Keywords
→Identifiers
→Operators
→Constants
Question 14
If an array is declared as Int a[5]={3,0,1,2}, then values assigned to a[0] and a[4] will be
A
3,2
B
0,2
C
3,0
D
0,4
       Data-Structures       Arrays
Question 14 Explanation: 
→A[0] is first element and a[4] means 5th element. Array is declared for 5 elements are only four elements are initialized and the default value is 0.
→The first value is 3 and a[4] value is 0
Question 15
Consider the following code segment in JAVA
switch(x)
{
default;
system.out.println(“Hello”);
}
Which of the following data types are acceptable for x?
A
Byte and char
B
Long and char
C
Char and float
D
Byte and float
       OOPS       JAVA
Question 15 Explanation: 
The possible values are either integer constant or character constant.No other data type values are allowed.
Question 16
Which of the following are valid calls to math.max in java?
  1. Math.max(1,4)
  2. Math.max(2.3,5)
  3. Math.max(1,3,5,7)
  4. Math.max(-1.5,-2.8f)
A
A,b and d
B
B,c and d
C
A,b and c
D
C and d
       OOPS       JAVA
Question 16 Explanation: 
→The java.lang.Math.max(int a, int b) returns the greater of two int values.
→We can find the greater of any two data types variables.
→Option C consists of four variables , So it is invalid.
Question 17
Which of the following is NOT true in C++?
A
Before a variable can be used, it must be declared
B
Variable are allocated values through the use of assignment statements
C
When a variable is declared, C++ allocates storage for the variable and puts an unknown value inside it.
D
We can use a variable even if it is not declared.
       OOPS       C++
Question 17 Explanation: 
In the c++ (or) C programming language , in order to use the variables in the program we must declare the variables before using.
Question 18
What shall be the output of the following program in C++(using turbo C++)?
#include<iostream.h>
float answer;
main()
{
answer=⅓;
cout<<”The value of ⅓ is” <<answer,,”\n”;
return(0);
}
A
The value of ⅓ is 0
B
The value of ⅓ is 0.33
C
The value of ⅓ is 0.3333
D
The value of ⅓ is 1/3
       Programming       C++
Question 18 Explanation: 
The expression answer=⅓ , which is integer divide by integer operation .
Modulus operation gives the quotient values when one number is divided by another number .
When 1 is divide by 3, the quotient is o
Question 19
What shall be the output of the following code segment in C++?
int main()
{
int x=0,i=4;
switch(i)
{
default:x+=5;
cout<<”x=<<x<<”\n”;
Case 4:x+=4;
cout<<”x=<<x<<”\n”;
Case 1:x+=1;
cout<<”x=<<x<<”\n”;
Case 2:x+=2;
cout<<”x=<<x<<”\n”;
Case 3:x+=3;
cout<<”x=<<x<<”\n”;
}
return 0;
}
A
x=4,x=10
B
x=4
C
x=10
D
x=9
       Programming       Switch-Case
Question 19 Explanation: 
The output of the above program is x=4,x=5,x=7 and x=10 as there is no break statement is the switch case. From the above options the possible values are 4 and 10 only.
Question 20
Which of the following is NOT true in case of protected Inheritance in C++?
A
Each public member in the base class is protected in the derived class
B
Each protected member in the base class is protected in the derived class
C
Each private member in the base class is private in the derived class
D
Each private member in the base class is visible in the derived class
       OOPS       Properties
Question 20 Explanation: 
The following table shows the access to members permitted by each modifier.
Question 21
Consider the following code segment in C++;
value=1;
result=(value++ *5)+(value++ *3)
What shall be the answer, after this code is executed?
A
result=11 or 13
B
result=16 or 19
C
result=21 or 16
D
result=19 or 21
       Programming       Operator
Question 21 Explanation: 
→If the one variable incremented multiple time in single expression , it gives abnormal behaviour .
→Consider the following expression, result=(value++ *5)+(value++ *3), post increements operation will be performed in the expression.
→result=(value++ *5)+(value++ *3) First left side operand evaluates means (1*5+2*3)=11
→result=(value++ *5)+(value++ *3) First right side operand evaluates means (2*5+1*3)=13
Question 22
If a class C is derived from class B, which is derived from class A, all through public inheritance, then a class C member function can access
A
Protected and public data only in C and B
B
Protected and public data only in C
C
Private data in A and B
D
Protected data in A and B
       OOPS       Class
Question 22 Explanation: 
The following table shows the access to members permitted by each modifier.
Question 23
Mechanism of deriving a class from another derived class is known as
A
Polymorphism
B
Single inheritance
C
Multilevel inheritance
D
Message passing
       OOPS       Properties
Question 23 Explanation: 
When a class is derived from a class which is also derived from another class, i.e. a class having more than one parent classes, such inheritance is called Multilevel Inheritance.
Question 24
Data members which are static
A
Cannot be assigned a value
B
Can only be used in static functions
C
Cannot be defined in a union
D
Can be accessed outside the class
       Programming       Storage-Classes
Question 24 Explanation: 
→When we declare a normal variable (data member) in a class, different copies of those data members create with the associated objects.
→In some cases when we need a common data member that should be same for all objects, we cannot do this using normal data members. To fulfill such cases, we need static data members.
→If you are calling a static data member within a member function, member function should be declared as static (i.e. a static member function can access the static data members)
Question 25
Members of  class by default are
A
Public
B
Private
C
Protected
D
Mandatory to specify
       OOPS       Class
Question 25 Explanation: 
→A class in C++ is a user defined type or data structure declared with keyword class that has data and functions (also called methods) as its members whose access is governed by the three access specifiers private, protected or public (by default access to members of a class is private).
→The private members are not accessible outside the class; they can be accessed only through methods of the class. The public members form an interface to the class and are accessible outside the class.
Question 26
Time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to client is called
A
STT
B
RTT
C
PTT
D
Total time
       Computer-Networks       Transmission-and-Propagation-Delay
Question 26 Explanation: 
→Round-trip time (RTT), also called round-trip delay, is the time required for a signal pulse or packet to travel from a specific source to a specific destination and back again.
→In this context, the source is the computer initiating the signal and the destination is a remote computer or system that receives the signal and retransmits it
Question 27
Data warehouse bus matrix is a combination of
A
Dimensions and data marts
B
Dimensions and facts
C
Facts and data marts
D
Dimensions and detained facts
       Database-Management-System       Data-ware-housing
Question 27 Explanation: 
→A data mart is a structure / access pattern specific to data warehouse environments, used to retrieve client-facing data.
→The data mart is a subset of the data warehouse and is usually oriented to a specific business line or team.
→Data Warehouse Bus Matrix is a diagram or tool developed by Kimball group to describe data warehouse design blueprint. It is component or consider as part of data warehouse architecture. It is visual picture of business process and conformed dimensions
Question 28
Which is the hexadecimal number equivalent to the octal number 46250
A
4AC8
B
4CA8
C
CCA8
D
4CA4
       Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 28 Explanation: 
Given octal number is 46250 and the corresponding binary number we will get by writing each decimal digit into three binary digits form which is 100110010101000
Now group the four digits from LSB and write corresponding equivalent of Hexadecimal digit of binary digits.
The Hexadecimal number of 100(4) 1100(C) 1010(A) 1000(8) which is nothing but 4CA8
Question 29
If a 3-input NOR gate has 8 input possibilities, how many of those possibilities will result in a HIGH output?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
8
       Digital-Logic-Design       Logic-Gates
Question 29 Explanation: 
3-input NOR gate produces output 1 if input is 000.
Question 30
A full binary adder to add 4 bits requires_____ full adder(s) and ___half adder(s).
A
1,3
B
2,2
C
3,1
D
4,0
       Digital-Logic-Design       Adder
Question 30 Explanation: 
Half Adder takes two input bits and output sum and carry. Full Adder takes three input bits(which includes one carry bit) and output sum and carry.
There is no carry in to the least significant bits. So one Half- Adder adds least significant bits of the two numbers.
Three Full Adders are used to add remaining bits along with carries.
Question 31
How many gates would be required to implement the following boolean expression after simplification? Expression:
A
4
B
6
C
8
D
10
       Digital-Logic-Design       Boolean-Algebra
Question 31 Explanation: 
Given expression is =A’+B’+C’+A’C+B’C+A’BC’+AB’+AC’+AB’C
=A’+A’C+B’+B’C+C’+AC’+A’BC’+AB’+AB’C
=A’ (1+C)+B’(1+C)+C’(1+A)+A’BC’+AB’(1+C) [ 1+X=1]
=A’+B’+C’+A’BC’+AB’
=A’+C’+A’BC’+B’ (1+A)
=A’+C’+A’BC’+B’
=A’+B’+C’ (1+A’B)
=A’+B’+C’
Total four gates required three not gates and one OR gate.
Question 32
A boolean operator θ is defined as follows:
1θ1=1
1θ0=0
0θ1=0
0θ0=1
What will be the truth value of the expression (XθY)θZ=Xθ(YθZ)?
A
Always false
B
Always true
C
Sometimes true
D
Sometimes false
       Digital-Logic-Design       Boolean-Algebra
Question 32 Explanation: 
(XθY)θZ=Xθ(YθZ) is always true if θ is associative.
From the given table, we can infer that θ is Ex-NOR operator.
Ex-NOR is associative. Hence (XθY)θZ=Xθ(YθZ) is always true
Question 33
In RS flip-flop, which of the following values of R and S causes race condition?
A
R=0,S=0
B
R=0,S=1
C
R=1,S=0
D
R=1,S=1
       Digital-Logic-Design       Sequential-Circuits
Question 33 Explanation: 
→A race condition is a timing-related phenomenon. A standard S-R FF (two cross-coupled NAND or NOR gates) is stable for any stable input.
→Race around condition in digital circuits occur when the final state of the output depends on how the inputs arrive.
→The 'function' is in the S=1 R=1 input, the memory situation. The state of the FF depends on which state came before the 11, if it was 01 the FF is in Q=1 state, if it was 10 the FF is in the Q=0 state. This is the classical memory effect of a FF.
Question 34
The memory occupied by an object type of data in VB is
A
1 byte
B
2 byte
C
4 byte
D
8 byte
       OOPS       Class-and-object
Question 34 Explanation: 

Question 35
In VB, which of the following arithmetic operators has the highest level of precedence?
A
+ -
B
* /
C
^(exponentiation)
D
MOD
       Programming       Operator
Question 35 Explanation: 
^(exponentiation) operator has highest precedence than arithmetic operators
Question 36
Which of the following is the correct statement for declaring and assigning the value of 100 to an integer variable called stdno ?
A
Dim stdno=100
B
Dim stdno=100 As Integer
C
Dim stdno As Integer=100
D
Dim stdno As Integer(100)
       Visual-basics       Datatype-Declaration
Question 36 Explanation: 
Specifying an Initial Value: →You can assign a value to a variable when it is created. For a value type, you use an initializer to supply an expression to be assigned to the variable. The expression must evaluate to a constant that can be calculated at compile time.
→Dim quantity As Integer = 10
Dim message As String = "Just started"
Question 37
Which of the following methods in VB is used to load the form into memory and display it on the screen?
A
Load
B
Display
C
Visible
D
Show
       Visual-basics       Events
Question 37 Explanation: 
Show method displays a UserForm object.
Syntax: [ object ].Show modal

The Show method syntax has these parts:

Question 38
In ASP, which of the following methods is used to end the current user session and destroy the current session object immediately?
A
Session.Exit
B
Session.End
C
Session.Abandon
D
Session.terminate
       Web-Technologies       ASP
Question 38 Explanation: 
→Clear - Removes all keys and values from the session-state collection.
→Abandon - removes all the objects stored in a Session. If you do not call the Abandon method explicitly, the server removes these objects and destroys the session when the session times out.It also raises events like Session_End.
Question 39
<DT> tag is designed to fit a single line of our web page but <DD> tag will accept
A
A character
B
A word
C
A line of text
D
Full paragraph
       Web-Technologies       HTML
Question 39 Explanation: 
→The
tag is used to describe a term/name in a description list.
→The
tag is used in conjunction with
(defines a description list) and
(defines terms/names).
→Inside a
tag you can put paragraphs, line breaks, images, links, lists, etc.
Question 40
Which of the following are the types of Cascading Style Sheets(CSS)?
A
Local,Internal and External
B
Inline,Inhouse and External
C
Inbuilt,Internal and External
D
Inline,Internal and External
       Web-Technologies       CSS
Question 40 Explanation: 
Three types of Cascading Style Sheets(CSS) are Inline,Internal and External
Question 41
Which of the following is true to open a link in a new browser window?
A
< a href=”url” target=”_blank” >
B
< a href=”url” target=”_new” >
C
< a href=”url” target=”_top” >
D
< a href=”url” target=”_self” >
       Web-Technologies       HTML
Question 41 Explanation: 
The < a > tag defines a hyperlink, which is used to link from one page to another. Default target
If no target is specified, the link will open in the current context, unless the user or browser specifies otherwise.
a target=”_blank” Open in New Browser Tab (or Window)
The target attribute specifies where the linked document will open when the link is clicked. The default is the current window. If target="_blank", the linked document will open in a new tab or (on older browsers) a new window.
Question 42
Which of the following functions is used to trim the leading as well as trailing spaces of a string in VBScript?
A
Ltrim
B
Trim
C
Space
D
Replace
       Web-Technologies       VB-Script
Question 42 Explanation: 
The Trim function removes spaces on both sides of a string.
Trim(string)
Question 43
Which of the following is the correct Javascript syntax to display “Hello World”?
A
println(“Hello World”)
B
system.out.print(“Hello world”)
C
document.write(“Hello world”)
D
response.write(“Hello World”)
       Web-Technologies       Java-Script
Question 43 Explanation: 
→The write() method writes HTML expressions or JavaScript code to a document.
→Write HTML elements with text directly to the HTML document:
→document.write(" < h1 > Hello World!< /h1 > < p > Have a nice day! < /p > ");
Question 44
Consider the following statements:
a) 3D Studio Max includes a number of high-level professional tools for character animation, game development, and visual effect production.
b) MAYA is a complete modeling package developed by Microsoft
c) RenderMan is a rendering package developed by Pixar
Which of the above statements are true?
A
Only a and b
B
Only a and c
C
Only b and c
D
a,b and c
       Computer-Graphics       3D
Question 44 Explanation: 
MAYA 3D animation software offers a comprehensive creative feature set for 3D computer animation, modeling, simulation, rendering, and compositing on a highly extensible production platform. Maya has next-generation display technology, accelerated modeling workflows, and tools for handling complex data.
Question 45
The ____ file format allows storing an animation sequence
A
PNG
B
GIF
C
JPG
D
PDF
       Computer-Graphics       Motion-Pictures
Question 45 Explanation: 
→PDF means portable document format.
→Portable Network Graphics is a raster-graphics file-format that supports lossless data compression.
→JPG/JPEG: Joint Photographic Experts Group. JPEG is usually known as JPG. It stands for Joint Photographic Expert Group, a joint working group of International Standardization Organization (ISO) and International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is a standard method of compressing graphic images.
→A GIF is a computer file that is used on the internet for sending images, especially moving images. GIF is an abbreviation for 'Graphic Interchange Format'.
Question 46
A network with bandwidth of 10Mbps can pass only an average of 12,000 frames per minute with each frame carrying an average of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput of this network?
A
2 Mbps
B
4 Mbps
C
8 Mbps
D
12 Mbps
       Computer-Networks       Ethernet
Question 46 Explanation: 
Throughput is a measure of how many units of information a system can process in a given amount of time
Given bandwidth is 10Mbps
Number of average frames 12,000 per minute.
Each Frame is carrying 10,000 bits
So, 12,000 * 10,000 / 60 seconds.
= 2 * 1000000 bits / seconds.
= 2 Mbps.
Question 47
The most common connector used with fiber-optic cable is
A
RJ45
B
RJ54
C
BNC
D
MT-RJ
       Computer-Networks       Nework-Cables
Question 47 Explanation: 
→ The most common are: ST, SC, FC, MT-RJ and LC style connectors.
→All of these types of connectors can be used with either multimode or single mode fiber.
Question 48
In which of the following topologies, each device has a dedicated point-to-point connection with only two devices on either side of it?
A
Mesh topology
B
Star topology
C
Bus topology
D
Ring topology
       Computer-Networks       Topologies
Question 48 Explanation: 
→A ring network is a network topology in which each node connects to exactly two other nodes, forming a single continuous pathway for signals through each node - a ring.
→Data travels from node to node, with each node along the way handling every packet.
Question 49
Which of the following IEEE standards is NOT a standard for WAN in mobile communication?
A
IEEE 802.11a
B
IEEE 802.11b
C
IEEE 802.11d
D
IEEE 802.11g
       Computer-Networks       Ethernet
Question 49 Explanation: 
There are several specifications in the 802.11 family:

802.11 — applies to wireless LANs and provides 1 or 2 Mbps transmission in the 2.4 GHz band using either frequency hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) or direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS).

802.11a — an extension to 802.11 that applies to wireless LANs and provides up to 54-Mbps in the 5GHz band. 802.11a uses an orthogonal frequency division multiplexing encoding scheme rather than FHSS or DSSS.

802.11b (also referred to as 802.11 High Rate or Wi-Fi) — an extension to 802.11 that applies to wireless LANS and provides 11 Mbps transmission (with a fallback to 5.5, 2 and 1-Mbps) in the 2.4 GHz band. 802.11b uses only DSSS. 802.11b was a 1999 ratification to the original 802.11 standard, allowing wireless functionality comparable to Ethernet.

802.11e — a wireless draft standard that defines the Quality of Service (QoS) support for LANs, and is an enhancement to the 802.11a and 802.11b wireless LAN (WLAN) specifications.

802.11g — applies to wireless LANs and is used for transmission over short distances at up to 54-Mbps in the 2.4 GHz bands.

802.11n — 802.11n builds upon previous 802.11 standards by adding multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO). The real speed would be 100 Mbit/s (even 250 Mbit/s in PHY level), and so up to 4-5 times faster than 802.11g.

802.11ac — 802.11ac builds upon previous 802.11 standards, particularly the 802.11n standard, to deliver data rates of 433Mbps per spatial stream, or 1.3Gbps in a three-antenna (three stream) design. The 802.11ac specification operates only in the 5 GHz frequency range and features support for wider channels (80MHz and 160MHz) and beamforming capabilities by default to help achieve its higher wireless speeds.

802.11ac Wave 2 — 802.11ac Wave 2 is an update for the original 802.11ac spec that uses MU-MIMO technology and other advancements to help increase theoretical maximum wireless speeds for the spec to 6.93 Gbps.

802.11ad — 802.11ad is a wireless specification under development that will operate in the 60GHz frequency band and offer much higher transfer rates than previous 802.11 specs, with a theoretical maximum transfer rate of up to 7Gbps (Gigabits per second).

802.11ah— Also known as Wi-Fi HaLow, 802.11ah is the first Wi-Fi specification to operate in frequency bands below one gigahertz (900 MHz), and it has a range of nearly twice that of other Wi-Fi technologies. It's also able to penetrate walls and other barriers considerably better than previous Wi-Fi standards.

802.11r - 802.11r, also called Fast Basic Service Set (BSS) Transition, supports VoWi-Fi handoff between access points to enable VoIP roaming on a Wi-Fi network with 802.1X authentication.

802.1X — Not to be confused with 802.11x (which is the term used to describe the family of 802.11 standards) 802.1X is an IEEE standard for port-based Network Access Control that allows network administrators to restricted use of IEEE 802 LAN service access points to secure communication between authenticated and authorized devices.
Question 50
Which of the following address is used to deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host?
A
Logical
B
Physical
C
IP
D
Port
       Computer-Networks       Transport-layer-Protocol
Question 50 Explanation: 
An Internet Protocol address (IP address) is a numerical label assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication.An IP address serves two principal functions: host or network interface identification and location addressing.

Logical Address:
A logical address is the address at which an item (memory cell, storage element, network host) appears to reside from the perspective of an executing application program.
Physical address: Each system having a NIC(Network Interface Card) through which two systems physically connected with each other with cables. The address of the NIC is called Physical address or mac address. This is specified by the manufacturer company of the card. This address is used by data link layer.
Port Address: There are many application running on the computer. Each application run with a port no.(logically) on the computer. This port no. for application is decided by the Kernel of the OS. This port no. is called port address.
Question 51
Ten signals, each requiring 3000Hz, are multiplexed on to a single channel using FDM. What is the minimum bandwidth required for the multiplexed channel? Assume that the guard bands are 300 Hz wide.
A
30,000
B
30,300
C
32,700
D
33,000
       Computer-Networks       FDM
Question 51 Explanation: 
Ch1 - gb -ch2-gb-ch3-gb-ch4-gb-ch5-gb-ch6-gb-ch7-gb-ch8-gb-ch9-gb-ch10. Where Ch represents channel and gb means guard bands.
There are total 10 channels and 9 guard bands.Each guard band is 300Hz wide 9 guard band occupies 2700 hz.
10 channels occupies 30000 hz.
So total bandwidth is 32700.
Question 52
The _____ measures the relative strengths of two signals or a signal at two different points
A
frequency
B
decibel
C
Attenuation
D
throughput
       Data-Communication       Signal
Question 52 Explanation: 
Decibel (dB), unit for expressing the ratio between two physical quantities, usually amounts of acoustic or electric power, or for measuring the relative loudness of sounds. One decibel (0.1 bel) equals 10 times the common logarithm of the power ratio
Question 53
Which of the following TCP ports are used by File Transfer Protocol(FTP)?
A
20 and 21
B
20 and 23
C
21 and 25
D
23 and 25
       Computer-Networks       OSI-TCP-layers
Question 53 Explanation: 

Question 54
Consider the relation Emp_Dept with SSn as key

Following operations are performed:
a.Insert a record of department with no employee
b.Delete the last employee of the department
c.Update the department name for department #5
Which of the following will lead to complete loss of information about a department?
A
Only b
B
Only c
C
a and b
D
b and c
       Database-Management-System       Relational Schema
Question 54 Explanation: 
→If we delete one employee details means the department details of particular employee is not available. So statement b is correct.
→With inserting and updating operations there is no loss of department information
Question 55
Which of the statements are true about functional dependency X→ Y in relation R? a.Whenever two tuples t1 and t2 in R have t1(X)=t2(X) then t1(Y)=t2(Y) b.Whenever two tuples t1 and t2 in R have t1(Y)=t2(Y) then t1(X)=t2(X)
A
a and b
B
Only a
C
Only b
D
Neither a nor b
       Database-Management-System       Functional-Dependency
Question 55 Explanation: 
→Functional dependency is a relationship that exists when one attribute uniquely determines another attribute.
→If R is a relation with attributes X and Y, a functional dependency between the attributes is represented as X→Y, which specifies Y is functionally dependent on X. Here X is a determinant set and Y is a dependent attribute. Each value of X is associated with precisely one Y value.
Question 56
____ is logical design of a database, while____is snapshot of data in the database at a point in time.
A
Database schema, database instance
B
Database relation,attribute
C
Attribute domain, attribute value
D
Database schema, attribute domain
       Database-Management-System       Relational Schema
Question 56 Explanation: 
→A database schema is the skeleton structure that represents the logical view of the entire database. It defines how the data is organized and how the relations among them are associated. It formulates all the constraints that are to be applied on the data.
→The environment of database is said to be instance. A database instance or an ‘instance’ is made up of the background processes needed by the database software. These processes usually include a process monitor, session monitor, lock monitor, etc.
→A database instance (Server) is a set of memory structure and background processes that access a set of database files.
Question 57
Real life constraints on the relational schema can be specified by
A
Functional dependency
B
Domain Integrity rules
C
Referential Integrity rules
D
Entity Integrity rules
       Database-Management-System       Constraints
Question 57 Explanation: 
→A relation is nothing but a table of values. Every row in the table represents a collection of related data values.
→These rows in the table denote a real-world entity or relationship.
→Functional dependency is a relationship that exists when one attribute uniquely determines another attribute.
Question 58
Given the following two statements about SQL:
a) An SQL query can contain HAVING clause only if it has GROUP BY clause
b) Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT clause
Which of the following is correct?
A
Both a and b are true
B
Both a and b are false
C
a is true, b is false
D
b is true, a is false
       Database-Management-System       SQL
Question 58 Explanation: 
The SQL GROUP BY clause is used in collaboration with the SELECT statement to arrange identical data into groups. This GROUP BY clause follows the WHERE clause in a SELECT statement and precedes the ORDER BY clause. The attributes used in GROUP BY clause must present in SELECT statement.
The HAVING Clause enables you to specify conditions that filter which group results appear in the results. The WHERE clause places conditions on the selected columns, whereas the HAVING clause places conditions on groups created by the GROUP BY clause. So, we cannot use HAVING clause without GROUP BY clause.
Question 59
SQL automatically does not eliminate duplicate tuples in the results of queries because
a) In aggregation function duplicates are useful
b) Duplicate elimination is expensive
c) memory chips are cheap and large these days, and can accommodate large number of tuples
Which of the following is/are correct?
A
a and b
B
b and c
C
Only b
D
Only c
       Database-Management-System       SQL
Question 59 Explanation: 
→In order to perform aggregate operations , we need to consider duplicate values also.
→Removing duplication tuple is costly operation in which we need to access all the tuples in order to find the duplicate tuples.
Question 60
Consider the database state for the two tables given below:

SQL query- INSERT INTO DEPT(Dname,Dnum,Mgr_SSn) VALUES (Dept2,3,Mgr3)
Is rejected because of
A
Duplication of department name
B
Incorrect Mgr_SSN
C
Violation of referential Integrity
D
Violation of entity integrity
       Database-Management-System       SQL
Question 60 Explanation: 
→Dnum is common field of two tables which may be foreign key.
→Inserting new row in the first table gives some null entries in the second table which is violation of referential integrity
Question 61
Consider the following statements:
a) DBA uses ‘grant’ statement to confer authentication
b) Privileges granted to ‘public’ are granted only to current users.
c) Privileges granted to a user cannot be passed on to other users
Which of the following is the correct option?
A
Only a is correct
B
Both a and b are correct
C
Both a and c are correct
D
All a,b,c are correct
       Operating-Systems       System-Calls
Question 61 Explanation: 
Authorization includes primarily two processes:
→Permitting only certain users to access, process, or alter data
→Applying varying limitations on user access or actions
A privilege is a right to execute a particular type of SQL statement or to access another user's object. Some examples of privileges include the right to:
→Connect to the database (create a session)
→Create a table
→Select rows from another user's table
→Execute another user's stored procedure
You grant privileges to users so these users can accomplish tasks required for their jobs. You should grant a privilege only to a user who requires that privilege to accomplish the necessary work
System Privileges
A system privilege is the right to perform a particular action, or to perform an action on any schema objects of a particular type
Question 62
Arrange the following in the order of decreasing access time:
A
Disk,tape,Cache,RAM
B
tape,Disk,RAM,Cache
C
Cache,RAM,Disk,tape
D
tape,Disk,cache,RAM
       Computer-Organization       Hardware Devices
Question 62 Explanation: 
→Access time is the time from the start of one storage device access to the time when the next access can be started.
→Tape has quite a long latency for random accesses since the deck must wind an average of one-third the tape length to move from one arbitrary data block to another
→ Access time to a hard disk or CD-ROM is usually measured in milliseconds.
→ Access time to RAM is usually measured in nanoseconds.
→The access time of Cache is very less compared to remaining .
Question 63
An application programmer prefers using application programming interfaces rather than invoking system calls. Which of the following is NOT the correct reason for his preference?
A
APIs execute faster than system calls
B
APIs are easy to use
C
Use of APIs makes the program portable
D
APIs can potentially improve readability of the code
       Operating-Systems       API
Question 64
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
A
Non Maskable interrupts are reserved for unrecoverable memory error
B
Vectored interrupt mechanism reduces the need for searching all possible sources of interrupt
C
Priority interrupt mechanism enables preemption of high priority interrupt
D
System calls are implemented using software interrupts
       Computer-Organization       Interruption
Question 64 Explanation: 
→Priority Interrupt are systems, that establishes a Priority over the various sources(interrupt devices) to determine which condition is to be serviced first when two or more requests arrive simultaneously.
→This system may also determine which condition are permitted to interrupt to the computer while another interrupt is being serviced.
Question 65
Three processes are scheduled for execution.
Arrival times and time units required for execution are given below:

Which of the following is the correct completion order if RR scheduling algorithm is used with time quantum of 2 units?
A
P1,P2,P3
B
P1,P3,P2
C
P3,P1,P2
D
P2,P1,P3
       Operating-Systems       Process-Scheduling
Question 65 Explanation: 
The gantt chart of the above RR scheduling algorithm is

The completion of order of processes are P1,P3,P2
Question 66
Consider a pair of producer consumer process, sharing the following variables:
int n;
Semaphore M=1;
Semaphore E=n; /*size of buffer*/
Semaphore F=0;
The consumer process must execute ____ and _____ after removing an item from the buffer.
A
wait(M), signal(E)
B
signal(E),signal(M)
C
signal(M),signal(E)
D
signal(E),wait(M)
       Operating-Systems       Process-Synchronization
Question 66 Explanation: 
→Two standard operations, wait and signal are defined on the semaphore.
→Entry to the critical section is controlled by the wait operation and exit from a critical region is taken care by signal operation.
→The manipulation of semaphore (S) takes place as following:
→The wait command P(S) decrements the semaphore value by 1. If the resulting value becomes negative then P command is delayed until the condition is satisfied.
→The V(S) i.e. signals operation increments the semaphore value by 1.
→The wait, signal operations are also called P and V operations.
Question 67
First fit and best fit strategies for memory allocation suffer from ____ and _____ fragmentation, respectively.
A
Internal,internal
B
Internal,external
C
External,external
D
external,internal
       Operating-Systems       Memory-Management
Question 67 Explanation: 
→Internal fragmentation is the wasted space within each allocated block because of rounding up from the actual requested allocation to the allocation granularity.
→External fragmentation is the various free spaced holes that are generated in either your memory or disk space.
→Both the first-fit and best-fit strategies for memory allocation suffer from external fragmentation. As the processes are loaded and removed from memory, the free memory space is broken into little pieces.
→ External fragmentation exists when there is enough total memory space to satisfy a request, but the available spaces are not contiguous.
Question 68
Consider a hard disk of capacity 1 TB, and block size 1 KB. If the free space list is maintained as a bitmap, then the size of the bit vector is
A
1012 bits
B
109 bits
C
106 bits
D
103 bits
       Operating-Systems       File system-I/O-protection
Question 68 Explanation: 
1 Byte = 8 bits
1 KB=1024B(103)
1MB=1024KB(106)
1GB=1024MB(109)
1TB=1024GB(1012)

Size of the bit vector is 1 TB/1 kKB=1012/ 103=109bits
Question 69
Degree of multiprogramming is controlled by
A
Medium term scheduler
B
Long term scheduler
C
Number of schedulers in process management module
D
CPU scheduler
       Operating-Systems       Process-State-Transition-Diagram
Question 69 Explanation: 
→Long Term Scheduler. It is also called a jobscheduler.
→A long-term scheduler determines which programs are admitted to the system for processing. It selects processes from the queue and loads them into memory for execution.
→The primary objective of the job scheduler is to provide a balanced mix of jobs, such as I/O bound and processor bound. It also controls the degree of multiprogramming.
Question 70
Given the array: 12,40,3,2 and intermediate states of the array while sorting
Stage (i) 12,3,40,2
Stage (ii) 12,3,2,40
Stage (iii) 3,12,2,40
Stage (iv) 3,2,12,40
Stage (v) 2,3,12,40
The array has been sorted using
A
Insertion sort
B
Selection sort
C
Quick sort
D
Bubble sort
       Algorithms       Sorting
Question 70 Explanation: 
→In the bubble sort, We will compare the two adjacent elements and swap the elements if first element is large.
→The above stages Bubble sort First Pass/ iteration steps.
→In the bubble sort, after completion the largest element gets last position.
Question 71
Array A[8,15] is sorted in row major order with first element A[1,1] stored at location A0. Assuming that each element of the array is size of size s, element A[i,j] can be accessed at
A
A0 + 15s(i-1)+(j-1)
B
A0 + 8s(i-1)+(j-1)
C
A0 + 15s(j-1)+(i-1)
D
A0 + 8s(j-1)+(i-1)
       Data-Structures       Arrays
Question 71 Explanation: 
The element A[i,j] can be accessed by using the following formulae
A[i,j]=Base address+ j*sizeof the array(i-1)+(j-1)
Question 72
A and B are two sorted lists of integers such that A[n]<B[1]. An element is to be searched in both lists. Maximum number of comparisons using binary search is
A
2*log2 n
B
log2 2n
C
log2 (2n+1)
D
2*log2 n+1
       Algorithms       Searching
Question 72 Explanation: 
In general, if N is the size of the list to be searched and C is the number of comparisons to do so in the worst case, C = log2N. In the question two sorted list of elements with the condition A[n]22N
Question 73
Consider a single dimension array A[n], which houses two stacks as shown in the figures. A[1] is the bottom of stack A and A[n] is the bottom of stack B.

If nA is the number of elements in stack A and nB is the number of elements in stack B, then overflow occurs when Push Operation is performed on either stack and
A
nA=nB
B
nA=nB=n
C
nA+nB=n
D
nA+nB>=n
       Data-Structures       Queues-and-Stacks
Question 73 Explanation: 
→nA is the number of elements in stack A and nB is the number of elements in stack B, Where “n” is total elements we can insert into stack.
→The sum of the nA and nB is equal to the number of elements there is no possibility of inserting element into stack.
Question 74
Translation of infix string a+b*c-d/e*h to postfix form is
A
abc*+deh/*-
B
ab+c*de/h*-
C
(a b c*)+(de/h*-)
D
abc*+de/h*-
       Data-Structures       Queues-and-Stacks
Question 74 Explanation: 
The infix string a+b*c-d/e*h.
=a+[bc*]-d/e*h // Select highest priority operators and convert into postfix form,If same priority then go for associativity
=a+[bc*]-[de/]*h
=a+[bc*]-[de/h*]
=[abc*+]-[de/h*]
=abc*+de/h*-
Question 75
Queue is an appropriate data structures for
a) Implementation breadth first search
b) Implementation depth first search
c) Process scheduling
Which of the following is the correct option?
A
a and b
B
a and c
C
b and c
D
a,b and c
       Data-Structures       Queues-and-Stacks
Question 75 Explanation: 
→Various Queues like Ready queue,Job Queue , Waiting Queue and so on are used in the operating system for process scheduling.
→Queue is also used for Breadth first traversal also
Question 76
A full binary tree with height h has _____ nodes.(Assume leaves at h=0)
A
2h-1
B
2h+1
C
2h+1-1
D
2h+1+1
       Data-Structures       Binary-Trees
Question 76 Explanation: 
→A full binary tree (sometimes proper binary tree or 2-tree) is a tree in which every node other than the leaves has two children.
→The height of the binary tree is the longest path from root node to any leaf node in the tree
Question 77
A complete n-ary tree is one in which every node has 0 or n children. If there are x internal nodes in a complete n-ary tree, the number of leaves is
A
(n-1)x+1
B
(n-1)x-1
C
nx+1
D
nx-1
       Data-Structures       Trees
Question 77 Explanation: 
Consider binary tree with two children.
Then n value is 2 and internal node is 1 then the number of leaves are (2-1)1+1=2 leaves.
Question 78
Given m and n as pointers to two linked lists, what does the following functions do? Void op(node *m,node *n) { Node *p=m; while(P→ next !=null) { P=P→ next; } P→ next=n; }
A
Always appends list ‘m’ at the end of list ‘n’
B
Always appends list ‘n’ at the end of list ‘m’
C
Append list ‘m’ at the end of list ‘n’ with possibility of error
D
Appends list ‘n’ at the end of list ‘m’ with possibility of error
       Data-Structures       Linked-List
Question 78 Explanation: 
→The while loop will traverse the at the end of the list “m” and this is appended to the link list “n”.
→Non-availability of the any one of the linked list leads to possibility of error.
Question 79
Given a tree with k nodes, the sum of degrees of all nodes is
A
2k-1
B
2*(k-1)
C
2k+1
D
2((k+1)
       Data-Structures       Trees
Question 79 Explanation: 
The number of edges in tree with “k” nodes are K-1..
According to the handshaking lemma , the sum of the degree is 2* number of edges So the option B is suitable one.
Question 80
Given the following resource graph:

Which of the following is indicated?
A
Cycle and deadlock
B
Cycle but no deadlock
C
Cycle but no deadlock
D
Neither cycle nor deadlock
       Operating-Systems       Deadlock
Question 80 Explanation: 
The nodes P2,R3,P3 and R3 form a cycle.The resource R3 has two instances out of which one is requested by P2 and one is held by P1.The process P3 is waiting for the resource R3.
If there is a cycle in the Resource Allocation Graph and each resource in the cycle provides only one instance, then the processes will deadlock
There are 80 questions to complete.