## APPSC-2016-DL-CS

 Question 1
The minimum number of edges of a graph containing n vertices and c connected components is
 A n-c B c C c(n-1) D n/c
Engineering-Mathematics       Graph-Theory
Question 1 Explanation:
We have to find a minimum no. of edges. So for c connected components let's assume c-1 independent vertices which are also c-1 components and remaining 1 component will contain n-(c-1) vertices or n-c+1 vertices. So for minimum no. of edges will be no. of vertices in the single component (which contains n-c+1 vertices) -1, which is (n-c+1)-1 = n-c
 Question 2
In first order predicate logic, ∼∀x P(x) is equivalent to Options:
 A ∼∃x P(x) B ∃x ∼P(x) C ∀x ∼P(x) D the given expression is not a well formed
Engineering-Mathematics       Propositional-Logic
Question 2 Explanation:
∼∀x P(x) = ∃x ∼P(x)
 Question 3
How many different 6-member committees can be formed from 6 men and 4 women with a restriction that each committee should include an equal number of men and women
 A 120 B 80 C 420 D 6045
Engineering-Mathematics       Combinatorics
Question 3 Explanation:
Given data,
Committee members=6,
Mens=6
Women=4
Equal numbers of men and women are= ?
3 men out of 6, 3 women out of 4
6C3 * 4C3 ways
⇒ 20 * 4
⇒ 80
Note: There are 3 possibilities to consider an equal number of men and women.
Choose 4 men and 4 women then we get 6C4 * 4C4 ways = 15
Choose 2 men and 2 women then we get 6C2 * 4C2 ways = 90
Choose 3 men and 3 women then we get 6C3 * 4C3 ways = 80
 Question 4
Consider 4-character long codes generated by using an alphabet consisting of 8-characters with no restriction on the number of repetitions of a character in a code. How many codes at least one character repeated?
 A 2416 B 6720 C 1680 D 4096
Engineering-Mathematics       Combinatorics
 Question 5
How many distinct Boolean functions can be formed from ‘n’ Boolean variables?
 A n2 B 2n2 C 2n D 2 to the power of 2n
Digital-Logic-Design       Boolean-Function
Question 5 Explanation:
Each “boolean” variable has two possible values i.e 0 and 1.
Number of variables= n
Number of input combinations is 2n.
Each “boolean” function has two possible outputs i.e 0 and 1.
Number of boolean functions possible is 22^n.
Formula: The number of m-ary functions possible with n k-ary variables is mk^n.
 Question 6
In order for a function to be invertible, it should be _______
 A one-one B onto C both one-one and onto D into
Engineering-Mathematics       Calculus
Question 6 Explanation:
A function is invertible if and only if it is both one-one and onto.
 Question 7
What is the maximum value of the function f(x)=x2-3x+5 in the internal [0,5]?
 A 15 B 5 C 3 D 9
Engineering-Mathematics       Calculus
Question 7 Explanation:
 Question 8
In an IT company, given that the probability of finding an employee with programming skills is 0.7, documentation skills is 0.6, and if the probability of finding an employee with either of the skills is 0.9, then what is the probability of finding an employee with both the skills?
 A 0.42 B 0.5 C 0.4 D 0.8
Engineering-Mathematics       Probability
Question 8 Explanation:
Let A = probability of finding an employee with programming skills
Let B = probability of finding an employee with documentation skill
So A=0.7
B=0.6
AUB=0.9
Hence ,A∩B = A + B - (AUB)
= 0.7+0.6-0.9
= 0.4
 Question 9
Let A, B and C are finite sets. Which of the following options is TRUE, if X=((A∩B)-(B∩C)) and Y=(A-(A∩C))-(A-B)?
 A X⊂Y B X⊃Y C X=Y D X-Y≠φ and Y-X≠φ
Engineering-Mathematics       Set-Theory
Question 9 Explanation:

Now,
x=((AB)-(BC))
=(b,c)-(e,f))
=b
y=(A-(AC))-(A-B)
=((a,b,d,e)-(d,e))-(a,d)
=(a,b)-(a,d)
=b
Hence, x=y
 Question 10
Which of the following options is TRUE with regard to a relation R defined on ordered pairs of integers as given below: (x,y) R (low,up) if x>low and y<up?
 A R is totally ordered B R is partially ordered but not totally ordered C R is an equivalence relation D R is neither partially ordered nor an equivalence relation
Engineering-Mathematics       Sets-And-Relation
Question 10 Explanation:
If a relation is equivalence then it must be
i) Symmetric
ii) Reflexive
iii) Transitive
If a relation is a partial order relation then it must be
i) Reflexive
ii) Anti-symmetric
iii) Transitive
If a relation is total order relation then it must be
i) Reflexive
ii) Symmetric
iii) Transitive
iv) Comparability
Given ordered pairs are (x,y)R(low,up) if (x,up).
Here < , > are using while using these symbols between (x,y) and (y,up) then they are not satisfy the reflexive relation. If they use (x< =low) and (y >=low) then reflexive relation can satisfies.
So, given relation cannot be an Equivalence. Total order relation or partial order relation.
 Question 11
The Hasse diagram representing a lattice, P when turned upside-down represents the poset, Q. Poset Q is a ______
 A dual of P B Greatest Upper Bound of P C Lattice D dual of P and Lattice
Engineering-Mathematics       Set-Theory
Question 11 Explanation:
The Hasse diagram representing a lattice, P when turned upside-down represents the poset Q which is dual of P and lattice.
 Question 12
A pair of dice is tossed twice. What is the probability of scoring 9 at least in one of the two times?
 A 16/81 B 17/81 C 1/36 D 64/81
Engineering-Mathematics       Probability
Question 12 Explanation:
We will use binomial distribution here.
Total possible outcomes will be 6*6=36
Lets first calculate probability of getting sum as 9. We will get sum as 9 when first dice and second dice will have number (3,6) ,(4,5) ,(5,4) ,(6,3). So total 4 possibility are there out of 36.
So Let probability of getting sum as 9 = P(A) = 4/36 = 1/9
Now
Probability of scoring 9 at least in one of the two times
= Probability of scoring 9 exactly one time + Probability of scoring 9 exactly two times
 Question 13
Which of the following probability distributions is applicable to consider the problem of estimating the probability of exactly two defective items manufactured in an industry in a batch of 20 items, if the probability of manufacture defect is 0.1?
 A Poisson distribution B Binomial distribution C Uniform distribution D Gaussian distribution
Engineering-Mathematics       Probability
Question 13 Explanation:
Binomial distribution will be used. And will be calculated as 20C2 = (0.1)2 (0.9)18
 Question 14
The propositional expression [(∼P∨Q)→(Q→P)] is
 A a tautology B not a tautology C contradiction D not a well-formed formula
Engineering-Mathematics       Propositional-Logic
Question 14 Explanation:
 Question 15
The maximum number of non-zero elements of a n×n matrix whose [i,j]th element is equal to 0 for all i<j is
 A n(n-1)/2 B n(n+1)/2 C n2 D n
Engineering-Mathematics       Linear-Algebra
Question 15 Explanation:
From given description we can conclude that all the elements above the diagonal are 0. So we can say that,
1st row will have 1 non-zero element,
2nd row will have 2 non zero elements,
3rd row will have 3 non-zero elements ,
:
:
:
nth row will contain n non-zero elements.

Therefore total no. of non-zero elements are,
1+2+3+...........+n = n(n+1)/2
 Question 16
At a given moment a queue contains stored in it. If the capacity of the queue is 6 then which of the following sequence of operations results in a modified queue contents?
 A delete a, b; and insert e,a,f; B insert e,a,f and delete a,b C insert e, delete b and insert f D insert e,f, move a to place it between e and f, then delete b
Data-Structures       Queues-and-Stacks
 Question 17
The value of the postfix expression abc*de+/- where a=20, b=3, c=4, d=1 and e=5 is
 A 134 B -22 C 48 D 18
Data-Structures       Prefix-Postfix-Expression
Question 17 Explanation:
Here we will start traversing the expression from left to right and if an operand is encountered then it will be pushed on the top of stack and if an operator is encountered then top two elements will be popped off from the top of stack and current operator is applied on those two operands and then in the end the result of operation will be pushed back on the top of stack. This procedure continues till the whole expression is traversed.

Step: 7
Hence option 4 is the correct answer.
 Question 18
Consider optimal implementation of two stacks growing in opposite directions in a single array A[n]. If t1 and t2 denote the stack pointers, which of the following, checks for stack full condition?
 A t2=(n-1) or t1=(n-1) B t1=n/2 or t2=(n-1) C t1=0 and t2=(n-1) D t2=t1+1
Data-Structures       Arrays
Question 18 Explanation:
 Question 19
Which of the following types of the linked list is fastest to delete a node pointed by ‘p’ from a large collection of nodes constituting the list?
Question 19 Explanation:
Worst case of deleting a node from a linked list is when we are on the last node of the list and we want to delete (n-1)th node from the list. In this case above lists will have the following time complexity:
Doubly linked list: Since it is doubly linked list so last node will have pointer to its previous node(i.e “n-1” ) node. So (n-1)th node can be deleted in O(1) time. Single Linked List: Since in this no node have a pointer to its previous node so even if we have a pointer on last node of the list we have to traverse (n-1) nodes of the given linked list in order to delete (n-1)th node. Hence its time complexity will be O(n). singly linked circular list: For above scenario since the list is unidirect so we have to traverse (n-1) elements in best case in order to delete (n-1)th node even after having a pointer to nth node.
singly linked list with header node is nothing but Single linked list only. So its time complexity will also be O(n).
Hence Doubly linked list is giving best time complexity to delete a node pointed by ‘p’ from a large collection of nodes constituting the list.
 Question 20
Singly linked circular list with header pointing to the last node is the data structure preferred in the context of
 A insertion of a node at a position ‘p’ B deletion of a node pointed by ‘p’ C reversing the order of the nodes in the list D concatenating two lists into one list
Question 20 Explanation:
Singly linked circular list with header pointing to the last node is the data structure preferred in the context of concatenating two lists into one list, because it can be done in O(1) time.
 Question 21
If the inorder and preorder sequence of nodes of a binary tree are CABDFEHG and DCBAGEFH respectively, then the post order sequence is
 A ABCDEFGH B HFEGABCD C ABCFHEGD D AFHBECGD
Data-Structures       Binary-Trees
Question 21 Explanation:
Inorder: CABDFEHG
Preorder: DCBAGEFH

Hence, Post-order of above tree will be: ABCFHEGD. Hence, Post-order of above tree will be: ABCFHEGD.
 Question 22
Construct a Max-heap dynamically to accomodate a stream of eight integers, 48,34,68,32,19,25,61,53 as a descending priority queue. The leaf node that is farthest from the root is ______
 A 19 B 68 C 48 D 32
Data-Structures       Heap-Tree
Question 22 Explanation:

 Question 23
Which of the following algorithms is fastest to find shortest path from a source node to a destination node in an un-weighted connected graph?
 A Warshall’s algorithm B Floyd’s algorithm C Breadth First Traversal D Depth First Traversal
Algorithms       Greedy-approach
Question 23 Explanation:
warshall algorithm will take O(n^3) time.
Floyd’s algorithm will take O(n^3) time.
Breadth First traversal will take O(m+n) time.
Depth first traversal will work only if the graph is tree.
Hence among the given options Breadth first traversal is best.
 Question 24
Which of the following algorithms doesn’t require Priority queue for its implementation?
 A Kruskal’s algorithm B Prim’s algorithm C Huffman code generation algorithm D Warshall’s algorithm
Question 24 Explanation:
Kruskal’s ,prims , and huffman code generation algorithm require priority queue. But in floyd warshall we use matrix .
 Question 25
Consider a large disk file containing records each of considerable size and an identification key. Which of the following methods is suitable to organize the file for faster access to a record given its key?
 A Apply Keysorting and maintain an index to the randomly ordered disk file B Sort the records of the disk file using Merge sort C Sort the records of the disk file using Quick sort D Apply keysorting and accordingly sort the records of the disk file
Question 25 Explanation:
Using Primary key indexing all records can be accessed faster.Primary key indexing is based on a key attribute where all the elements of key attribute are arranged in sorted manner.
 Question 26
Which of the following is preferred to organize very large indexed sequential access disk files for both interactive random access and co-sequential batch processing of its records?
 A Hashing B B-Trees C Simple Index D B+ Trees
Database-Management-System       B-and-B+-Trees
Question 26 Explanation:
B-tree and B+ Tree are suitable to organize very large indexed sequential access disk files for interactive random access but since in B+ tree each leaf node have a pointer to its next leaf node then it makes the access of co-sequential batch processing of its records easier.
 Question 27
Which of the following probability distribution functions is used to predict the number of collisions in terms of packing density of a Hash table?
 A Gaussian distribution B Poisson distribution C Uniform distribution D Binomial distribution
Engineering-Mathematics       Probability
 Question 28
The best case time complexity of insertion sort algorithms is ______
 A O(n) B O(1) C O(n2) D O(n log n)
Algorithms       Sorting
Question 28 Explanation:
The best case of insertion sort is when all the elements given in array are already sorted. In that case when insertion sort is applied only one comparison is made for each element of the array. Hence if we have n-elements the n-comparisons will be made. Hence the time complexity will be O(n)
 Question 29
Which of the following is NOT used for time complexity estimation of an algorithm?
 A L Hospital Rule B Method of Backward Substitution C Master’s theorem D Composite Trapezoidal Rule
Algorithms       Time-Complexity
Question 29 Explanation:
L hospitals Rule, method of back ward substitution and masters theorem is used for time complexity estimation of an algorithm . But Composite trapezoidal rule gives us a technique to approximate the integral on a given interval [a, b] and not used for time complexity estimation of an algorithm.
 Question 30
Which type of algorithm design strategy is used in Quick-hull algorithm to find the smallest convex polygon that contains ‘n’ given points in a plane?
 A Greedy Approach B Divide and Conquer approach C Dynamic programming D Transform and Conquer approach
Question 30 Explanation:
The QuickHull algorithm is a Divide and Conquer algorithm similar to QuickSort.
 Question 31
Applying Gaussian Elimination method for solving linear equations isDynamic programming an example of ______
 A Dynamic programming B Greedy approach C Transform and Conquer approach D Divide and Conquer approach
Question 31 Explanation:
Gaussian elimination method is transform and conquer approach.This algorithm solves a system of linear equations by first transforming it to another system with a special property that makes finding a solution quite easy.
 Question 32
Time complexity of an algorithm whose recurrence equation is T(n)=4T(n/2)+n2 and T(1)=1 is expressed as ______
 A O(n2) B O(n2 log n) C O(n3) D O(n log n)
Algorithms       Recurrences
Question 32 Explanation:
 Question 33
Twice-around the spanning tree algorithm for solving the Travelling Salesman Problem with Euclidean distances is a ______
 A 2-approximation algorithm B 1.5 approximation algorithm C 1.25 approximation algorithm D 2.5 approximation algorithm
 Question 34
Which of the following problems belong to the class of NP-Complete problems?
 A Knapsack Problem B Hamiltonian Circuit problem C Eulerian Circuit Problem D Graph Coloring problem
Algorithms       P-NP
Question 34 Explanation:
NP Problem: Each input to the problem should be associated with a set of solutions of polynomial length, whose validity can be tested in polynomial time. The complexity class of problems of this form is called NP, an abbreviation for "nondeterministic polynomial time".
NP-Hard: A problem is said to be NP-hard if everything in NP can be transformed in polynomial time into it.
A problem is NP-complete if it is both in NP and NP-hard. The NP-complete problems represent the hardest problems in NP.
The list below contains some well-known problems that are NP-complete when expressed as decision problems.
Boolean satisfiability problem (SAT)
Knapsack problem
Hamiltonian path problem
Travelling salesman problem (decision version)
Subgraph isomorphism problem
Subset sum problem
Clique problem
Vertex cover problem
Independent set problem
Dominating set problem
Graph coloring problem
 Question 35
Which of the following sorting algorithms does in-place sorting with minimal space overhead?
 A Merge sort B Radix sort C Heap sort D Address Calculation Sort
Algorithms       Sorting
Question 35 Explanation:
In-Place sorting algorithm is one which requires only O(1) space in order to sort n-elements.
Merge sort has space complexity of O(n). Hence it is not an in-place sorting algorithm.
 Question 36
The principle of replacing a function irrespective of the context is called ______
 A Static binding B referential transparency C orthogonality D locality of reference
 Question 37
Which of the following predicate expressions represent the statement “None of the Students have failed in the test”?
 A ∼∃x(Student(x)∧∼Failed(x)) B ∼∀x(∼Student(x)∧∼Failed(x)) C ∀x(∼Student(x)∧FAiled(x)) D ∼∃x(Student(x)∧Failed(x))
Engineering-Mathematics       Propositional-Logic
 Question 38
The left hand side of an assignment statement should have ______
 A r-value B l-value C both r-value and l-value D either r-value or l-value
 Question 39

What will be the final value of variable ‘A’ after executing the following pseudo code fragment?

A=-6

B=10

If (A>B) then if(A<0) then A=A*B

Else A=2*A
 A 36 B -12 C -6 D 10
Programming       if-else
 Question 40
The high level computer language PROLOG is categorized as ______
 A Functional language B Object oriented language C Logic programming Language D Scripting language
Question 40 Explanation:
Prolog is a logic programming language associated with artificial intelligence and computational linguistics. Prolog has its roots in first-order logic, a formal logic. Prolog is well-suited for specific tasks that benefit from rule-based logical queries such as searching databases, voice control systems, and filling templates.
 Question 41
Consider a language with following operations for string manipulation: car(s) returns the first character of string ‘s’. cdr(s) returns the suffix of ‘s’ excluding the first character. concat(s1,s2) returns the concatenation of s1 and s1. Which of the following is the output of concat(car(s), car(cdr(s)))) if string s = “PQRS”?
 A PR B PRS C RSP D PQ
Question 41 Explanation:
concat(car(s), car(cdr(s)))
car(PQRS) = P
cdr(PQRS) = QRS
car(cdr(s)) = car(QRS) = Q
concat(P,Q) = PQ
 Question 42

What is printed by the following C program segment?

int a=40, b=25;

printf(“%d”, a=b);
 A 25 B 40 C 0 D Error message
Programming       C-Programming
Question 42 Explanation:
At first the a=b assignment will be done, due to which the value of ‘a’ will become 25 . and then value of ‘a’ will be printed which is 25.
 Question 43
Which combination of the integer variables a, b and c makes the nested conditional expression ((a>b)?((a>c)?a:c):((b>c)?b:c)) evaluated to a value 10?
 A a=6, b=12, c=10 B a=12, b=10, c=6 C a=6, b=10, c=8 D a=12, b=8, c=6
Programming       conditional-statement
Question 43 Explanation:
Option A: ((6>12)?((6>10)?6:10):((12>10)?12:10)) Outputs 12.
Option B: ((12>10)?((12>6)?12:6):((10>6)?10:6)) outputs 12.
Option C: ((6>10)?((6>8)?6:8):((10>8)?10:8)) outputs 10
Option D: ((12>8)?((12>6)?12:6):((8>6)?8:6)) outputs 12.
Note: Highlighted statements are executed for that particular option.
 Question 44

Consider the following declaration statement followed by the two assignment statement in ‘C’. What will be printed by this code segment?

int a, *b=&a, **c=&b;

a=14;

**c=20;

printf (“%d”, a);
 A prints 14 B prints 20 C prints the address of b D 34
Programming       C-Programming
Question 44 Explanation:

where 100 is address of ‘a’ and 200 is address of ‘b’.
**c makes the value of a as “20”.
Hence “Printf” statement prints “20”.
 Question 45
Which of the following is NOT a type of constructor
 A Copy constructor B Friend constructor C Default constructor D Parameterized constructor
OOPS       Constructors
Question 45 Explanation:
Parameterized constructors: Constructors that can take at least one argument are termed as parameterized constructors. When an object is declared in a parameterized constructor, the initial values have to be passed as arguments to the constructor function.
Default constructors: If the programmer does not supply a constructor for an instantiable class, Java/C++ compiler inserts a default constructor into your code on your behalf. This constructor is known as default constructor.
Copy Constructor: Copy constructors define the actions performed by the compiler when copying class objects. A Copy constructor has one formal parameter that is the type of the class (the parameter may be a reference to an object). It is used to create a copy of an existing object of the same class. Even though both classes are the same, it counts as a conversion constructor.
 Question 46
Which one of the following CAN NOT be a friend
 A function B class C object D operator function
OOPS       Properties
Question 46 Explanation:
The function is not in the scope of the class to which it has been declared as a friend. It cannot be called using the object as it is not in the scope of that class. It can be invoked like a normal function without using the object.
 Question 47
What should be the name of the constructor
 A same as object B same as member C same as class D same as function
OOPS       Constructors
Question 47 Explanation:
Constructor: a constructor (abbreviation: ctor) is a special type of subroutine called to create an object. A constructor resembles an instance method, but it differs from a method in that it has no explicit return type, it is not implicitly inherited and it usually has different rules for scope modifiers. Constructors often have the same name as the declaring class. They have the task of initializing the object's data members
 Question 48

What is the output of the following program:

#include

class sample

{

private int a,b’

public: void test ( )

{

a = 100;

b = 200;

}

friend int compute (sample e1);

};

int compute (sample e1)

{

return int (e1.a + e1.b) - 5;

}

Main ( )

{

Sample e;

e.test( );

Cout < < compute(e);

}
 A 205 B 300 C 295 D error
Programming-in-c++       programming
 Question 49
Which of the following approach is generally adopted by C++ programming.
 A Top-down B Bottom-up C Right-left D Left-right
Programming-in-c++       programming
Question 49 Explanation:
Structure/procedure oriented programming languages like C programming language follows top down approach. Whereas object oriented programming languages like C++ and Java programming language follows bottom up approach.
 Question 50
Which among the following is the correct way of declaring object of a class
 A Classname objectname; B Class classname obj objectname; C Class classname obj objectname; D Classname obj objectname
OOPS       Properties
Question 50 Explanation:
The correct way of declaring object of a class is Classname objectname;
For example ,let there be some class of name Area. So we can declare object of Area class like,
Area A1;
 Question 51
How many objects can be created in a single class?
 A 1 B 2 C 3 D as many as required
OOPS       Properties
Question 51 Explanation:
An object is nothing but an instance of a class. A class can have as many instances as required. There is no restriction on the number of objects a class can have.
 Question 52
Which of this process occur automatically by JAVA run time system?
 A Serialization B Garbage collection C File Filtering D All the given options
OOPS       JAVA
Question 52 Explanation:
Serialization and deserialization occur automatically by java runtime system, Garbage collection also occur automatically but is done by CPU or the operating system not by the java runtime system
 Question 53
The ‘new’ operator in JAVA
 A Returns a pointer to a variable B Creates a variable called new C Obtains memory for a new variable D Tells how much memory is available
OOPS       JAVA
Question 53 Explanation:
“new” operator in java is used to create a new object. And an object is nothing but an instance of a class. Some memory is allocated to each object for its execution. Hence option(C) is the correct answer.
 Question 54
“this” keyword in JAVA is used to
 A Refer to current class object B Refer to static method of the class C Refer to parent class object D Refer to static variable of the class
OOPS       JAVA
Question 54 Explanation:
“this” is a reference variable that refers to the current object of the class.
 Question 55
Which of the following digital components are used for ‘odd’ parity bit generation and checking in the process of transmission error detection?
 A Gates required for parity generation differ from those required for parity checking B Exclusive-OR gates C RS-flipflop D Counters
Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 55 Explanation:
Ex-OR gates generate the output as ‘1’ when there are odd numbers of ‘1’ applied in input. Hence if we want to check odd parity then Ex-OR gates can be used.
 Question 56
How many ‘1’s are there in the result produced by 8-bit 2’s complement addition of 29 and –46?
 A 2 B 7 C 3 D 5
Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 56 Explanation:

 Question 57
The micro-operation that performs division of a signed binary integer by 2 is ---------
 A Logical shift right B Logical shift left C Arithmetic shift right D Arithmetic shift left
Digital-Logic-Design       Number-Systems
Question 57 Explanation:
Division of signed binary integer by 2 is nothing but arithmetic shift right. Similarly ,multiplication of signed binary integer by 2 is nothing but arithmetic shift left.
 Question 58
The number of full and half adders required to add 16 – bit number is
Digital-Logic-Design       Combinational-Circuit
Question 58 Explanation:
 Question 59
The simplified SOP(Sum of Products) form of the boolean expression (P+Q’+R’) (P+Q’+R) (P+Q+R’) is
 A (P’ Q + R) B (P + Q’. R’) C (P’.Q + R) D (P. Q + R)
Digital-Logic-Design       Boolean-Expression
Question 59 Explanation:
 Question 60
Consider the implementation of a Boolean function of ‘n’ variables using only one multiplexer and one inverter. The minimum specification of size of multiplexer required is ____________
 A 2n –input & I -output B 1 –output & 2n output C 2n-1 input & 1 output D 2n+1 input & 1 output
Digital-Logic-Design       Combinational-Circuit
Question 60 Explanation:
The minimum specification of size of multiplexer required is 2^(n-1) input & 1 output in which n-1 variables will be given to n-1 select lines and remaining one variable will be given to input lines.
 Question 61
How many 64Kx1RAM chips are required to provide a memory of size 256K bytes?
 A 8 B 4 C 32 D 64
Digital-Logic-Design       RAM
Question 61 Explanation:
 Question 62
Consider a hard disk containing 1000cylinders, 10 platters each with 2 recording surfaces and 63 sectors per track. What is the position of the sector whose 3-D disk address is 2000,15,55> representing cylinder, surface, sector numbers respectively.
 A 3520 B 253000 C 50600 D 250600
Computer-Organization       Secondary-Memory
Question 62 Explanation:
Here each cylinder has 2 recording surfaces and each surface has 63 sectors. Now 2000 cylinders means required sector have (2000*2*63) sectors + 15 surface means in addition to previous sectors required sector have (15* 63) sectors +55 sectors before itself.
Hence, Position of sector < 2000, 15, 55>
(2000263)+(1563)+55
=252000+945+55
=253000
 Question 63
When a cache memory is 30 times faster than main memory/RAM and cache hit ratio is 90% the speed up gained using the cache is approximately -----------
 A 10 times B 7.7 times C 2.7 times D 27 times
Computer-Organization       Cache
Question 63 Explanation:
 Question 64
The addressing modes used in the machine instruction ADD X, Y is
 A Direct B Indirect C Immediate D Implied addressing
Question 64 Explanation:
in immediate addressing mode in operand part directly operand is given.But in the given machine instruction it is not the case.
More over in indirect addresing mode @X should have been given which is a notation for indirect addressing mode.
In implied addressing mode operand is appended in the opcode itself which is not in the above instruction.
Hence the given instruction is direct addressing mode. In direct addressing mode the address of operand is present in the operand part of instruction.
 Question 65
Which of the following is NOT a method used for data transfer between peripherals and memory?
 A Programmed I / O B Interrupt initiated I / O C Direct Memory Access D Pipelining
Computer-Organization       Data-transfer-modes
Question 65 Explanation:
Programmed I / O, Interrupt initiated I / O, Direct Memory Access are the methods used for data transfer between peripherals and memory but Pipelining is a method to achieve speedup during the execution of instructions.
 Question 66
In asynchronous serial transfer of characters, which of the following ordered pair of bits represents the used as delimiters for every character.
 A 0,1 > B (00,01> C 1,0> D 01,00>
Computer-Organization       Synchronous-and-asynchronous-Communication
 Question 67
Which of the following options needs to be entered in order to add a value 20 to the shell variable, x?
 A \$x=\$x+20 B let x =\$x+20 C let \$x=\$x+20 D \$x+=20
Question 67 Explanation:
Option 2 is the correct notation for the addition of 20 in shell variable x,
Also if we want to add some values which is not constant literals then we will enter it as
x=\$x + \$y
where y is variable holding some value.
 Question 68
Consider the file named ‘file 1’. In order to remove write permission to the owner and grant execute permission to others, which of the following UNIX commands in appropriate?
 A chmod u–w,o+x file 1 B chmod u-w,o-w file 1 C cheperum u-w, o+e file 1 D chmod u-w,o+e file 1
Operating-Systems       UNIX-Operating-System
 Question 69
The effect of executing the UNIX command ‘sort –t /| +1 file 1’ is ------
 A sorts the lines of the file 1 in ascending order and place | as delimiter B sorts the lines of the file 1 in descending order and place | as delimiter C sorts the lines of the file 1 in ascending order after skipping content upto | in each line D sorts the lines of the file 1 in descending order after skipping content upto | in each line
Operating-Systems       UNIX-Operating-System
 Question 70
UNIX command used to compare the successive lines of file 1 with the corresponding lines if file 2 and output a 3-columnar report on lines unique to file 1, file 2 and common to both is ----------------
 A cmp file 1 file 2 B comm. File 1 file 2 C diff file 1 file 2 D comp file 1 file 2
Operating-Systems       UNIX-Operating-System
 Question 71
UNIX command used to compare the successive lines of file 1 with the corresponding lines if file 2 and output a 3-columnar report on lines unique to file 1, file 2 and common to both is ----------------
 A cmp file 1 file 2 B comm. File 1 file 2 C diff file 1 file 2 D comp file 1 file 2
Operating-Systems       UNIX-Operating-System
 Question 72
Which of the following features is the best to support JAVA application development distributed across a network of Java Virtual machines?
 A Remove Method Invocation (RMI) B Remote Procedure Calls (RPC) C Multicast sockets D Remote Method Invocation (RMI) or Remote Procedure Calls (RPC)
OOPS       JAVA
 Question 73
Usage of semaphores for solving critical section problem sometimes result in busy waiting. Which of the following offers an effective remedy to avoid wastage of CPU cycles?
 A spinlock B block and wakeup(p) C atomic operator to- get and set D atomic operator to-swap the contents of two words
Operating-Systems       Process-Synchronization
Question 73 Explanation:
Whenever some process does not able to enter critical section due to mutual exclusion then it is put into blocked state ,due to which CPU time is not wasted and busy wait can be avoided. And if the process comes out of critical section then that process wakes up one of the process from blocked state.
 Question 74
Which of the following strategy is adopted to deal with deadlocks that have occurred in operating system?
 A prevention B avoidance C detection and recovery D ignore the problem
Question 74 Explanation:
Deadlock avoidance and prevention are the techniques used to deal with deadlock before it actually happens But deadlock detection and recovery is a technique used to deal with deadlocks that have already occured in the system.
Ignoring the problem is not a way to deal the deadlocks that have occurred
 Question 75
Which of the following methods is used to control thrashing in demand paging systems?
 A estimating process-wise demand for frames using working set model and limiting the total demand B controlling the page fault frequency within safe range by adjusting degree of multi-programming C Banker’s Algorithm D estimating process-wise demand for frames using working set model and limiting the total demand and controlling the page fault frequency within safe range by adjusting degree of multi-programming but not Banker’s Algorithm
Operating-Systems       Memory-Management
Question 75 Explanation:
Bankers algorithm is a deadlock avoidance scheme and is not used for thrashing. Now thrashing is the situation where more pagefaults occur. So to avoid more pagefaults we should estimate process wise demand for frames using working set model and control the pagefault frequency within safe state range by adjusting degree of multiprogramming.
 Question 76
Which of the file directory structures support effective sharing of files?
 A Two-level directories B Three-structured directories C acyclic graph directories D single –level directories
Operating-Systems       File system-I/O-protection
 Question 77
Which of the following is solution for external fragmentation of disk space during contiguous file allocation?
 A Dynamic storage allocation B Disk space compaction C File Allocation Table D garbage collection
Operating-Systems       Memory-Management
Question 77 Explanation:
solution of external fragmentation is disk space compaction. In compaction method we combine all the small holes at different places to make a big hole.
 Question 78
The above table depicts the CPU burst times required for the processes P1, P2, P3 and P4 which are in ready queue at a given moment. What is the average waiting time resulted with priority scheduling of CPU giving highest priority to level-1?
 Process ID Priority level CPU Burst time P1 2 10 P2 3 8 P3 1 12 P4 4 5
 A 16 B 24.75 C 18 D 25
Operating-Systems       Process-Scheduling
Question 78 Explanation:
 Question 79
Which of the following can be used to prevent improper authentication due to password exposure?
 A Trapdoor B One-Time Password C Trojan Horse D Anti-virus software
 Question 80
Which of the following page replacement algorithms results in minimum page fault frequency for a given number of frames?
 A LRU page replacement B FIFO page replacement C Optimal page replacement D Enhanced second chance algorithm
Operating-Systems       Page-Replacement-algorithm
Question 80 Explanation:
Optimal page replacement algorithm results in minimum page fault frequency because in this algorithm, OS replaces the page that will not be used for the longest period of time in future.
 Question 81
The network topology with highest reliability is -------------
 A Mesh B Bus C Star D Ring
Computer-Networks       Topologies
Question 81 Explanation:
The topology with highest reliability is mesh topology. ... It is a topology commonly used for wireless network. Mesh topology can handle high amounts of traffic, because multiple devices can transmit data simultaneously. A failure of one device does not cause a break in the network or transmission of data.
 Question 82
In sliding window flow control for network traffic if window size is 31 then the range of sequence numbers is ------------
 A 1 to 32 B 0 to 31 C 1 to 31 D 0 to 30
Computer-Networks       Sliding-Window-Protocol
Question 82 Explanation:
Sender window size given is 31 which requires 31 sequence no.s and also 1 more sequence no. is required for receiver side. Hence in total 32 sequence no. are required. Sequence no. starts with 0. Hence sequence no. range is 0-31.
 Question 83
Repeaters are used in ----------------
 A Data link layer B Physical layer C Network layer D Session layer
Computer-Networks       Hardware-and-various-devices-in-networking
Question 83 Explanation:
Repeaters are used in physical layer because it is just used in the cable to regenerate or replicate a signal.
 Question 84
End to end connectivity is provided from host to host in the ------------
 A Network layer B Transport layer C Session layer D Data link layer
Computer-Networks       TCP/IP
Question 84 Explanation:
Network layer provides host to host connectivity.
Transport layer provide end to end connectivity.
Data link layer provides hop to hop connectivity.
 Question 85
Encryption and decryption of data is performed in ---------------
 A Presentation layer B Physical layer C Data link layer D Session layer
Computer-Networks       OSI-TCP-layers
Question 85 Explanation:
Encryption and Decryption of data is performed in presentation layer.
 Question 86
Which of the following uses UDP as the transport protocol?
 A HTTP B SMTP C DNS D Telnet
Computer-Networks       Transport-layer-Protocol
Question 86 Explanation:
DNS uses UDP as the transport layer protocol because it of type 1 request and 1 reply, in which domain names is translated to IP address.
 Question 87
How many ASCII characters can be transmitted per second over a 2400bps line if the transfer is asynchronous with start and stop bits in addition to parity bit with each character?
 A 300 B 240 C 340 D 2400 E None of the Above
Computer-Organization       Synchronous-and-asynchronous-Communication
Question 87 Explanation:
To transfer 1 character of 8 bit we need
8 bit + 1 start bit + 1 stop bit + 1 parity bit = 11 bit.
Hence no. of characters that can be transmitted per second is = 2400/11 = 218
 Question 88
Which of the following refers to the feature of TCP that upon receiving a packet the receiver hooks the ACK to the next outgoing packet instead of sending ACK as a new packet?
 A piggybacking B multiplexing C bits niffing D dialogue control
Computer-Networks       Types-of-Acknowledgement
Question 88 Explanation:
The feature of TCP that upon receiving a packet the receiver hooks the ACK to the next outgoing packet instead of sending ACK as a new packet is piggybacking.
 Question 89
In the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm, the size of the congestion window -------------
 A doesn’t increase significantly B increases linearly C increases quadratically D increases exponentially
Computer-Networks       TCP-Congestion-Window
Question 89 Explanation:
In slow start phase of TCP congestion control algorithm , the size of the congestion window increases exponentially.
 Question 90
Which of the following is NOT a client server application?
 A ping B Internet chat C web browsing D e-mail
Computer-Networks       Client-Server-Computing
Question 90 Explanation:
A client/server application is a piece of software that runs on a client computer and makes requests to a remote server. Ping is not a client server application. Ping is a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP). In ping, there is no server that provides a service.
 Question 91
Consider the probabilistic random routing for a packet switching network. Which of the following is its advantage over the other non-adaptive routing algorithms?
 A It finds the minimum hop route to destination B It provides good traffic distribution along the links C efficiently responds to traffic congestion and diverts the traffic accordingly D high robust and is used to send emergency messages
Computer-Networks       Routing
 Question 92
Match the following
 P) Waterfall a) Specifications can be developed Incrementally Q) Evolutionary model b) Requirements compromises are inevitable R) Component based model c) Explicitly addressing the problem of Risk during development S) Spiral d) Inflexible partitioning of the Project into stages
 A P-a, Q-b, R-c, S-d B P-d, Q-a, R-b, S-c C P-d, Q-c, R-a, S-b D P-c, Q-a, R-b, S-d
Software-Engineering       Software-process-models
 Question 93
Consider module M, which is a serial integration of two sub-modules, A and B, having cyclomatic complexities of 10 and 8 respectively. What is the cyclomatic complexity of the integrated module M?
 A 19 B 17 C 20 D 22
Software-Engineering       Cyclomatic-metric
 Question 94
Which of the following approaches is generally applied for module design phase while developing new software?
 A Top-down approach B Bottom-up approach C centre fringing D depends on the size of software
Software-Engineering       Software-design
 Question 95
Let various levels of cohesion of software modules be denoted by C,T,S, and F as given below: C: Coincidental F: Functional S: Sequential T: Temporal Which of the following ordered tuples represents correct ordering from weakest to strongest level of cohesion?
 A < T,S,C,F > B < C,T,S,F > C < C,T,F,S > D < C,S,F,T >
Software-Engineering       Coupling-and-Cohesion
 Question 96
Let various levels of cohesion of software modules be denoted by C,T,S, and F as given below: C: Coincidental F: Functional S: Sequential T: Temporal Which of the following ordered tuples represents correct ordering from weakest to strongest level of cohesion?
 A < T,S,C,F > B < C,T,S,F > C < C,T,F,S > D < C,S,F,T >
Software-Engineering       Coupling-and-Cohesion
 Question 97
In the context of Object oriented software design, which of the following consequences of use of inheritance is disadvantageous?
 A Increased coupling between classes B Reusable code development C Supports building class hierarchy D Supports development of classes with less number of arguments and methods
Software-Engineering       Software-design
 Question 98
Which of the following software development process is not necessarily useful for developing software for automating an existing manual system for a client?
 A Prototyping B Iterative enhancement C Spiral model D Waterfall model
Software-Engineering       Software-design
 Question 99
Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a good Software Requirement Specification?
 A completeness B verifiability C modifiability D short size of code
Software-Engineering       Software-requirements
 Question 100
Which of the following is NOT a recognized software project type under COCOMO model?
 A embedded B semidetached C detached D organic
Software-Engineering       COCOMO-Model
 Question 101
In software development, UML, diagrams are used during --------
 A requirements analysis B system/module design C system integration D All the given options
Software-Engineering       Software-Development
 Question 102
Which of the following techniques are used for selection of test cases during structural testing?
 A Data flow based testing B Equivalence class partitioning C Cause-effect graphing D Boundary value analysis
Software-Engineering       Software-testing
 Question 103
Which of the following metric represents the expected life time of a software system?
 A Failure probability B Failure density function C Mean time to failure D Hazard rate
Software-Engineering
 Question 104
Which of the following operations are generally used for transforming plain text to cipher text?
 A substitution B transposition C substitution and transposition D normalization
Computer-Networks       Network-Security
 Question 105
With reference to network security across a packet switching network, which of the following provide the most effective solution?
 A End-to-end encryption B Link encryption C Combination of both link and end-to-end encryption D Either link encryption or end-to-end encryption but not both
Computer-Networks       Network-Security
Question 105 Explanation:
The implementation of encryption in packet-switched networks must ensure that essential addressing information can be accessed by the relevant network devices such as switches, bridges and routers. Encryption is broadly termed link layer encryption or end-to-end encryption depending on whether it is applied and re-applied at each end of each link in a communication path, or whether it is applied over the whole path between end systems.
 Question 106
Consider the sequence of steps involved in the process of using digital signatures for a message in PGP; which of the following steps is WRONGLY presented?
 A SHA-1 is used to generate hash code of message B The hash code is prepended to the message and sent to the receiver C The receiver uses RSA with senders public key to decrypt and recovered code D Receiver generates a new hash code for the message and compares with the recovered code and accept the message as authentic, if only, they match
Computer-Networks       Network-Security
Question 106 Explanation:
Point 2 is wrongly presented. Point 2 should be the hash code is first encrypted and then preoended to the message and sent to the receiver.
 Question 107
Which of the following is a secret – key encryption algorithm?
 A RSA B Diffie-Hellman key exchange C Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) D Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)
Computer-Networks       Network-Security
Question 107 Explanation:
RSA is a public key encryption algorithm.
Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm is not at all a encryption algorithm ,instead it is a key exchange algorithm.
AES is a secret key encryption algorithm.
 Question 108
Which of the following is NOT a type of firewall for network security?
 A Circuit level gateways B Application level gateways C Packet filters D Digital Immune System
Computer-Networks       Network-Security
Question 108 Explanation:
A circuit-level gateway is a type of firewall. Circuit-level gateways work at the session layer of the OSI model, or as a "shim-layer" between the application layer and the transport layer of the TCP/IP stack. They monitor TCP handshaking between packets to determine whether a requested session is legitimate.
Application level gateways is also a type of firewall. Packet filtering is a firewall technique used to control network access by monitoring outgoing and incoming packets and allowing them to pass or halt based on the source and destination Internet Protocol (IP) addresses, protocols and ports.
The Digital Immune system is a comprehensive approach to virus protection, and is not a type of firewall.
 Question 109
Which of the following CFG’s can’t be simulated by a Finte State Machine?
 A S -- < Sa | b B S -- > aSb | ab C S -- < abX, X --> cY, Y -- > d | aX D None of the given options
Theory-of-Computation       Context-Free-Grammar
Question 109 Explanation:
The language generated by the grammar in option 2 is {a^n b^n | n>=1}, which is not regular language ,hence cannot be simulated by a finite state machine. Also we can see that grammar in option 2 is neither left linear grammar nor right linear grammar due to production S -->aSb , hence can’t be simulated by a finite state machine.
 Question 110
Consider the grammar with non-terminals N = {S,C,S1}, terminals T = {a,b,i,t,e}, with S as the start symbol, and the following set of rules: S -- > iCtSS1|a S1 -- > eS | • C -- > b The grammar is NOT LL(1) because:
 A It is left recursive B It is right recursive C It is ambiguous D It is not context-free
Compiler-Design       Parsers
Question 110 Explanation:
 Question 111
Which of the following is true for the language {ap] p is a prime]
 A It is not accepted by a Turing Machine B It is regular but not context-free C It is context-free but not regular D It is neither regular nor context-free, bt accepted by Turing machine
Theory-of-Computation       Languages-and-Grammars
Question 111 Explanation:
The sequence of p is not in arithmetice progression form due to which it not context and not regular but can be accepted by turing machine.
 Question 112
The language L={0i21i | i≥0 } over the alphabet {0.1, 2} is:
 A Not recursive B Is recursive and is a deterministic CFL C Is a regular language D Is not a deterministic CFL but a CFL
Theory-of-Computation       Languages-and-Grammars
Question 112 Explanation:
The given language is DCFL and hence recursive. First we will push 0’s in the stack and when we will see 2 then just read it and then pop 0’s corresponding to one 1.
 Question 113
For the grammar below, a partial LL(1) parsing table is also presented along with the grammar. Entries that need to be filled are indicated as E1, E2, and E3. If the empty strinp, \$indicates end of input, and, | separates alternate right hand sides of productions S->aAbB|bAaB|ε A->S B->S
 a b \$ S E1 E2 S->ε A A->S A->S error B B->S B->S E3

 A FIST(A)=(a,b,\$) FIRST(A)={A,B} FIRST(B) = {a,b,ε} FOLLOW(A)={A,B} FOLLOW(A) = {A,b} FOLLOW(B)={A,b,\$) FOLLOW(B) = {\$} FIRST(B) = {a,b,ε} FOLLOW(A) = {A,b} B FOLLOW(B) = {\$} C FIRST(A) = {a,b,ε} = FIRST(B) D FIRST(A) = {A,B} = FIRST(B) FOLLOW(A)={a,b} FOLLOW(A)={a,b}
Compiler-Design       Parsers
 Question 114
Which of the following combinations of statements is TRUE? I. There exist parsing algorithms for some programming languages whose complexities are less than O(n3). II. A programming language which allows recursion can be implemented with static storage allocation. III. No L-attributed definition can be evaluated in the framework of bottom-up parsing IV. Code improving transformations can be performed at both source language and intermediate code level.
 A I and II B I and IV C III and IV D I, III and IV
Compiler-Design       Run-Time-Environment
Question 114 Explanation:
S1 is true. LR parsers is the example whose worst case time complexity is O(n).
S2 is false, because a programming language which allows recursion needs dynamic memory allocation.
S3 is false because if the definition is S-attributed then it can be evaluated by bottom-up parsing. Note that every S- attributed definition is L-attributed ,vice versa is not true. S4 is true.
 Question 115
Which one of the following is a top-down parser?
 A Recursive descent parser. B Operator precedence parser. C An LR(k) parser. D An LALR(k) parser
Compiler-Design       Parsers
Question 115 Explanation:
Out of the given options only recursive decent parser is the top down parser.
 Question 116
In a bottom-up evaluation of a syntax directed definition, inherited attributes can
 A Always be evaluated B Be evaluated only if the definition is L- -attributed C Be evaluated only if the definition has synthesized attributes D Never be evaluated
Compiler-Design       Synthesized-and-L-Attribute
Question 116 Explanation:
S1 is false because bottom up evaluation is possible for synthesized attribute which is not an inherited attributes.
S2 is false, because if in L- attribute, S-attribute is present then it cannot be inherited attribute.
S3 is false ,same reason as S1.
 Question 117
Which one of the following is True at any valid state in shift-reduce parsing?
 A Viable preflxes appear only at the bottom of the stack and not inside B Viable prefixes appear only at the top of the stack and not inside C The stack contains only a set of viable prefixes D The stack never contains viable prefixes
Compiler-Design       Parsers
Question 117 Explanation:
In SR parsing the stack contains only viable prefixes.
 Question 118
Emp (eid: integer, ename; string, age; integer, salary; real) Works (eid; integer, did; integer, pct time; integer) Dept (did; integer, budget; real, managerid; integer) CREATE VIEW AvegSalaryByAge (age, avgSalary) AS SELECT E.eid, AVG (E.salary) FROM Emp E GROUP By E age.
 A The above view cannot be updated automatically. B The above view on Emp can be updated automatically by updating Emp C The above view cannot be created automatically. D None of the given options
Database-Management-System       SQL
 Question 119
Consider a schedule generated by the execution of several SQL transactions, each of which has READ ONLY access-mode. Which of the following is guaranteed?
 A Conflict-serializable B Serializable C Recoverable D All the given options
Database-Management-System       Transactions
Question 119 Explanation:
Since there is no WRITE operation so no conflicts will be there, hence all the given options are correct.
 Question 120
For a database Relation R (A,B,C,D) where the domains of A,B,C, and D only include atomic values, only the following functional dependency and those that can be inferred from them hold: A C, B D. The relation is in:
 A 1NF but not in 2NF B 2 NF but not in 3NF C 3NF but not in BCNF D BCNF but not in 4NF
Database-Management-System       Normalization
Question 120 Explanation:
Candidate key is AB.
And clearly there is partial functional dependency which is
A → C ,in which non prime attribute C is partially dependent on A
 Question 121
Consider the relation R shown in the below Figure.
 X Y Z X1 Y1 Z1 X1 Y1 Z2 X2 Y1 Z1 X2 Y1 Z3
List all the functional dependencies that this relation instance satisfies.
 A R: Z → Y, X → Y, and X → Z B R: Z →Y, X → Y, and XZ → Y C R: X →Y, X → Z, and XZ → Y D R: Z →Y, X → Z, and XZ → Y
Database-Management-System       Functional-Dependency
Question 121 Explanation:
option 1 is wrong bacause X → Z does not satisfy, since X1 is mapped to two values Z1 and Z2.
Option 3 is wrong because of X → Z.
Option 4 is wrong because of X → Z
 Question 122
The following example is a ----------------- T1:R(X), T2:R(X), T2:W(X), T1:W(X), T2:Commit, T1:Commit
 A Serializable schedule and it is strict B Not serializable schedule and it’s not strict C Serializable schedule, but it’s not strict D Not serializable schedule, but it is strict
Database-Management-System       Transactions
Question 122 Explanation:
 Question 123
Extendible hashing allows the size of the directory to increase and decrease depending on the number and variety of inserts and deletes. Once the directory size changes, the hash function applied to the search key value should also change. So there should be some information in the index as to which hash function is to be applied. This information is provided by ----------------
 A Local depth B Global depth C Over flow bucket D Buddy bucket
 Question 124
A 3NF table which does not have multiple overlapping candidate keys is said to be in -------------
 A 1NF B 2NF C 4NF D BCNF
Database-Management-System       Normalization
Question 124 Explanation:
If in 3NF table there is no multiple overlapping candidate keys then that table is also in BCNF.
 Question 125
Consider the following script: < html > < head >< title > JavaScript < title >< / head > < body > < script language-“JavaScript” > var a=80 var b=(==80 ? “pass” : “fail”): document, write(b) < / script > < / body > < / html > What will be the output of the above script?
 A pass B fail C 80 D Error at line 6
Web-Technologies       Java-Script
 Question 126
An alternative to Java Script is
 A VBScript B ASP, NET C JSP D None of the given options
Web-Technologies       Java-Script
 Question 127
When destroy 0 method of servlet gets called?
 A The destroy 0 method is called only once at the end of the life cycle of a servlet. B The destroy 0 method is called after the servlet has executed service method. C The destroy 0 method is called only once at the end of the life cycle of a servlet. And destroy 0 method is called after the servlet has executed service method. D None of the given options
Web-Technologies       Java-Script
 Question 128
Which of the following way can be used to keep track of previous client request?
 A Using cookies B Using hidden form fields C Using URL rewriting D All the given options
 Question 129
FOR XML document to be valid
 A document need to be well-formed B document need to be validated against a DTD C document need to be well-formed and document need to be validated against a DTD D document should contain valid data
Web-Technologies       XML
 Question 130
Which of the following instruct the browser which style sheet to use
 A < xml-stylesheet type=”text/xsl” href=”cdxsl” > B < xml-stylesheet type=”text/xsl” xsl=’cd.xsl” > C < ’/xml-stylesheet type=”text/dsl” href=”cd.xsl”? > D < ?xml-styleshet type=”test/xsl” xsl=”cd.xsl”? >
Web-Technologies       XML
 Question 131
The value of GET, POST are specified in ------ of HTTP message
 A Request line B Header line C Status line D Entity body
Computer-Networks       Application-Layer-Protocol
 Question 132
When is the mouseout event fired?
 A When mouse is no longer over an element B When mouse is over an element C When mouse is hovered D None of the given options
 Question 133
NFS server is
 A Stateful server B Stateless server C One whose architecture uses virtual file system(VSF) layer D Stateless server and One whose architecture uses virtual file system(VFS) layer
 Question 134
Stateless server means
 A It keeps state information pertaining to a client request between such requests B It does not keep state information pertaining to a client request between such requests C Client binding to server is not required before processing a client request D None of the given options
 Question 135
In a distributed system location transparency implies
 A Physical identity of the resources is not directly embedded into client’s code B Users can not tell where resources are located C Users can tell where resources are located D Physical identity of the resources is not directly embedded into client’s code and Users cannot tell where resources are located
 Question 136
In group communication involving n members, group addressing uses
 A n – 1 B One multicast C One multicast D May use any one of the given options
 Question 137
The inherent limitation of Distributed Systems is
 A Absence of central controller for synchronization B Absence of shared memory C Absence of centralized deadlock manager D Absence of centralized scheduler
 Question 138
Triple Modular Redundancy(TMR) for fault tolerance is characterized by
 A Each device is replicated three times B Each voter is a circuit that has three inputs and one output C Each device is replicated three times and Each voter is a circuit that has three inputs and one output D None of the given options
 Question 139
UNIX semantics for shared file access are characterized by
 A Every operation on a file is instantly visible to all processes B No changes are visible to other processes until the file is closed C These are best suited for centralized systems D Every operation on a file is instantly visible to all processes and these are best suited for centralized systems
Operating-Systems       Linux-Operating-systems
 Question 140
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the data collection maintained in a Data Warehouse?
 A Integrated B Subject Oriented C Volatile D Time-variant
 Question 141
Which of the following is an interestingness metric used for data characterization?
 A Typicality weight B Recall C Confidence D Cohesion
 Question 142
The Euclidean distance between the pair or data points, X and Y, where X=0.2,0.5,0.6> and Y = 0, 4,0.4,0.1,0.6 > is ------
 A 0.09 B 0.2 C 0.3 D 0.5
 Question 143
Consider a 4-dimensional dataset with attributes A,B,C,D described in terms of 10,4,50,20 distinct values respectively. assuming that each cell occupied 2 bytes of memory, when is the total memory space required to materialize all possible 3-Dimensional cuboids of the dataset?
 A 32,000 bytes B 33,600 bytes C 16,800 bytes D 14,800 bytes
 Question 144
Consider an attribute whose value is 48 in a range of 18 to 98. What is its equivalent value in -1 to +1 scale using Min-Max normalization?
 A 0.75 B 0.25 C -0.25 D -0.625
 Question 145
Which of the following metrics is used for building decision tree classifiers from the training set of examples?
 A Euclidean distance B Support C Information gain D Precision
 Question 146
Which of the following estimates are represented in the Box-plot of an attribute?
 A Mean, Mode, and Median B Mean, Mode, Median, Min and Max C Min, Max, quartiles Q1, Q2 and Q3 D Only quartiles Q1, Q2 and Q3
 Question 147
Which of the following clustering algorithms is applicable for grouping nearly 1000 data points into ten mutually exclusive clusters?
 A Agglomerative clustering B Divisive clustering C DBSCAN D K-means clustering
 Question 148
Which of the following activation functions is applied for hidden and output layer neurons for building a back propagation classifier using neural network?
 A Sigmoid function B Radial Basis Function C Poisson regression D Gaussian function
 Question 149
If T consist of 500000 transactions, 20000 transaction contain bread, 30000 transaction contain jam, 10000 transaction contain both bread and jam. Then the support of bread and jam is ------------------
 A 2 Percent B 20 Percent C 3 Percent D 30 Percent
 Question 150
Consider the performance of a binary classifier on a test set containing 1100 positive and 700 negative examples. The components of the confusion matrix in terms of TP, PN, FP and TN are 700,400, 200 and 500 respectively. what is the approximate value of classifier accuracy?
 A 66.6 Percent B 63.3 Percent C 33.3 Percent D 75 Percent
There are 150 questions to complete.